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CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2017

CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2017

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy

Q3. Which one of the following is a correctly matched pair?
(a) Punishment and obedience orientation—Laws are not fixed, but can be changed for the good of society
(b) Social contract orientation—Physical consequences of an action determine whether it is good or bad
(c) Good boy and good girl orientation—One earns approval by being nice
(d) Imitation
Ans: (c)
Q4. The concept of ‘private speech’ of children as proposed by Vygotsky
(a) illustrates that children are ego-centric
(b) shows that children are stupid and thus need guidance from adults
(c) shows that children love themselves
(d) ability to take other’s perspective
Ans: (d)
Q5. According to Vygotsky, learning cannot be separated from
(a) its social context
(b) perception and attentional processes
(c) reinforcement
(d) Law and order orientation—Ethical principles are self-chosen on the basis of the value of human rights
Ans: (a)
Q6. Progressive education entails that the classroom is
(a) democratic and there is space given to children for understanding
(b) in full control of the teacher, who is dictatorial
(c) authoritarian, where the teacher dictates and students follow meekly
(d) illustrates that children use speech to guide their own actions
Ans: (a)
Q7. Which one of the following illustrates a person with linguistic intelligence?
(a) Sensitivity to the meaning and order of words and the varied uses of language
(b) The ability to handle long chains of reasoning
(c) Sensitivity to pitch, melody and tone
(d) a measurable change in behaviour
Ans: (a)
Q8. Language ______ thought process.
(a) does not influence the
(b) cannot determine the
(c) totally governs our
(d) free for all with the teacher absent from it
Ans: (d)
Q9. A textbook of class VIII has the following illustrations—women as teachers and maids while men as doctors and pilots. This type of depiction is likely to promote
(a) gender stereotyping
(b) gender empowerment
(c) gender role play
(d) The ability to notice and make distinctions among others
Ans: (a)
Q10. There are vast differences among students. Of these, a teacher needs to be sensitive to
I. Differences based on cognitive capabilities and learning levels.
II. Differences based on diversity of language, caste, gender, religion, community.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) Only II
(d) has an influence on our
Ans: (d)
Q11. Assessment by only paper-pencil tests
(a) limits assessment
(b) promotes holistic assessment
(c) facilitates comprehensive evaluation
(d) gender constancy
Ans: (a)
Q12. A teacher has a ‘hearing impaired’ child in her middle school class. It is important for her to
(a) make the child sit at a place from where she can see the teacher’s lips and facial expressions clearly
(b) ask the school counsellor to talk to the child’s parents and tell them to withdraw their child from the school
(c) keep pointing to what the child cannot do over and over again
(d) Both I and II
Ans: (a)
Q13. A teacher can effectively respond to the needs of the children from ‘disadvantaged sections’ of society by
(a) ignoring their background and asking them to do chores in the school
(b) adapting her pedagogy to the needs of every child in the classroom.
(c) making them sit separately in the classroom so that they do not mix with other children
(d) facilitates continuous evaluation
Ans: (b)
Q14. Children with learning disability
(a) are very wise and nature
(b) are very active, but have a low IQ
(c) cannot learn anything
(d) ridicule the child and make her sit separately so that she joins an institution for the hearing impaired
Ans: (d)
Q15. Teachers can encourage children to think creatively by
(a) asking them to think of different ways to solve a problem
(b) giving them multiple-choice questions
(c) asking them to memorise answers
(d) telling other children to treat the children from disadvantaged background with sympathy
Ans: (a)
Q16. Which one of the following philosophical perspectives needs to be followed to deal with children with special needs?
(a) They do not need any education at all.
(b) They have a right to inclusive education and study in regular schools.
(c) They should be segregated and put in separated educational institutions.
(d) struggle with some aspects of learning
Ans: (b)
Q17. The learner-centred approach means
(a) methods where the learner’s own initiative and efforts are involved in learning
(b) use of methods in which the teacher is the main actor
(c) that the teacher draw conclusions for learners
(d) asking them recall-based questions
Ans: (a)
Q18. Which one of the following is central to learning?
(a) Meaning-making
(b) Imitation
(c) Conditioning
(d) They should be given only vocational training.
Ans: (a)
Q19. In a constructivist classroom as envisioned by Piaget and Vygotsky, learning
(a) is constructed by the students themselves who play an active role
(b) is offering of reinforcement by the teacher
(c) is dictated by the teacher, and the students are passive recipients of the same
(d) traditional expository methods
Ans: (a)
Q20. Which one of the following is a good example of ‘scaffolding’ (learning of a problem-solving task till the student is able to do it by herself)?
(a) Telling her that she can do it by trying again and again
(b) Offering a reward for solving the problem quickly
(c) Providing a half-solved example
(d) Role memorisation
Ans: (c)
Q21. Your class has learners with different learning styles.
To assess them, you would give them
(a) the same set of tasks and tests
(b) a uniform set of instructions and subsequently label the children according to their marks in the test
(c) a variety of tasks and tests
(d) happens by pairing of a stimulus and a response.
Ans: (c)
Q22. Nowadays, there is a tendency to refer to ‘wrong concepts’ of children as ‘alternative conceptions’.
This could be attributed to
(a) the recognition that children are capable of thinking and their thinking is different from that of adults
(b) children’s understanding being nuanced and their being passive in their own learning
(c) using fancy terms to describe children’s errors
(d) Telling her that she cannot go home till she solves the problem
Ans: (a)
Q23. Which one of the following best describes a teacher’s role in a middle school classroom?
(a) Using PowerPoint presentation to give lectures
(b) Discouraging multiple perspectives and focusing on uni-dimensional perspective
(c) Providing opportunities for discussions (4 Promoting students to compete amongst themselves for the first position
(d) the same time to perform on the tests
Ans: (c)
Q24. Which one of the following statements about motivation and learning is correct?
(a) Learning is effective only when students are motivated using external rewards.
(b) Motivation does not have any role to play in learning.
(c) Learning is effective only when students have intrinsic motivation–a desire to learn from inside.
(d) children being thought of as adult–like in their thinking
Ans: (c)
Q25. Which one of the following statements about learning is correct?
(a) Learning does not depend on the learner’s previous knowledge.
(b) Learning is a passive receptive process.
(c) Learning is equivalent to acquisition of skills.
Ans: (d)
Q26. Which of the following is an important activity to enable children to learn?
(a) Dialogue
(b) Reward
(c) Lecture
(d) Learning is effective only when students are extrinsically motivated–motivated by external factors.
Ans: (b)
Q27. Which one of the following statements about development is correct?
(a) Developmental changes go forward in a straight line.
(b) Development proceeds from birth to adolescence in a forward manner and then it goes backwards.
(c) Development occurs at a different rate among different individuals.
(d) Learning is facilitated by social actions.
Ans: (c)
Q28. Middle childhood is the period from
(a) Birth to 2 years
(b) 10 years onwards
(c) 2 years to 6 years
(d) Instruction
Ans: (d)
Q29. “Environmental factors do not play any role in shaping an individual, since growth of each individual is determined by his genetic makeup.” This statement is
(a) correct, since genetic makeup of an individual is very strong
(b) incorrect since there have been several researches to prove that the environment can have a major influence on development
(c) correct, since there have been several researches to prove that genetic material alone predicts an individual’s development
(d) Development occurs at a very fast pace from birth till adolescence and then it stops.
Ans: (b)
Q30. _____ is a process through which a human infant begins to acquire the necessary skills to perform as a functioning member of the society.
(a) Socialisation
(b) Development
(c) Learning
(d) 6 years to 11 years
Ans: (a)
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q31. Who among the following sailors sailed westwards across the Atlantic Ocean to find a sea-route to India?
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Xuan Zang
(c) Christopher Columbus
(d) incorrect, since environmental factors contribute little in an individual’s growth and development
Ans: (c)
Q32. Which among the following dynasties introduced Malayalam language and script in its inscriptions?
(a) The Cholas
(b) The Kushanas
(c) The Cheras
(d) Maturation
Ans: (c)

Part II: Social Studies

Q33. The Revolt of Songram Sangma in 1906 took place because
(a) the Muslim traders in Bengal rose against the unequal terms of trade set by the British
(b) the peasants in Champaran revolted against the indigo planters
(c) the Patidar peasants of Gujarat rebelled against the high land revenue demand of the British
(d) Fa Xian
Ans: (d)
Q34. The Simon Commission, sent by the British to India in 1927, was opposed because
(a) it had no Indian representative on it
(b) it had only English educated Indian representatives
(c) it had very few Indian representatives as compared to the British
(d) The Pandyas
Ans: (a)
Q35. Match the following:
Movement/Organisation Reformer
(a) Brahmo Samaj (i) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Young Bengal Movement (ii) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
(c) Ramakrishna Mission (iii) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(d) Aligarh Movement (iv) Keshav Chandra Sen
(a) a b c d iv iii i ii
(b) a b c d i iv iii ii
(c) a b c d iii ii iv i
(d) the tribal groups in Assam reacted against the colonial forest laws
Ans: (a)
Q36. Veteran Gandhian leader Potti Sriramulu went on hunger strike in 1952, demanding the formation of which of the following States?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Telangana
(c) Kerala
(d) it had no Indian woman representative
Ans: (d)
Q37. Who among the following was an exponent of the notion of Wahdat-i-deen that upholds the essential oneness of all religions?
(a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Baji Muhammad
(c) Maulana Azad
(d) a b c d ii i iv iii
Ans: (c)
Q38. The main latitude that passes almost halfway through India is
(a) the Equator
(b) the Arctic Circle
(c) the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Q39. Which one of the following defines the ‘Earth Day’?
(a) The motion of the earth around the sun in its orbit
(b) The days on which the days and nights are equal all over the earth
(c) The distances between the longitudes
(d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
Ans: (d)
Q40. Match the following:
Type of Vegetation Species of Plants
(a) Tropical rain forest (i) Sundari
(b) Tropical deciduous forest (ii) Babool
(c) Thorny bushes (iii) Mahogany
(d) Mangrove forest (iv) Sal
(a) a b c d iii iv ii i
(b) a b c d iv iii i ii
(c) a b c d i ii iii iv
(d) the Tropic of Cancer
Ans: (a)
Q41. India’s research stations named “Maitri’ and ‘Dakshin Gangotri’ are located in which one of the following continents?
(a) Australia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) The period of one rotation of the earth around its axis
Ans: (d)
Q42. Consider the following two statements A and B about ocean currents and choose the correct answer:
(a) The warm ocean currents originate near the equator and move towards the Poles.
(b) The cold ocean currents carry water from lower latitudes to higher latitudes.
(a) A is true and B is false.
(b) Both A and B are false.
(c) Both A and B are true.
(d) a b c d ii i iv iii
Ans: (a)
Q43. ‘Transhumance’ refer to the
(a) seasonal movement of people for their livelihood
(b) urban-to-rural migration of the labour force during harvesting period
(c) seasonal movement of people with their livestock in search of new pastures
(d) Antarctica
Ans: (c)
Q44. Match the following:
Types of Rocks Examples
(a) Intrusive igneous rocks (i) Limestone
(b) Extrusive igneous rocks (ii) Sandstone
(c) Sedimentary rocks (iii) Basalt
(d) Metamorphic rocks (iv) Granite
(a) a b c d iv iii ii i
(b) a b c d iii iv i ii
(c) a b c d i ii iii iv
(d) A is false and B is true.
Ans: (a)
Q45. ‘Chinook’, a local wind, blows in which of the following regions?
(a) The Velds
(b) The Pampas
(c) The Prairies
(d) seasonal movement of wild animals
Ans: (c)
Q46. Which one of the following atmospheric layers helps in radio transmission?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) a b c d ii i iv iii
Ans: (b)
Q47. Which one of the following is a variety of ‘gold wrought’?
(a) Silk
(b) Jute
(c) Cotton
(d) The Savannas
Ans: (c)
Q48. Population density refers to
(a) the number of people living in a unit area of the earth’s surface
(b) the way in which people are spread across the earth’s surface
(c) the number of people living in a particular area
(d) Mesosphere
Ans: (a)
Q49. Which one of the following methods is used to take out minerals lying near the surface of the earth?
(a) Open cast mining
(b) Shaft mining
(c) Quarrying
(d) Nylon
Ans: (c)
Q50. ‘Basket weaving’ is an example of which one of the following types of industry?
(a) Cooperative sector
(b) Large scale
(c) Small scale
(d) the number of people living during a specific time
Ans: (c)
Q51. Which one of the following statements about monarchy is incorrect?
(a) In a monarchy, people can raise questions about the decisions taken by the monarch.
(b) The monarch does not have to explain the decisions taken by him/her.
(c) In a monarchy, people cannot question the decisions taken by the monarch.
(d) Drilling
Ans: (a)
Q52. On which one of the following rivers is the Krishna Raja Sagar Dam constructed?
(a) Mahandi
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Joint sector
Ans: (b)
Q53. The Hindu Succession Amendment Act, 2005 provides an equal share in the deceased father’s property to
(a) Daughter(s), son(s) and brother(s)
(b) Wife, daughter(s) and sister(s)
(c) Wife, son(s) and daughter(s)
(d) The final decision-making power lies with the monarch.
Ans: (c)
Q54. Who among the following national leaders coined the phrase ‘Unity in Diversity’ to describe the Indian nation-state?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Krishna
Ans: (d)
Q55. Consider the following two statements A and B about the functions of Janapad Panchayat and choose the correct answer:
A. The Janapad Panchayat makes developmental plans at the district level.
B. The Janapad Panchayat helps Zila Parishad regulate money distribution among Gram Panchayats.
(a) A is true and B is false.
(b) Both A and B are false.
(c) A is false and B is true.
(d) Wife, son(s) and brother(s)
Ans: (c)
Q56. Consider the following two statements A and B on the Right to information (RTI) Act and choose the correct Answer:
A. Through the RTI Act, a citizen can get information pertaining to the working of the departments of the Central Government only.
B. To get information under the Right to Information Act, a citizen has to first file a petition in court of any level.
(a) A is true and B is false.
(b) Both A and B are false.
(c) A is false and B is true.
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (b)
Q57. Who among the following was the writer of the story, Sultana’s Dream?
(a) Rokeya Sakhawat Hussain
(b) Pandita Ramabai
(c) Mumtaz Ali
(d) Both A and B are true.
Ans: (a)
Q58. Who among the following wrote the book, Gulamgiri?
(a) E. V. Ramasamy Periyar
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Jyotirao Phule
(d) Both A and B are true.
Ans: (c)
Q59. In the context of the Indian judiciary, the appellate system means
(a) separation of power among the legislature, executive and judiciary
(b) that one can plead one’s case in the court without having a degree in law
(c) the decisions made by the higher courts are binding on the lower courts
(d) Rashsundari Devi
Ans: (d)
Q60. The executive organ of the State refers to
(a) the elected representatives
(b) every citizen of the country exercising universal adult franchise
(c) a group of people responsible for implementing laws and running the government
(d) Shri Narayan Guru
Ans: (c)
Q61. Article 22 of the Constitution ensures
(a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(b) Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) one can move to a higher court if one feels that the judgement of the lower court is not just
Ans: (b)
Q62. Who among the following is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) the judges of the Supreme court and High Courts
Ans: (c)
Q63. Consider the following statements on the nature of Social Science at the upper primary stage:
A. It is a study of people in their environment.
B. It is a study of relations among people and their interdependence.
C. It is a study of the past and its relation to the present.
Select the most appropriate choice from the above statements.
(a) A and B
(b) A, B and C
(c) B and C
(d) Right to Education
Ans: (b)
Q64. ‘Social and Political Life’ textbooks at the upper primary level cover contents related to
(a) Psychology
(b) International Relations
(c) Economics
(d) The Speaker
Ans: (c)
Q65. Why would you ask questions on historical imagination? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:
(a) It shows how historians fill gaps in history with their imagination.
(b) It is a fun-way to remember dates and events.
(c) It encourages comparison of the present with the past.
(d) A and C
Ans: (c)
Q66. Why would you use narratives in Social Science teaching? Choose the most appropriate reason from the given options.
(a) To sensitise students so that they can find appropriate role models
(b) To ensure that syllabus is completed
(c) To entertain and enliven a class
(d) Philosophy
Ans: (d)
Q67. According to the National Focus Group (2006), the teaching of Social Science is losing popularity as
(a) it lays too much emphasis upon scientific temperament
(b) it presents several situations of conflict in human values
(c) it is considered as a non-utilitarian subject
(d) It evaluates a student’s ability to identify sources.
Ans: (c)
Q68. Which one of the following is an incorrect description of school-based assessment?
(a) It covers scholastic aspects.
(b) It covers only co-curricular aspects.
(c) It covers non-scholastic aspects.
(d) To link concepts to life’s realities
Ans: (b)
Q69. Consider the following two statements on a teacher’s role in transacting a Social Science topic and select the correct answer:
A. The teacher must ensure the dignity of all students and conduct discussions with sensitivity.
B. The teacher must focus upon facts with boys and feelings of girls.
(a) Only A
(b) Neither A nor B
(c) Only B
(d) it encourages many subjects of study
Ans: (a)
Q70. Why is the study of Social Science ‘scientific’?
(a) It helps its readers study the scientific society.
(b) It comprises systematically acquired verified knowledge.
(c) It uses scientific terms in its content.
(d) It covers all aspects.
Ans: (b)
Q71. You have to depict the proportion of time a rural worker spends as employed, underemployed and unemployed in a year. Which one of the following diagrammatic representations would you select?
(a) Pie diagram
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Timeline diagram
(d) Both A and B
Ans: (a)
Q72. Select the most appropriate reason for assessing students through art in Social Science subjects.
(a) It improves students’ artistic ability.
(b) It is a means to enjoy different styles of expression depicted in the textbook.
(c) It makes it an enjoyable way of evaluation.
(d) It fulfils the demand for calling Social Studies as science.
Ans: (d)
Q73. Which one of the following projects on ‘global warming’ is based on secondary sources?
(a) Interviews with elders living in an area on changes in weather
(b) A collage of pictures on global warming
(c) A graphical representation of unanalysed weather data collected from meteorological office
(d) Flow diagram
Ans: (c)
Q74. A teacher provides some criteria to students and asks them to assess their projects on those bases. Which one of the following assessment measures has been adopted by the teacher?
(a) Peer assessment
(b) Formative assessment
(c) Self-assessment
(d) It provides an opportunity for personal interpretation of concepts.
Ans: (c)
Q75. What is the nomenclature change suggested by the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 for Civics?
(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Social and Political Life
(d) A discussion based on the weather changes mentioned in a book
Ans: (c)
Q76. Which value will you emphasise the least in the upper primary Social Science classroom from among the following?
(a) Competitiveness
(b) Cooperation
(c) Scientific approach
(d) Summative assessment
Ans: (a)
Q77. What is the purpose of summative assessment of students?
(a) Assessing during the class
(b) Assessing at the end of term
(c) Assessing a project
(d) Economics
Ans: (b)
Q78. Suppose a teacher has to teach the chapter, ‘The Cold Desert – Ladakh’ in Class VII. Which one of the following methods would be the most appropriate?
(a) Survey method
(b) Workshop method
(c) Case study method
(d) Equality
Ans: (c)
Q79. Which one of the following methods is most relevant for the teaching of historical facts/ historiography at the upper primary level?
(a) Project method
(b) Map method
(c) Problem-solving method
(d) Assessing at the end of a lesson
Ans: (d)
Q80. The National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 recommends that children’s school education must be linked with
(a) the outside school environment
(b) the annual examination
(c) mainstream opinions
(d) Regional method
Ans: (a)
Q81. On which of the following choices is the data best represented by a bar diagram?
(a) Temperature
(b) Air pressure
(c) Rainfall
(d) Source method
Ans: (c)
Q82. In order to develop an understanding of democratic institutions, choose the most appropriate curricular approach from the following.
(a) Describe ideal situations
(b) Provide examples of realities along with ideal situations
(c) Provide mainly national-level examples
(d) the conditions of the school infrastructure
Ans: (b)
Q83. In which one of the following languages, mathematician and astronomer Aryabhata wrote his book, Aryabhatiyam?
(a) Hindi
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Humidity
Ans: (d)
Q84. Which one of the following Stupas is marked as the place where Lord Buddha preached his first message?
(a) Sarnath
(b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Sanchi
(d) Introduce students to harsh realities
Ans: (a)
Q85. Which were the three dynasties referred to as ‘Muvendar’ in Sangam poems?
(a) The Cholas, the Rashtrakutas and the Pandyas
(b) The Cheras, the Palas and the Rashtrakutas
(c) The Palas, the Cholas and the Pandyas
(d) Sanskrit
Ans: (d)
Q86. The Rampurwa bull, a polished stone sculpture, now placed in the Rashtrapati Bhawan, was built during the reign of which one of the following?
(a) The Mauryas
(b) The Pandyas
(c) The Cholas
(d) Thotlakonda
Ans: (a)
Q87. Who among the following propounded the doctrine of ‘Vishishtadvaita’?
(a) Shankara
(b) Allama Prabhu
(c) Ramanuja
(d) The Cholas, the Cheras and the Pandyas
Ans: (c)
Q88. An archive is a place where
(a) sculptures found in excavations are kept
(b) remains of the buildings made of stone and bricks found by archaeologists are kept
(c) historical manuscripts and documents are kept
(d) The Kushanas
Ans: (c)
Q89. Which one of the following statements is correct about the Veerashaiva Movement initiated during the mid-twelfth century in Karnataka?
(a) It was initiated by Namdev and his companions.
(b) It argued against Brahmanical ideas about caste and treatment of women.
(c) It focused on worship of Vitthala.
(d) Basavanna
Ans: (b)
Q90. Consider the following two statements A and B about ‘Bandagan’ in the early Delhi Sultanate and choose the correct answer:
A. ‘Bandagan’ were special slaves purchased for military service and were trained with great care to hold the most important political offices in the kingdom.
B. ‘Bandagan’ were totally dependent upon their masters. So the Sultans could not trust and rely upon them.
(a) A is false and B is true
(b) B is false and A is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) excavated bones of animals and birds are kept
Ans: (c)
Directions: Answer the following questions (Q. 91–105) by selecting the most appropriate options.
Q91. Functional grammar refers to
(a) learning grammar in a given context
(b) learning grammar in isolation
(c) learning grammar by knowing the technicalities of language
(d) It was against all forms of ritualism but promoted idol worship.
Ans: (c)
Q92. ‘Role play’ is an activity for promoting
(a) speaking and listening
(b) writing
(c) assessment
(d) Both A and B are false
Ans: (a)

Part III: Language I English

Q93. ‘Brainstorming’ technique is useful for
(a) developing learners’ vocabulary
(b) improving students’ spontaneous sensitivity
(c) overcoming the problems of spelling
(d) learning grammar through the rules of language
Ans: (a)
Q94. Lata, an English language teacher of Class VII, divides the class into parts to read a sequence of pictures and then describe it to each other. What is this activity pedagogically known as?
(a) Group work
(b) Assignment
(c) Teacher-facilitated reading
(d) listening
Ans: (d)
Q95. Extensive reading is
(a) reading the text for pleasure
(b) reading for information
(c) reading to know the meaning of every word
(d) helping students in forming new sentences
Ans: (a)
Q96. Pre-reading activity is meant for
(a) connecting the learner’s previous knowledge and taking the learner into the text
(b) teaching the grammatical items given in the text
(c) connecting the whole class with one another
(d) Peer interaction
Ans: (a)
Q97. While teaching a prose text, which one of the following activities must a teacher undertake?
(a) Transcription
(b) Paraphrasing the text
(c) Creating a sub-text
(d) reading to extrapolate and critique
Ans: (c)
Q98. Which one of the following is not a language component?
(a) Manuscript
(b) Sound system
(c) Grammar
(d) giving information about the writer of the text
Ans: (a)
Q99. Which one of the following is not true about the status of English language across the world?
(a) English as a native language
(b) English as a heritage language
(c) English as a foreign language
(d) Consulting a dictionary
Ans: (b)
Q100. The study of words and their meanings is known as
(a) semantics
(b) linguistics
(c) phonetics
(d) Speech
Ans: (a)
Q101. A good language textbook should include
(a) more grammar exercises
(b) extracts from British and American literature
(c) interesting stories
(d) English as a second language
Ans: (d)
Q102. The structural approach lays stress on
(a) developing accuracy
(b) improving fluency
(c) developing linguistic competence
(d) syntax
Ans: (a)
Q103. Learning to read means
(a) decoding letters of alphabet into sounds
(b) reading aloud
(c) decoding the structure of a language
(d) attractive fonts, illustrations and learner-friendly texts
Ans: (a)
Q104. The National Curriculum Framework, 2005 advocates that a language learner is a
(a) constructor of knowledge/language
(b) user of grammatical rules
(c) receiver of language
(d) selection and gradation of materials
Ans: (a)
Q105. Contrastive pairing is used for teaching-learning of
(a) speaking
(b) writing
(c) pronunciation
(d) decoding the meaning
Ans: (c)
Directions: Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. 106–111) by selecting the most appropriate option.
Dark house, by which once more I stand, Here in the long unlovely street, Doors, where my heart was used to beat So quickly, waiting for a hand, A hand that can be clasp’d no more- Behold me, for I cannot sleep, And like a guilty thing I creep (7) At earliest morning to the door.
He is not here, but far away The noise of life begins again, And ghastly thro’ the drizzling rain On the bald street breaks the blank day. (12)
Q106. The speaker is standing in front of a/an
(a) open field
(b) graveyard
(c) dark road
(d) producer of language
Ans: (d)
Q107. The poet is waiting for someone to hold his
(a) hand
(b) body
(c) arm
(d) reading
Ans: (a)
Q108. The poet is standing in the ‘unlovely street’
(a) to overcome his loneliness
(b) to get rid of his fear
(c) to meet his friend
(d) empty house
Ans: (c)
Q109. The phrase ‘noise of life’ signifies
(a) the sound of drizzling rain
(b) daily routine of life
(c) the poet’s friend
(d) heart
Ans: (b)
Q110. The poetic device used in line 7 is
(a) onomatopoeia
(b) a hyperbole
(c) a metaphor
(d) to experience the drizzling sound
Ans: (d)
Q111. In line 12, the poetic device used is
(a) alliteration
(b) a metaphor
(c) an irony
(d) nature’s sympathy
Ans: (a)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. 112–120) by selecting the most appropriate option.
When the sun had descended on the other side of the narrow strip of land, and a day of sunshine was followed by a night without twilight, the new lighthouse keeper was in his place evidently, for the lighthouse was casting its bright rays on the water as usual. The night was perfectly calm, silent, genuinely tropical, filled with a transparent haze, forming around the moon a great coloured rainbow with soft, unbroken edges; the sea was moving only because the tide raised it.
The keeper on the balcony seemed from below like a small black point. He tried to collect his thoughts and take in his new position; but his mind was under too much pressure to move with regularity. He felt somewhat as a hunted beast feels when at last it has found refuge from pursuit on some inaccessible rock or in a cave. Now on that rock he can simply laugh at his previous wanderings, his misfortunes and failures. He was in truth like a ship whose masts, ropes and sails had been broken and rent by a tempest, and might have been cast to the bottom of the sea, a ship on which the tempest had hurried waves and spat foam, but which still wound its way to the harbour.
The pictures of that storm passed quickly through his mind as he compared it with the calm future now beginning. Part of his wonderful adventures he had related to Mr. Shyam when he was interviewed for the job of the keeper; he had not mentioned, however, thousands of other incidents. It had been his misfortune that as often as he pitched his tent and fixed his fireplace to settle down permanently, some wind tore out the stakes of his tent, whirled away the fire, and bore him on towards destruction.
Looking now from the balcony of the tower at the illuminated waves, he remembered everything through which he had passed. He had campaigned in the four parts of the world, and in wandering had tried almost every occupation.
Q112. The water around the lighthouse got lit up because
(a) the lighthouse was casting its bright rays
(b) the sun had set
(c) the night was in the twilight zone
(d) a simile
Ans: (a)
Q113. ______ had made a rainbow around the moon.
(a) Tropical climate
(b) Rays from the lighthouse
(c) Rising sea tide
(d) a simile
Ans: (d)
Q114. The lighthouse keeper’s mind was free from pressure, because
(a) he no longer felt like a hunted beast
(b) there were only 400 steps to the top
(c) his job was quite easy
(d) the keeper had started his job
Ans: (a)
Q115. The ship of his life was hit by a storm
(a) yet it reached the harbour safely
(b) and it went down to the bottom of the sea
(c) and it reached the port in a damaged condition
(d) Transparent haze
Ans: (a)
Q116. “He was in truth like a ship.” The figure of speech used in the above sentence is
(a) a simile
(b) a hyperbole
(c) a metaphor
(d) there was regularity in the movements
Ans: (a)
Q117. “… a day of sunshine was followed by a night …” When the voice in the above sentence is changed, it becomes
(a) The night follows the sunny day.
(b) A night followed the sunny day.
(c) A night is followed by a day of sunshine.
(d) yet it kept on sailing on the sea
Ans: (d)
Q118. The antonym of ‘narrow’ is
(a) broad
(b) wide
(c) deep
(d) personification
Ans: (b)
Q119. “The night was perfectly calm.” The word ‘perfectly’ is a/an
(a) noun
(b) adverb
(c) verb
(d) A night followed a day of sunshine.
Ans: (b)
Q120. The word ‘illuminated’ means
(a) lighted up
(b) calm
(c) decorated
(d) steep
Ans: (a)

भाग III: भाषा II हिन्दी

निर्देश: नीचे दिए प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 121-135) सही सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए।
Q121. अपनी कक्षा में समावेशी माहौल का निर्माण करने के लिए आप किस बात को सबसे अधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण मानते हैं?
(a) विभिन्न प्रकार के दृश्य-श्रव्य संसाधनों का आवश्यकतानुसार उचित प्रयोग
(b) सभी बच्चों से सभी भाषिक प्रकार्यों को समानरूप से संपादित करवाना
(c) विभिन्न प्रकार के दृश्य-श्रव्य संसाधनों का सदैव अनिवार्य प्रयोग
(d) adjective
Ans: (a)
Q122. आठवीं कक्षा के बच्चों के भाषा आकलन के लिए आप किसे सबसे de महत्त्वपूर्ण मानते है?
(a) किसी विषय पर अपने विचार प्रकट करना
(b) लिखित परीक्षाओं का आयोजन करना
(c) किसी कहानी को नाटक मेंरूपांतरित करना
(d) tossed up
Ans: (b)
Q123. सतीश सातवीं कक्षा का विद्यार्थी है। वह निबंध लिखते समय कुंजी या गाइड से रटी हुई भाषा का प्रयोग करता है। इसके कारणों में सबसे कमजोर कारण हो सकता हैं-
(a) उसकी मौि खक भाषा बेहद कमजोर है
(b) सृजनात्मक लेखन की शिक्षण पद्धति उचित नहीं है
(c) उसकी लिखित भाषा पर पकड़ नहीं है
(d) स्वयं के बोलने की गति को बहुत धीमा रखना
Ans: (a)
Q124. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर हिन्दी भाषा शिक्षण का एक सर्वाधिक महत्त्वपूर्ण उद्देश्य है-
(a) बच्चों में समझ के साथ पढ़ने और लिखने की क्षमता का विकास करना
(b) बच्चों को पाठों के अंत में दिए गए उदाहरणों का अभ्यास करवाना
(c) बच्चों में कहानियों को शब्दश: दोहराने की क्षमता का विकास करना
(d) साहित्यिक समारोहों का आयोजन करना
Ans: (a)
Q125. भाषा सीखने में सबसे बडा़ बाधक तत्त्व हो सकता ह-ै
(a) पाठ्य-पुस्तक
(b) भाषा में आकलन
(c) भाषायी प्रयोग के अवसर
(d) उसमें विचार करने का सामर्थ्य नहीं है
Ans: (a)
Q126. पोर्टफोलियो
(a) बच्चों के आकलन का सबसे सरल तरीका है
(b) बच्चों के अभिभावकों को पूर्ण जानकारी देता है
(c) बच्चों की क्रमिक प्रगति की जानकारी देता है
(d) बच्चों को व्याकरण के नियमों को कंठस्थ करवाना
Ans: (c)
Q127. भाषा-शिक्षण पर हुए शोध बताते है कि द्वितीय विदेशी भाषा में दक्षता सीखने वाले की——–और——–पर ही ज्यादा निर्भर करती है।
(a) अभिवृत्ति; परिवार
(b) अभिवृत्ति; अभिप्रेरणा
(c) संस्कृति; वर्ग
(d) इकाई परीक्षण
Ans: (d)
Q128. यदि भाषाओं को विज्ञान के दृष्टिकोण से देखें, तो भाषाओं के बीच मूलत:
(a) बहुत अंतर होता है
(b) गहरा संबंध होता है
(c) कोई अंतर नही होता
(d) बच्चों की हर प्रकार की प्रगति का पूर्ण लेखा-जोखा है
Ans: (d)
Q129. एक तरफ भाषा हमारी——–को व्यवस्थित करती है, तो दूसरी तरफ यह हमें——–भी करती है और हमें ज्ञान और कल्पना की अनखोजी दुनिया में ले जाती है।
(a) विचार-प्रक्रिया; मुक्त
(b) जानकारी; मुक्त
(c) संस्कृति; नियंत्रित
(d) अभिप्रेरणा; उपलब्धि
Ans: (a)
Q130. ‘अंत:वाक्’ की संकल्पना का संबंध किससे ह?ै
(a) चॉम्स्की
(b) स्किनर
(c) वाइगोत्स्की
(d) थोड़ा अंतर होता है
Ans: (c)
Q131. पियाजे के अनुसार, भाषा अन्य संज्ञानात्मक तंत्रों की भाँति परिवेश के साथ———-के माध्यम से ही विकसित होती है।
(a) टकराव
(b) अलगाव
(c) अंत:क्रिया
(d) विचार-प्रक्रिया; सुसंस्कृत
Ans: (c)
Q132. व्याकरण-शिक्षण की वह पद्धति अपेक्षाकृत अधिक उचित है, जिसमें
(a) बच्चे सूत्रों का प्रयोग करते हैं
(b) बच्चे नियमों से उदाहरणो की ओर जाते हैं
(c) बच्चे नियमों को कंठस्थ कर लेते हैं
(d) पियाजे
Ans: (d)
Q133. उच्च प्राथामिक स्तर पर भाषा सीखने-सिखाने की प्रक्रिया में———-की उपेक्षा बिलकुल नहीं की जा सकती।
(a) बच्चों के पाठ्य-पुस्तकीय ज्ञान
(b) बच्चों की सामाजिक श्रेणी
(c) शिक्षक के शास्त्रीय ज्ञान
(d) सामंजस्य
Ans: (d)
Q134. मोना अकसर लिखते समय शब्दों के अक्षरों को छोड़ देती है, जैसे-‘पढ़ती’ को ‘पती’, ‘अभिनव’ को ‘अनव’ लिखना।
इसका सबसे अधिक कारण हो सकता है कि
(a) उसे मात्राओं का ज्ञान न हो
(b) उसके विचारों में स्पष्टता न हो
(c) उसे लिखनारूचिकर नहीं लगता हो
(d) बच्चे उदाहरणों से नियमों की ओर जाते हैं
Ans: (d)
Q135. रूपा बड़े समूह के सामने अपनी बात कहते समय अटकती है। एक शिक्षक के रूप में आप उसकी सहायता कैसे करेंग?े
(a) उसे हमेशा बड़े समूह के समाने बोलने के लिए कहेंगे
(b) उसमें बलपूवर्क आत्मविश्वास उत्पन्न करेंगे
(c) प्रारंभ में छोटे-छोटे समूहों में बात करने के भरपूर अवसर देंगे
(d) बच्चों की भाषिक पृष्ठभूमि
Ans: (c)
निर्देश: नीचे दिए गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 136-142) सही सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प को चुनकर लिखिए।
आपको किसी महत्त्वपूर्ण परीक्षा की तैयारी में क्या कठिनाई हो रही है? क्या ऐसा करने में समय की कमी महसूस हो रही है? अगर आपका जवाब ‘हाँ’ है, तो आपको समय प्रबंधन सीखने की ज़रूरत है। समय प्रबंधन किसी भी परीक्षा की तैयारी का सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण पहलू है। बहुत से परीक्षार्थी ऐसे है, जो परीक्षाओं की तैयारी देर से और बेतरतीब ढंग से शुरू करते हैं, जिससें उन्हें समयाभाव सबसे बड़ा शत्रु की तरह दिखने लगता है। बिना समय प्रबंधन के उस अनुपात में फायदा नहीं हो पाता, जिस अनुपात में आप मेहनत करते हैं। वास्तव में समय की गति को या उसके स्वभाव को मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता, क्योंकि न तो इसे धीमा किया जा सकता है और न ही रोका जा सकता है। आप स्वयं को मैनेज करते हुए सिर्फ इसका सही उपयोग कर सकते है।
वास्तविकता यही है।
सबसे पहले आप यह निर्धारित करें कि आपका वर्तमान समय कैसे व्यतीत हो रहा है। आप पिछले एक सप्ताह के अपने कार्यकलाप को एक पेपर पर लिखकर देखिए कि आपने टाइमटेबल का कितना और कैसा अनुसरण किया है। पूरे सप्ताह में कितने घंटे सेल्फ-स्टडी की है और आपका निर्धारित सिलेबस का कितना हिस्सा नहीं हो पाया है। एक बार पूरा विश्लेषण करने के बाद आप स्वयं को समय के हिसाब से बदलना शुरू कर सकते हैं। समय बचाने के लिए किसी विशेषज्ञ की टिप्स काम आ सकती है परंतु सबसे अधिक प्रभाव आपके निश्चय, समर्पण और समय नियोजन का रहेगा। समय प्रबंधन आपके आत्मविश्वास को बढ़ाएगा और यह सफलता की दिशा में निर्णायक होगा।
Q136. समय प्रबंधन सीखने की जरूरत कब ह?ै
(a) जब कोई परीक्षा देनी हो
(b) जब अवसर खो देने की संभावना हो
(c) जब अच्छा व्यवसाय चुनना हो
(d) उसके विचार और लिखने की गति में सामंजस्य न हो
Ans: (d)
Q137. समय के बारे में सच है कि उसे
(a) धीमा किया जा सकता है
(b) रोका जा सकता है
(c) लौटाया जा सकता है
(d) उसे बार-बार समझाएँगे कि बड़े समूह में किस तरह बोला जाता है
Ans: (d)
Q138. समय का अभाव उन्हें शत्रु जैसा लगता है, जो
(a) परीक्षाओं की तैयारी गंभीरता से करते हैं
(b) परीक्षाओं को महत्त्वपूर्ण नहीं मानते
(c) परीक्षाओं की तैयारी बेतरतीब ढंग से करते हैं
(d) जब कुछ करने के लिए समय कम पड़े
Ans: (c)
Q139. ‘सेल्फ-स्टडी’ शब्द है
(a) तत्सम
(b) देशज़
(c) तद्भव
(d) मैनेज नहीं किया जा सकता है
Ans: 139- (d) ‘सेल्फ-स्टडी’ आगत शब्द है। यह अंग्रेज़ी भाषा का शब्द है।
Q140. समय प्रबंधन से बढ़ सकता सकती है
(a) विशेषज्ञता
(b) दृढ़ निश्चय
(c) आत्मविश्वास
(d) परीक्षाओं की तैयारी करना ही नहीं चाहते
Ans: (c)
Q141. ‘महत्त्वपूर्ण’ पद का समास-विग्रह होगा
(a) महत्त्व और पूर्ण
(b) महत्त्व से पूर्ण
(c) महत्त्व में पूर्ण
(d) आगत
Ans: (b)
Q142. ‘टाइम मैनेजमेंट’ के लिए उपयुक्त शब्द है
(a) समय नियोजन
(b) समय निर्धारण
(c) समयाभाव
(d) स्वाभिमान
Ans: (d)
निर्देश: नीचे दिए गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 143-150) सही सबसे उपयुक्त उत्तर वाले विकल्प को चुनिए।
चेन्नई में आई बाढ़ अब उतार पर है। इस त्रासदी से निबटने में इस शहर ने जिस साहस का परिचय दिया, जिस तरह से सोशल मीडिया ने एक बार फिर बचाव के काम में अहम किरदार निभाया, बल्कि कुछ मामलों में तो जान बचाने में भी उसकी भूमिका रही, इसे देखते हुए उसकी जितनी तारीफ की जाए, वह कम है। इन तमाम अच्छी बातों के बावजूद इस वास्तविकता को भी नहीं झूठलाया जा सकता कि इस त्रासदी से बचा जा सकता था। चेन्नई में आई बाढ़ की असली वजह थी अडयार नदी-बेसिन का नए हवाई अड्डे के लिए अतिक्रमण। ठीक उसी तरह, जैसे दूसरे नदी विस्तारों का आवासीय निर्माण के लिए इस्तेमाल कर लिया गया है। नदी के कुदरती रास्तों को अवरूद्ध किए जाने से इसका जल आसपास के इलाकों में उमड़ गया। जब तक प्रकृति अपना क्रोध नहीं दिखाती, हमारे योजनाकार हर जोखिम को नज़रअंदाज़ करते रहते हैं और उस चीज की तलाश में रहते हैं, जिसे वे ले सकते हैं। हमने इसी तरह का विध्वंसक सैलाब मुंबई में भी देखा। कुछ समय पहले श्रीनगर में भी ऐसी ही बर्बादी देखी। हर जगह मुख्य वजह मिली। अनियोजित शहरीकरण और बुनियादी नियमों की अनदेखीं। फिर भी हर बार त्रासदी की गंभीरता लोगों की यादों में धुँधली पड़ जाती है। चेन्नई की तरह दिल्ली में भी ऐसे सैलाब की संभावना है। इसलिए हमें यमुना नदी के बेसिन से छेड़छाड़ करने की ‘बुद्धिमानी’ से बचना होगा।
Q143. ‘बाढ . अब उतार पर है’ का अर्थ है
(a) बाढ़ घट रही है
(b) बाढ़ नियंत्रित है
(c) बाढ़ उतर गई है
(d) महत्त्व के लिए पूर्ण
Ans: (a)
Q144. चेन्नई की बाढ़ का कारण था
(a) सरकार की लापरवाही बढ़ना
(b) हवाई अड्डे के लिए नदी मार्ग से छेड़छाड़
(c) आवासीय निर्माण करना
(d) समय प्रबंधन
Ans: (b)
Q145. किस शब्द में उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय दोनों ह?ै
(a) बचाव
(b) बुद्धिमानी
(c) आवासीय
(d) बाढ़ फैल रही है
Ans: (c)
Q146. गद्यांश में ‘बाढ़’ के लिए एक समानार्थी का प्रयोग हुआ है, वह है-
(a) अवरूद्ध
(b) त्रासदी
(c) जोखिम
(d) मौसम वि
Ans: (d)
Q147. हमारे योजनाकार तब तक लापरवाह रहते हैं, जब तक
(a) समस्या हल न हो जाए
(b) सरकार दबाव न बनाए
(c) प्रकृति अपना क्रोध न दिखाए
(d) बर्बादी
Ans: (c)
Q148. मुंबई, श्रीनगर जैसे स्थानों में बाढ़ से हुई बरबादी के पीछे कारण था-
(a) शहरों का विस्तार
(b) त्रासदी की गंभीरता
(c) प्रकृति का असहयोग
(d) सैलाब
Ans: (d)
Q149. ‘गंभीरता’ शब्द व्याकरण की दृष्टि से ह-ै
(a) संज्ञा
(b) क्रिया
(c) सर्वनाम
(d) जनता जागरूक न हो जाए
Ans: (a)
Q150. “अपनी ‘बुद्धिमानी’ का परिचय देते हुए”- यहाँ ‘बुद्धिमानी’ से लेखक का मंतव्य ह-ै
(a) मूर्खता
(b) अक्लमंदी
(c) समझदारी
(d) अनियोजित शहरीकरण
Ans: (a)
Directions (Q. 1–30): Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q1. Which of the following statements about assessment are correct?
A. Assessment should help students see their strengths and gaps and help the teacher fine-tune her teaching accordingly.
B. Assessment is meaningful only if comparative evaluations of students are made.
C. Assessment should assess not only memory but also understanding and application.
D. Assessment cannot be purposeful if it does not induce fear and anxiety.
(a) B and D
(b) A and C
(c) B and C
(d) विशेषण
Ans: Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy 1. (b) Assessment is an evaluation method wherein a teacher gauges the progress of children’s learning, identifies loopholes and works towards improving their performance. This requires a teacher to give honest feedback to children about their performance.
Q2. According to the Right to Education Act, 2009, children with special needs should study:
(a) in inclusive education setups with provisions to cater to their individual needs.
(b) in vocational training centres which would prepare them for life skills.
(c) at home with their parents and caregivers providing necessary support.
(d) विद्वत्ता February 2016 327
Ans: (a)

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