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CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2016-1

CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2016

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q1. Which one of the following statements best summarises the relationship between development and learning as proposed by Vygotsky?
(a) Development is independent of learning.
(b) The development process lags behind the learning process.
(c) Development is synonymous to learning.
(d) Learning and development are parallel processes.
Ans: (b)
Q2. What is a major criticism of Kohlberg’s theory?
(a) Kohlberg proposed a theory without any empirical basis.
(b) Kohlberg proposed that moral reasoning is developmental.
(c) Kohlberg did not account for cultural differences in moral reasoning of men and women.
(d) Kohlberg did not give clear-cut stages of moral development.
Ans: (c)
Q3. In a learner-centred classroom, the teacher would
(a) encourage children to compete with each other for marks to facilitate learning
(b) demonstrate what she expects her students to do and then give them guidelines for learning.
(c) employ methods in which learners are encouraged to take initiative for their own learning
(d) use the lecture method to explain key facts and then assess learners for their attentiveness.
Ans: (c)
Q4. According to Gardener’s theory of multiple intelligences, the factor that would contribute most for being a ‘self-aware’ individual would be
(a) musical
(b) spiritual
(c) linguistic
(d) intrapersonal
Ans: (d)
Q5. A major difference between the perspectives of Vygotsky and Piaget pertains to
(a) their critique of behaviouristic principles
(b) the role of providing a nurturing environment to children
(c) their views about language and thought
(d) their conception of children as active constructors of knowledge
Ans: (c)
Q6. A lot of debate surrounds whether girls and boys have specific sets of abilities due to their genetic materials. Which one of the following are you most likely to agree with in this context?
(a) Girls are socialised to be caring while boys are discouraged to show emotions such as crying.
(b) After puberty, boys and girls cannot play with each other since their interests are completely opposite.
(c) All girls have an inherent talent for arts, while boys are genetically programmed to be better at aggressive sports.
(d) Boys cannot be caring since they are born that way.
Ans: (a)
Q7. A teacher wants to ensure that her students are motivated intrinsically. She would
(a) specify uniform standards of achievement for all children
(b) focus on the processes of learning of individual children rather than on the final outcome
(c) offer tangible rewards
(d) plan learning activities that encourage convergent thinking
Ans: (b)
Q8. Failure of a child to perform well in class tests leads us to believe that
(a) assessment is objective and can be used to clearly identify failures
(b) there is a need to reflect upon the syllabus, pedagogy and assessment processes
(c) some children are deemed to fail irrespective of how hard the system tries
(d) children are born with certain capabilities and deficits
Ans: (b)
Q9. There are a few children in your class who make errors. Which of these is most likely to be your analysis of the situation?
(a) The children have poor intelligence.
(b) The children are not interested in studies and want to create indiscipline.
(c) The children should not have been promoted to your class.
(d) The children have not yet gained conceptual clarity and there is need for you to reflect on your pedagogy.
Ans: (d)
Q10. A student highlights the main points in a chapter, draws a visual representation and poses questions that arise in her mind at the end of the chapter. She is
(a) trying to regulate her own thinking by organisation of ideas
(b) trying to use the strategy of maintenance rehearsal
(c) ensuring observational learning
(d) trying to use method of loci
Ans: (a)
Q11. How can a teacher help children become better problem solvers?
(a) By giving children a variety of problems to solve, and support them while they solve the problems
(b) By encouraging children to look for answers to the problems in the textbook
(c) By providing correct solutions to all the problems he/she poses to students
(d) By giving tangible rewards for solving problems
Ans: (a)
Q12. Of the following statements, which one do you agree with?
(a) Learning is completely governed by external stimuli.
(b) Learning cannot take place unless it is assessed externally in terms of marks.
(c) Learning has taken place only if it is evident in behaviour.
(d) Learning takes place in a socio-cultural context.
Ans: (d)
Q13. Which one of these is a principle of child development?
(a) Development occurs due to interaction between maturation and experience.
(b) Experience is the sole determinant of development.
(c) Development is determined by reinforcement and punishment.
(d) Development can accurately predict the pace of each individual child.
Ans: (a)
Q14. In the context of ‘nature–nurture’ debate, which one of the following statements seems appropriate to you?
(a) A child is like a blank slate whose character can be moulded by the environment into any shape.
(b) Environmental influences only have a little value in shaping up a child’s behaviour which is primarily genetically determined.
(c) Heredity and environment are inseparably interwoven and both influence development.
(d) Children are genetically predisposed to what they would be like, irrespective of whatever environment they grow up in.
Ans: (c)
Q15. Socialisation is a process of
(a) acquiring values, beliefs and expectations
(b) assimilation and accommodation
(c) learning to critique the culture of a society
(d) socialising with friends
Ans: (a)
Q16. Piaget proposes that pre-operational children are unable to conserve. To which one of the following factors does he attribute this viability?
(a) Inability of hypothetico-deductive reasoning
(b) Personal fable.
(c) Irreversibility of thought
(d) Lack of high-level abstract reasoning
Ans: (c)
Q17. According to Piaget’s theory, children learn by
(a) memorising information by paying due attention
(b) scaffolding provided by more able members of society
(c) processes of adaptation.
(d) changing their behaviour when offered appropriate rewards
Ans: (c)
Q18. According to Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development is
(a) the zone demarking the support offered by the teacher
(b) the gap between what the child can do independently and with assistance
(c) the amount and nature of support provided to the child to achieve his/her potential
(d) what the child can do on her own and which cannot be assessed
Ans: (b)
Q19. A teacher in a multi-cultural classroom would ensure that the assessment considers the following:
(a) Reliability and validity of her assessment tool
(b) Expectations of the school administration by complying with the minimum levels of learning
(c) Standardisation of the assessment tool
(d) Socio-cultural context of her students
Ans: (d)
Q20. An upper primary school constructivist classroom would foresee the following role of students in their own assessment:
(a) Make detailed guidelines for how marks would be correlated to students’ achievement and prestige in the class.
(b) Students would be the sole determinants of their own assessment.
(c) Students would plan for assessment with the teacher.
(d) Denying that assessment had a role in teachinglearning.
Ans: (c)
Q21. The rationale behind inclusive education is that
(a) The society is heterogeneous and schools need to be inclusive to cater to the heterogeneous society
(b) we need to take pity on special children and provide them access to facilities
(c) it is not cost-effective to provide for separate schools for special children
(d) the benchmarks for performance of each child should be uniform and standardised
Ans: (a)
Q22. Which one of the following would be the most effective way to identify a creative child by the teacher?
(a) Observing how the child interacts with peers in team tasks
(b) Administering standardised intelligence tests
(c) Giving objective type tests
(d) Detailed observation of the child especially when he/she solves problems
Ans: (d)
Q23. A teacher can effectively respond to the needs of children from the ‘disadvantaged section’ of society by
(a) telling the ‘other children’ to co-operate with the ‘disadvantaged’ children’ and help them learn the ways of the school
(b) reflecting on the school system and herself about various ways in which biases and stereotypes surface
(c) ensuring that the children do not get a chance to interact with each other to minimise the chances of their being bullied
(d) sensitising the disadvantaged children to the norms and structures of schools so that they can comply with them
Ans: (b)
Q24. Research has pointed out that several levels of discrimination exist in schools. Which of these is not an example of discrimination at the upper primary level?
(a) Many teachers use only the lecture method to teach.
(b) Dalit children are made to sit separately during midday meals.
(c) Girls are not encouraged to take up maths and science.
(d) Teachers have low expectations of children from lower socio-economic strata.
Ans: (a)
Q25. Which of these is a characteristic of a child with learning disability?
(a) An IQ below 50
(b) Bullying other children and engaging in aggressive acts
(c) Doing the same motor action repeatedly
(d) Difficulty in reading fluently and reversing words
Ans: (d)
Q26. Which one of the following statements best describes why children should be encouraged to ask questions in the class?
(a) Questions increase the curiosity of children.
(b) Questions take learning forward by interactions and lead to conceptual clarity.
(c) Children need to practise their language skills.
(d) Children can be made to realise that they lack intelligence by making them think of all the things they don’t know.
Ans: (b)
Q27. Which one of the following assessment practices will bring out the best in students?
(a) When students are required to reproduce facts as tested via multiple choice questions
(b) When conceptual change and students’ alternative solutions are assessed through several different methods of assessment
(c) When the marks obtained and the position secured by the student in the class are the ultimate determinants of success
(d) When the emphasis is laid upon positive correlation between test scores and student ability
Ans: (b)
Q28. The amount and type of scaffolding to a child would change depending on the
(a) mood of the teacher
(b) rewards offered for the task
(c) level of the child’s performance
(d) child’s innate abilities
Ans: (c)
Q29. As an upper primary school mathematics teacher you believe that
(a) students’ errors provide insight into their thinking
(b) not all children have the ability to study mathematics in upper primary school
(c) boys will learn mathematics without much effort since they are ‘born with it’ and you need to pay more attention to girls.
(d) students need to possess procedural knowledge even if they don’t understand conceptual basis.
Ans: (a)
Q30. Which one of these statements do you agree with?
(a) A child fails because the government is not giving enough technological resources in schools.
(b) A child’s failure can be attributed directly to the genetic material he/she has acquired from his/her parents.
(c) A child’s failure is a reflection on the system and its inability to respond to the child.
(d) A child’s failure is primarily due to lack of parents education and economic status.
Ans: (c)

Part II: Social Studies

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q31. Which one of the following is not a component of maps?
(a) Size
(b) Symbols
(c) Distance
(d)
Ans: (a)
Direction
Q32. What is the angle of inclination of the earth’s axis with its orbital plane?
(a) 23½°
(b) 45°
(c) 66½°
(d) 90°
Ans: (c)
Q33. The ‘Janpad Panchayat’ has
(a) many Zila Parishads under it
(b) many Municipal Wards under it
(c) many Gram Sabhas under it
(d) many Gram Panchayats under it
Ans: (d)
Q34. Consider the following two statements on ‘Social advertisements’ and choose the correct answer:
A. Social advertisements are the advertisements that have a larger message for the society.
B. Social advertisements are made only by the State.
(a) Both A and B are false
(b) Both A and B are true
(c) A is true and B is false
(d) A is false and B is true
Ans: (c)
Q35. Which one of the following States of India is popular for the ‘Kalamkari print’?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Ans: (c)
Q36. Which one of the following tribal groups is mainly confined to Uttarakhand?
(a) Gonds
(b) Mala Irular
(c) Bhil
(d) Bhotia
Ans: (d)
Q37. Who among the following rulers were best known for controlling the ‘Silk Route’ around 2000 years ago?
(a) Kushanas
(b) Pandayas
(c) Cheras
(d) Cholas
Ans: (a)
Q38. Under ‘Subsidiary Alliance’, the East India Company forced the Indian rulers of the states to
(a) have their independent armed forces, not get protection by the Company, but still pay towards its maintenance
(b) not have their independent armed forces, get protection by the Company, without any payment towards its maintenance
(c) have their independent armed forces as well as get protection by the Company and pay towards its maintenance
(d) not have their independent armed forces, but only get protection by the Company and pay towards its maintenance
Ans: (d)
Q39. Which one of the following is not a fact about Ahom?
(a) The Ahom state was divided into clans called Paiks.
(b) The Ahom society was very sophisticated.
(c) The state of Ahom was created by suppressing the older political system of the Bhuiyans.
(d) The Ahom state depended upon forced labour.
Ans: (a)
Q40. The term ‘hagiography’ refers to
(a) writing of a saint’s biography
(b) writing of a saint’s autobiography
(c) writing of a ruler’s biography
(d) writing of a ruler’s autobiography
Ans: (a)
Q41. Which one of the following is a type of tropical grassland?
(a) Savanna
(b) Steppe
(c) Down
(d) Pampas
Ans: (a)
Q42. Consider the following two statements, A and B, about food security and choose the correct answer:
A. The ultimate aim of agricultural development is to increase food security.
B. Food security refers to the existence of availability of food to all people in the times of natural calamities, when there occurs a shortage of food.
(a) Both A and B are true.
(b) Both A and B are false.
(c) A is true and B is false.
(d) A is false and B is true.
Ans: (a)
Q43. Which one of the following is not considered a fossil fuel?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Natural gas
(c) Firewood
(d) Coal
Ans: (c)
Q44. Which one of the following may cause tremendous destruction only on the coastal areas?
(a) Tsunami
(b) Volcano
(c) Tides
(d) Earthquake
Ans: (a)
Q45. The innermost layer of the earth is mainly made up of
(a) silica and iron
(b) nickel and alumina
(c) silica and alumina
(d) nickel and iron
Ans: (d)
Q46. Which one of the following features is a result of depositional work of a river?
(a) Meanders
(b) Oxbow lake
(c) Waterfall
(d) Flood plain
Ans: (d)
Q47. During an earthquake, at what measurement on the Richter scale do things begin to fall?
(a) 6.0 or higher
(b) Over 7.0
(c) 2.0
(d) Over 5.0
Ans: (d)
Q48. Which one of the following was introduced with the coming of the British art in India during the colonial period?
(a) Mural art
(b) Oil painting
(c) Perspective
(d) Miniatures
Ans: (c)
Q49. Around 2000 years ago, Varanasi was a famous craft centre where Shrenis were
(a) Buddhist monasteries
(b) associations of craftsmen and merchants
(c) iron ploughshares used for agricultural production
(d) coins that have designs punched on to the metal
Ans: (b)
Q50. Consider the following two statements, A and B, on manuscripts and inscriptions and choose the correct answer:
A. Manuscripts were usually written on palm leaf or on the specially prepared bark of a tree known as birch.
B. Inscriptions were written on relatively hard surfaces like stone and metal.
(a) Both A and B are true
(b) Both A and B are false
(c) A is true and B is false
(d) A is false and B is true
Ans: (a)
Q51. Which one of the following was the language of administration under the Delhi Sultans?
(a) Persian
(b) Hindi
(c) Arabic
(d) Urdu
Ans: (a)
Q52. In Buddhism, Bodhisattvas were
(a) persons who attained enlightenment
(b) Chinese Buddhist pilgrims
(c) Buddhist scholars
(d) statues of Buddha
Ans: (a)
Q53. Which one of the following was not the condition to become a member of a Sabha in the Chola Empire?
(a) They should be between 25 and 70 years of age.
(b) They should have their own homes.
(c) They should have knowledge of the Vedas.
(d) They should be owners of land from which land revenue is collected.
Ans: (a)
Q54. The Rowlatt Act, 1919, was opposed because
(a) it gave right to separate electorates to Muslims.
(b) it disallowed Indians from possessing arms.
(c) it curbed the Fundamental Rights like freedom of expression and strengthened police powers.
(d) it introduced diarchy in provinces.
Ans: (c)
Q55. Many of Chanakya’s ideas were written in a book called the
(a) Atharvaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Dharmashastras
(d) Arthashastra
Ans: (d)
Q56. Garbhagriha, the most important part of some of the earliest Hindu temples, was
(a) the place in the temples where people could assemble
(b) a cave elaborately decorated with sculptures and painted walls
(c) the place where the image of the chief deity was installed
(d) the place where religious rituals were not performed
Ans: (c)
Q57. Which one of the following grasslands is the homeland of Native Americans?
(a) Steppe
(b) Pampas
(c) Velds
(d) Prairies
Ans: (d)
Q58. Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as
(a) pisciculture
(b) horticulture
(c) sericulture
(d) viticulture
Ans: (a)
Q59. Bering Strait is a narrow stretch of shallow water that connects
(a) the Pacific Ocean and the Atlantic Ocean
(b) the Arctic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean
(c) the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean
(d) the Atlantic Ocean and the Indian Ocean
Ans: (b)
Q60. “On 21 March and 23 September, the whole earth experiences equal days and nights.” This is because
(a) direct rays of the sun fall on the equator and at this position, none of the poles is tilted towards the sun
(b) direct rays of the sun fall on the Tropic of Cancer and at this position, one of the poles is tilted towards the sun
(c) direct rays of the sun fall on the equator and at this position, one of the poles is tilted towards the sun
(d) direct rays of the sun fall on the Tropic of Capricorn and at this position, none of the poles is tilted towards the sun
Ans: (a)
Q61. What kind of language needs to be used in Social Science teaching?
(a) Representative of dominant groups
(b) Discriminatory
(c) Neutral and sensitive
(d) Difficult
Ans: (c)
Q62. Projects on democratic institutions could be done to show that
(a) they can be analysed to identify features and challenges
(b) they are, as described in textbooks
(c) they are ineffective
(d) students must accept these institutions as they are
Ans: (a)
Q63. Summative assessment is inappropriate for
(a) deciding upon the grade
(b) the end-of-the-term assessment
(c) monitoring the progress of the teaching-learning process
(d) summarising student learning
Ans: (c)
Q64. What are pie diagrams useful for?
(a) Showing features of a historical period
(b) Comparing different amounts
(c) Showing a particular amount in relation to the whole
(d) Showing a pattern
Ans: (c)
Q65. Each chapter of the History textbook for class VI is introduced by a young girl or a boy. Why do you think this strategy has been adopted by the textbook makers?
(a) To show boys and girls can study History
(b) To evaluate the content of the chapter
(c) To inculcate a spirit of enquiry and discovery in students
(d) To show how introduction can be done
Ans: (c)
Q66. You are a peasant in Alauddin Khilji’s or Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reign and you cannot pay the taxes demanded by the Sultan. What will you do?
In the above question, what is being encouraged?
(a) Historical imagination
(b) Importance of sources
(c) Respect for culture
(d) Importance of literature
Ans: (a)
Q67. At the upper primary stage, Geography and Economics together can help in
(a) developing a perspective on issues of environmental resources and development
(b) understanding plurality
(c) developing knowledge of places and environment
(d) understanding optional allocation of resources
Ans: (a)
Q68. When is formative evaluation conducted?
(a) At the end of a session
(b) Before teaching a new unit
(c) During teaching a new unit
(d) At the end of a unit
Ans: (c)
Q69. Biases, discriminations and prejudices in the classroom could be avoided by
(a) organising a lecture on humanity
(b) ignoring them as children will grow out of them one day
(c) discussing different dimensions of social realities
(d) handing out the Preamble of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q70. Teacher ‘B’ is currently teaching a lesson on the history of a region. What do you think ‘B’ should do?
(a) Highlight similarities and changes in different time periods
(b) Highlight identities of different rulers
(c) Encourage students to remember the main features of the period
(d) Highlight the similarities of the present with those of the past
Ans: (a)
Q71. What is the purpose of evaluation?
(a) To identify problems of students
(b) To rank children
(c) To encourage competition
(d) To improve the teaching-learning process
Ans: (d)
Q72. Historical films are useful in Social Science teaching as they
(a) concentrate on an individual problem
(b) portray history as fiction
(c) bring alive various dimensions of a specific social setting
(d) have good entertainment value
Ans: (c)
Q73. What kind of outlook should be there towards Social Science textbooks?
(a) As a document to be memorised
(b) As an avenue for further enquiry
(c) As a repository of knowledge
(d) As a final statement
Ans: (b)
Q74. Tawa Matsya Sangha, a federation of fishworkers’ cooperatives, is an organisation fighting for the rights of displaced forest dwellers in the state of
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Q75. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is not guaranteed to every arrested person under the criminal law as stated in Article 22 of the Constitution?
(a) Confessions made in police custody can be used as evidence against the accused
(b) The right not to be ill-treated or tortured during arrest or in custody
(c) The right not to be informed at the time of arrest or the offence for which the person is arrested
(d) The right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest
Ans: (a)
Q76. The members of a Legislative Assembly are
(a) elected by the people
(b) appointed by the Governor
(c) appointed by the Prime Minister
(d) appointed by the Chief Minister
Ans: (a)
Q77. A coalition government implies
(a) power sharing between two or more political parties after elections when no party has been able to get a clear majority
(b) power sharing between the State Government and Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) power sharing between governments at the Centre and in the States
(d) power sharing between the executive and the judiciary
Ans: (a)
Q78. At the upper primary stage, Social Science comprises
(a) Geography, History, Political Science and Economics
(b) Political Science, Geography, History and Sociology
(c) History, Geography, Political Science and Environmental Science
(d) History, Geography, Economics and Environmental Science
Ans: (a)
Q79. The position paper on teaching of Social Science emphasises on
(a) respecting different opinions and examining ideas and practices
(b) accepting social hierarchies
(c) increasing the use of textbooks
(d) encouraging memorisation
Ans: (a)
Q80. Maps and diagrams in a Social Science textbook are relevant as they
(a) add a new dimension to a concept
(b) are made by experts
(c) make a textbook attractive
(d) clarify a concept
Ans: (d)
Q81. A case study of a social movement given to a class for discussion need not incorporate the
(a) solutions to the movement
(b) background of the movement
(c) objectives of the movement
(d) problem areas of the movement
Ans: (a)
Q82. While teaching Human Resources to class VIII students, what core message would you like to promote?
(a) Importance of people as a resource
(b) Utilisation of resources by human being
(c) Distribution of population
(d) Importance of physical resources
Ans: (a)
Q83. Which one of the following is not a function of the Gram Panchayat?
(a) Executing government schemes related to generation of employment in villages
(b) The construction and maintenance of the infrastructure of villages
(c) Levying and collecting local taxes
(d) The Gram Panchayat elects its Panchayat Secretary.
Ans: (d)
Q84. Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Civil Law?
(a) Disputes related to sale of land
(b) Harassing a woman for dowry
(c) Filing a divorce case
(d) Claiming custody of children
Ans: (b)
Q85. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the judiciary?
(a) The judiciary has the power to strike down laws passed by the Parliament.
(b) The judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between citizens, between citizens and the government, but not between two State governments.
(c) The legislature and the executive cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary.
(d) It plays a crucial role in protecting the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
Ans: (b)
Q86. The Right to Constitutional Remedies
(a) allows only the linguistic minorities to approach the court if they believe that their cultural and educational rights provided in the Constitution have been violated by the State
(b) allows all citizens to approach the court if they believe that any of the Directive Principles of State Policy have not been fulfilled by the State
(c) allows all citizens to approach the court if they believe that any of their fundamental rights has been violated by the state
(d) allows only the religious minorities to approach the court if they believe that their cultural and educational rights provided in the Constitution have been violated by the State
Ans: (c)
Q87. The Civil Rights Movement was started in the USA to
(a) demand equal rights and address racial discrimination of all the African-American citizens
(b) demand voting rights for the African-American men
(c) demand social security for the African-American senior citizens
(d) demand voting rights for the African-American women
Ans: (a)
Q88. Which one of the following statements is not true about the Parliament of India?
(a) In the matters dealing with finances, the government does not require the Parliament’s approval.
(b) The Parliament, while in session, begins with a question hour.
(c) The Parliament consists of the President, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.
(d) The Parliament in our system has immense powers because it is the representative of the people.
Ans: (a)
Q89. While teaching Social Science, a teacher must attempt to
(a) focus upon remembering details
(b) focus upon facts, values and patterns
(c) focus only upon facts, but not on values
(d) focus only upon values, but not on facts
Ans: (b)
Q90. Suppose a prescribed Social Science textbook is difficult for students. What will you do?
(a) Provide a variety of supplementary materials
(b) Dictate summaries of each lesson
(c) Use question-answer technique
(d) Emphasise rote learning
Ans: (a)

Part III: Language I English

Directions: Read the given poem and answer the questions that follow (Q. 91–96) by selecting the most appropriate option.
I want to be with people who submerge in the task, who go into the fields of harvest 3 and work in a row and pass the bags along, who are not parlour generals and field deserters but move in common rhythm 6 when the food must come in or the fire be put
out.
The work of the world is common as mud.
Botched, it smears the hands, crumbles to dust.
9 But the thing worth doing well done has a shape that satisfies, clean and evident.
Greek amphoras for wine and oil, 12 Hopi vases that held corn, are put in museums but you know they were made to be used.
The pitcher cries for water to carry 15 and the person for work that is real.
Q91. The poet seems to admire ____________
(a) parlour generals
(b) farm workers
(c) field deserters
(d) wage earners
Ans: (b)
Q92. What is common between parlour generals and field deserters?
(a) Both love to work
(b) Both of them love fighting
(c) Both enjoy respect in society
(d) Neither of them fights
Ans: (d)
Q93. What happens when work with mud gets botched?
(a) It leads to satisfaction.
(b) It is abandoned.
(c) Hands get dirty.
(d) No one pays for it.
Ans: (c)
Q94. The figure of speech used in lines 12-14 is ________
(a) personification
(b) metaphor
(c) alliteration
(d) irony
Ans: (d)
Q95. Mud in the hands of a good craftsman becomes __________.
(a) a useful article
(b) a museum piece
(c) an expensive article
(d) a work of art
Ans: (a)
Q96. Amphoras, vases and pitchers are metaphors for
(a) useful human labour
(b) antique art
(c) pride in wealth
(d) items of luxury
Ans: (a)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. 97–105) by selecting the most appropriate option.
The real indictment against colonialism was to be found in the villages of India. There was a rot at the top, too, in the thousands of young intellectuals trained in English schools for jobs that did not exist except in the limited Civil Service.
The towns and cities were frothing with unhappy young men, cultured and well educated, who could find no jobs and were not allowed by the old super-structure of the empire to create them.
But the real proof of evil, I say again, was in the miserable villages. I thought I had seen poverty in China, yet when I saw the Indian villages, I knew that the Chinese peasant was rich in comparison. Only the Russian peasant I had seen years before could compare with the Indian villager, although that Russian was a very different creature and inferior in many ways.
And the children, the little children of the Indian villages, how they tore at my heart: thin, big bellied, and all with huge dark eyes; I wondered that any Englishman could look at them and not excuse himself. Three hundred years of English occupation and rule, and could there be children like this?
Yes, and millions of them; And the final indictment surely was that the life span in India was only twenty-seven years. Twenty-seven years; No wonder, then that a man married very young so that there could be children, as many as possible, before he died. I loved England, remembering all the happy journeys there, but in India I saw an England I did not know.
Q97. During the colonial rule, the villages suffered because there was/were_____________.
(a) no schools in the villages
(b) no jobs in the villages
(c) not enough land for agriculture
(d) not enough food for the children
Ans: (d)
Q98. Even the city people were not happy because ___________.
(a) there were not enough jobs for all
(b) business was not flourishing
(c) the trade was under the colonial control
(d) there was a large number of young intellectuals
Ans: (a)
Q99. However, the cities were better off than the villages because_______.
(a) the young men were happy
(b) the educated youth got jobs
(c) the children, at least, were not hungry
(d) all children were highly educated
Ans: (c)
Q100. Which one of the following is true?
(a) The Russian peasant could compare with the Indian peasant.
(b) The Indian peasant was inferior to the Russian peasant.
(c) The Indian peasants were superior to the Chinese peasants.
(d) The Chinese peasants were better off than the Russian peasants.
Ans: (d)
Q101. The writer believes that a/an _______should feel sorry at the sight of these poor children.
(a) Russian
(b) Englishman
(c) Indian
(d) Chinese
Ans: (b)
Q102. The English rule made India_________.
(a) technically rich
(b) economically poor
(c) industrially strong
(d) culturally strong
Ans: (b)
Q103. The average life of an Indian during the British rule was 27 years. The result was that
(a) Indians married young
(b) Indians lived a healthy life
(c) Indians did not have many children
(d) India was full of young people
Ans: (a)
Q104. The towns and cities were frothing with unhappy young men. The underlined phrase means _____ .
(a) devoid of
(b) angry with
(c) full of
(d) lacking in
Ans: (c)
Q105. The final indictment was inevitable. What does the underlined word mean?
(a) award
(b) punishment
(c) negation
(d) accusation
Ans: (d)
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q106. Which one of the following recommended the ‘Three Language Formula’?
(a) National Policy on Education 1968
(b) Chattopadhyaya Commission 1985
(c) National Policy on Education 1986
(d) Kothari Commission 1966
Ans: (d)
Q107. Giving effective feedback to learners means
(a) diagnosing problems and guiding learners on how to improve
(b) correcting their mistakes in the class
(c) giving appropriate time and space for corrections
(d) focusing on positive aspects as well as areas of development
Ans: (a)
Q108. The constructivist approach to learning does not emphasise
(a) that authentic task in a meaningful context should be used
(b) teaching as the transmission of knowledge from the enlightened to the unenlightened
(c) that learners construct knowledge for themselves
(d) knowledge construction instead of knowledge reproduction
Ans: (b)
Q109. A purposeful collection of students’ work that demonstrates their efforts, progress and achievement in a given area is called a/an
(a) anecdotal record
(b) portfolio
(c) checklist
(d) rating scale
Ans: (b)
Q110. A learner-centred class should not be one where
(a) learners should do the given exercise silently as silence is better for learning to occur
(b) learners’ personal views and feelings are taken into consideration
(c) learners are intrinsically interested and are inclined to explore
(d) the teacher acts more as another participant in the learning process
Ans: (a)
Q111. While selecting a reading text for your students, which of the following is least important?
(a) It is appropriate for their age level.
(b) The content of the text is accessible to learners to apply their own background knowledge.
(c) It hardly gives space to think ahead, hypothesize and predict.
(d) The language of the text is comprehensible to learners.
Ans: (c)
Q112. Every class is a mixed ability class, so while dividing students into different groups for a language activity, a teacher should
(a) give students different tasks according to their strength
(b) mix weaker and stronger students
(c) arrange groups differently for different kinds of activities
(d) put weaker and stronger students in different groups
Ans: (c)
Q113. Summative assessment is the
(a) assessment in learning
(b) assessment of learning
(c) assessment as learning
(d) assessment for learning
Ans: (b)
Q114. Which one of the following should a teacher not use while initiating the process writing approach?
(a) Drafting and revising
(b) Dictating notes
(c) Proof-reading before final draft
(d) Brainstorming
Ans: (b)
Q115. Point out the figure of speech used in the sentence given below:
The moon smiled at the stars around her.
(a) Metaphor
(b) Simile
(c) Oxymoron
(d) Personification
Ans: (d)
Q116. One of the objectives of teaching vocabulary is not to
(a) be able to use words in different contexts
(b) develop active and passive vocabulary
(c) enable learners to use the dictionary
(d) understand the meaning of words
Ans: (c)
Q117. Active vocabulary consists of words that
(a) we use frequently in our daily life
(b) we use occasionally
(c) are difficult
(d) we recognise and understand
Ans: (a)
Q118. Anshu is teaching English to class VI students and her class seems to be noisy. She is probably
(a) teaching a crowded class
(b) not able to manage the class
(c) not bothered about the noise
(d) having group work
Ans: (d)
Q119. A passage explaining a place in such a way that a picture is formed in the reader’s mind is called
(a) expository
(b) narrative
(c) argumentative
(d) descriptive
Ans: (d)
Q120. A method is a body of _______ that a teacher adopts in the teaching-learning process.
(a) techniques
(b) norms
(c) pointers
(d) principles
Ans: (a)

भाग IV: भाषा II हिन्दी

निर्देश: गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 121-129) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
स्वामी विवेकानंद जी एक ऐसे संत थे जिनका रोम-रोम राष्ट्रभक्ति से ओत-प्रोत था। उनके सारे चिंतन का केंद्रबिंदु राष्ट्र था। अपने राष्ट्र की प्रगति एवं उत्थान के लिए जितना चिन्तन एवं कर्म इस तेजस्वी संन्यासी ने किया उतना पूर्ण समर्पित राजनीतिज्ञों ने भी संभवत: नहीं किया।
अंतर यह है कि इन्होंने सीधे राजनीतिक धारा में भाग नहीं लिया किंतु इनके कर्म एवं चिंतन की प्रेरणा से हजारों ऐसे कार्यकर्ता तैयार हुए जिन्होंने राष्ट्र-रथ को आगे बढाने के लिए अपना जीवन समर्पित कर दिया।
इन्होंने निजी मुक्ति को जीवन का लक्ष्य नहीं बनाया था बल्कि करोड़ो देशवासियों के उत्थान को ही अपना जीवन-लक्ष्य बनाया। राष्ट्र के दीन-हीन जनों की सेवा को ही वे ईश्वर की सच्ची पूजा मानते थे सत्य की अनवरत खोज उन्हें दक्षिणेश्वर के संत श्री रामकृष्ण परमहंस तक ले गई और परमहंस ही वह सच्चे गुरू सिद्ध हुए जिनका सान्निध्य पाकर इनकी ज्ञान-पिपासा शांत हुई। उन्तालीस वर्ष के संक्षिप्त जीवन काल में स्वामी जी जो कार्य कर गए वे आने वाली अनेक शताब्दियों तक पीढ़ियों का मार्गदर्शन करते रहेंगे।
बीस वर्ष की आयु में इन्होंने शिकागो, अमेरिका के विश्व धर्म सम्मेलन में हिन्दू धर्म का प्रतिनिधित्व किया और इसे सार्वजनिक पहचान दिलवाई। तीन वर्ष तक वे अमेरिका में ही रहे और वहँा के लोगों को भारतीय तत्त्व-ज्ञान की अद्भुत ज्योति प्रदान की। “अध्यात्म-विद्या और भारतीय दर्शन के बिना विश्व अनाथ हो जाएगा” यह स्वामी जी का दृढ विश्वास था।
वे केवल संत ही नहीं, एक महान देशभक्त, वक्ता, विचारक लेखक और मानव-प्रेमी भी थे। अमेरिका से लौटकर उन्होंने आज़ादी की लड़ाई में योगदान देने के लिए देशवासियों का आह्वान किया और जनता ने स्वामी जी की पुकार का उत्तर दिया। गाँधी जी की आज़ादी की लड़ाई में जो जन-समर्थन मिला था, वह स्वामी जी के आह्वान का ही फल था। उन्नीसवीं सदी के आखिरी दौर में वे लगभग सशक्त क्रांति के जरिए देश को आज़ाद कराना चाहते थे। परंतु उन्हें जल्द ही यह विश्वास हो गया था कि परिस्थितियाँ उन इरादों के लिए अभी परिपक्व नहीं हैं। इसके बाद ही उन्होंने एक परिव्राजक केरूप में भारत और दुनिया को खंगाल डाला।
स्वामी जी इस बात से आश्वस्त थे कि धरती की गोद में यदि कोई ऐसा देश है जिसने मनुष्य की हर तरह की बेहतरी के लिए ईमानदार कोशिश की है, तो वह भारत ही है। उनकी दृष्टि में हिंदू धर्म के सर्वश्रेष्ठ चिन्तकों के विचारों का निचोड़ पूरी दुनिया के लिए अब भी आश्चर्य का विषय है। स्वामी जी ने संकेत दिया था कि विदेशों में भौतिक समृद्धि तो है और उसकी भारत को जरूरत भी है लेकिन हमें याचक नहीं बनना चाहिए। हमारे पास उससे ज्यादा बहुत कुछ है जो हम पश्चिम को दे सकते हैं और पश्चिम को उसकी बेसाख़्ता जरूरत है।
Q121. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा स्वामी विवेकानंद जी के चिन्तन का सबसे प्रमुख बिन्दु था?
(a) आध्यात्मिक विकास
(b) आत्मिक विकास
(c) राष्ट्र का विकास
(d) जन-जन की प्रगति
Ans: (c)
Q122. स्वामी विवेकानन्द जी का शिकागो विश्व धर्म-सम्मेलन में भाग लेने का उद्देश्य था
(a) हिन्दू धर्म में निहित तत्त्व-ज्ञान से विश्व को परिचित कराना
(b) स्वयं को हिन्दू धर्म के सर्वश्रेष्ठ प्रचारक केरूप में प्रतिस्थापित करना
(c) हिन्दू धर्म का प्रचार-प्रसार करना
(d) हिन्दू धर्म को अन्य धर्मों की तुलना में श्रेष्ठ सिद्ध करना
Ans: (a)
Q123. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से कौन-सा उर्दू भाषा का है?
(a) खंगाल
(b) रोम-रोम
(c) बेसाख्ता
(d) राष्ट्र
Ans: (c)
Q124. “गाँधी जी को आज़ादी की लड़ाई में जो जन-समर्थन मिला था, वह स्वामी विवेकानंद जी के आह्वान का फल था।” निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन इसके भाव को सही रूप में व्यक्त करता ह?ै
(a) आज़ादी की लड़ाई में गाँधी जी को जो समर्थन मिला उसकी नींव स्वामी विवेकानंद जी ने ही रखी थी।
(b) आज़ादी की लड़ाई में स्वामी विवेकानंद जी गाँधी जी की सहायता करना चाहते थे।
(c) स्वामी विवेकानंद जी में जनता को जागृत करने की क्षमता गाँधी जी से अधिक थी।
(d) यदि स्वामी जी ने प्रयास न किया होता तो गाँधी जी को इतना अधिक जन-समर्थन प्राप्त नहीं होता।
Ans: (a)
Q125. ‘राष्ट्रभक्ति’ में प्रयुक्त समास है
(a) कर्म तत्पुरूष
(b) करण तत्पुरूष
(c) सम्प्रदान तत्पुरूष
(d) सम्बन्ध तत्पुरूष
Ans: (d)
Q126. मनुष्य की बढ़ौतरी के लिए ईमानदार कोशिश की है। वाक्य में रेखांकित किए गए विशेषण का उपभेद बताइए।
(a) अवस्था बोधक
(b) स्थिति बोधक
(c) दशा बोधक
(d) गुण बोधक
Ans: (d)
Q127. ‘परिपक्व’ की भाववाचक संज्ञा है
(a) परिपक्वता
(b) परिपूर्ण
(c) परिपक्वन
(d) परिपूर्णता
Ans: (a)
Q128. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्द ‘सान्निध्य’ का समानार्थक है?
(a) समर्पण
(b) सन्निपात
(c) सर्वाधिक
(d) समीपता
Ans: (d)
Q129. निम्नलिखित में से कानै सा ‘देशज’ शब्द है?
(a) खंगाल
(b) जरूरत
(c) सम्भवत:
(d) नीति
Ans: (a)
निर्देश: नीचे दिए गए गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों
(प्र. सं. 130-135) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
हमारे विशाल देश में हिमालय की अनन्त हिमराशि वाले ग्लेशियरों ने जिन नदियों को जन्म दिया है, उनमें गंगा और यमुना नाम की नदियांँ हमारे जीवन की धमनियों की तरह रही हैं। उनकी गोद में हमारे पूर्वजों ने सभ्यता के प्रांगण में अनेक नए खेल खेले। उनके तटों पर जीवन का जो प्रवाह प्रचलित हुआ, वह आज तक हमारे भूत और भावी जीवन को सींच रहा है। भारत हमारा देश है और हम उसके नागरिक हैं यह एक सच्चाई हमारे रोम-रोम में बिंधी हुई है। नदियों की अन्तर्वेदी में पनपने वाले आदि युग के जीवन पर हम अब जितना अधिक विचार करते हैं हमको अपने विकास और वृद्धि की सनातन जड़ों का पृथ्वी के साथ सम्बन्ध उतना ही अधिक घनिष्ठ जान पड़ता है। हमारे धार्मिक पर्वों पर लाखों लोग नदी और जलाशयों के तटों पर एकत्र होते हैं। पृथ्वी के एक-एक जलाशय और सरोवर को भारतीय भावना ने ठीक प्रकार से समझने का प्रयत्न किया, उनके साथ सौहार्द का भाव उत्पन्न किया जो हर एक पीढ़ी के साथ नएरूप में बंधा रहा। किन्तु आज स्थिति बड़ी विचित्र और एक सीमा तक चिन्ताजनक हो गई है। हमारी औद्योगिक क्रांति ने इन्हें प्रदूषित कर विषैला बना दिया है। जीवनदायिनी नदियाँ आज प्राणघातिनी होती जा रही हैं। मिल बैठकर सोचने की आवश्यकता है कि क्या करें कि ये पुन: जीवनदायिनी हों। और उन सोची हुई योजनाओं को अमल में लाने की भी आवश्यकता है।
Q130. गंगा-यमुना को जल कहँा से मिलता ह?ै
(a) अनन्त जलराशि से
(b) ग्लेशियरों से
(c) हिमालय से
(d) मानसरोवर से
Ans: (b)
Q131. लेखक के अनुसार हमारी सभ्यता का जन्म हुआ है
(a) नदियों की गोद में
(b) प्रकृति के प्रांगण में
(c) हिमालय में
(d) गंगा-यमुना में
Ans: (a)
Q132. स्थिति चिंताजनक क्यों हो गई है?
(a) नदियाँ कम हो गई है।
(b) नदियाँ बाढ़ लाने लगी हैं
(c) नदियाँ प्रदूषित हो गई हैं
(d) नदियाँ वेग से बहने लगी हैं।
Ans: (c)
Q133. ‘जीवनदायिनी’ का विलोम है
(a) प्राणघातिनी
(b) प्राणांतक वाहिनी
(c) जीवनप्रदायिनी
(d) अजीवनदायिनी
Ans: (a)
Q134. ‘औद्यौगिक’ शब्द का मूल शब्द है
(a) उदयोग
(b) उद्योग
(c) योगिक
(d) औद्योग
Ans: (b)
Q135. जिसका कोई अन्त न हो उसे कहते हैं
(a) आनंद
(b) अखंड
(c) असीम
(d) अनन्त
Ans: (d)
निर्देश: नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
Q136. ‘पोर्टफोलियो’ के सम्बन्ध में कौन-सा कथन सही ह?ै
(a) इससे बच्चों को लिखित कार्य करने की आदत पड़ जाती है।
(b) इससे बच्चों की क्रमिक प्रगति के बारे में पता चलता है।
(c) बच्चों के कार्य को एक जगह संकलित करना प्रमुख उद्देश्य है।
(d) इससे शिक्षक के समय की बचत होती है।
Ans: (b)
Q137. हिन्दी भाषा में सतत और व्यापक आकलन का मुख्य उद्देश्य है
(a) बच्चों की लिखित परीक्षा लेना
(b) बच्चों का एक से अधिक बार परीक्षण करना
(c) बच्चों द्वारा की गई त्रुटियों की पहचान करना
(d) बच्चों की भाषा-प्रयोग संबंधी क्षमता के विकास में मदद करना
Ans: (d)
Q138. भाषा हमारे हमारी _______ को व्यवस्थित करती है
(a) व्याकरणिक चेतना
(b) विचार-प्रक्रिया
(c) सामाजिक व्यवहार
(d) खेल-क्रिया
Ans: (b)
Q139. भाषा हमें _______ व _______ की अनख़ोजी दुनिया में ले जाती है।
(a) समाज, कल्पना
(b) कल्पना, विज्ञान
(c) ज्ञान, कल्पना
(d) ज्ञान, समाज
Ans: (c)
Q140. जिन बच्चों को लिखने में कठिनाई का अनुभव होता है, वे बच्चे _______ से ग्रस्त हो सकते हैं।
(a) डिस्ग्राफिया
(b)र् िडस्केलकुलिया
(c) मंदबुद्धिता
(d) डिस्लेक्सिया
Ans: (a)
Q141. हिन्दी भाषा की कक्षा में
(a) सभी बच्चे समानरूप से हिन्दी सीखते हैं।
(b) सभी बच्चे समानरूप से हिन्दी बोलते हैं
(c) सभी बच्चे एक ही भाषा के होते हैं
(d) सभी बच्चे एक ही भाषा के नहीं होते।
Ans: (d)
Q142. बहुभाषिक कक्षा की आवश्यकताओं को सम्बोधित करने से सर्वाधिक सहायक है
(a) विविध स्वरूपी लिखित परीक्षाएँ
(b) एक से अधिक बार भाषायी आकलन
(c) एक से अधिक पाठ्य-पुस्तक
(d) विविध स्वरूपी पाठ्य-सामग्री
Ans: (d)
Q143. व्याकरण शिक्षण के संदर्भ में आपका बल किस बिन्दु पर होगा?
(a) व्याकरण के नियमों की सैद्धान्तिक विवेचना पर
(b) व्याकरणिक की कोटियों की पहचान पर
(c) व्याकरणिक नियमों को कंठस्थ करने पर
(d) व्याकरण के व्यावहारिक पक्ष पर
Ans: (d)
Q144. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर पाठ्य-पुस्तकों को न केवल विषय-वस्तुओं के लिए स्थान उपलब्ध करवाना चाहिए बल्कि
(a) मानक हिन्दी के लिए स्थान उपलब्ध करवाना चाहिए
(b) विविध भाषाओं के लिए भी स्थान उपलब्ध करवाना चाहिए
(c) व्याकरण पर भी अत्यंत बल देना चाहिए
(d) मानक भाषा के प्रयोग पर अत्यंत बल देना चाहिए
Ans: (b)
Q145. त्रिभाषा सूत्र में हिन्दी का स्थान
(a) राजभाषा केरूप में है।
(b) सह राजभाषा केरूप में है।
(c) राष्ट्रभाषा केरूप में है।
(d) शास्त्रीय भाषा केरूप में है।
Ans: (a)
Q146. भाषा औार लिपि के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही है?
(a) एक भाषा विशेष को एक लिपि विशेष में लिखा जा सकता है।
(b) भाषा की समृद्धि के लिए केवल लिपि ही उत्तरदायी है।
(c) किसी भी भाषा को किसी भी लिपि में लिखा जा सकता है।
(d) प्रत्येक भाषा की एक निश्चित लिपि होती है।
Ans: (c)
Q147. वाइगोत्स्की ने भाषा-विकास के संदर्भ में किस बिन्दु पर सबसे अधिक बल दिया है?
(a) सामाजिक अंत:क्रिया पर
(b) अनुकरण पर
(c) मस्तिष्क पर
(d) पाठ्य-पुस्तक पर
Ans: (a)
Q148. हिन्दी भाषा की पाठ्य-पुस्तक के माध्यम से
(a) भाषा-नियमों की जानकारी मिलती है
(b) भाषा एवं सामाजिक विमर्श को भी बढावा मिलता है
(c) भाषा ही सीखी जा सकती है
(d) साहित्यिक विधाओं की जानकारी मिलती है
Ans: (b)
Q149. सामाजिक व्यवहार के _______ व सांस्कृतिक पैटर्न
(नमूने) अवचेतन स्तर पर ग्रहण किए जाते हैं।
(a) आर्थिक
(b) राजनैतिक
(c) भाषिक
(d) व्यावहारिक
Ans: (c)
Q150. प्रत्येक भाषा की पृष्ठभूमि में अव्यवस्थित भाषिक-व्यवस्था ही _______ और कार्यक्रमों को गढ़ती है तथा व्यक्ति के मानसिक क्रियाकलाप के लिए निर्देशन का कार्य करती है।
(a) मर्यादाओं
(b) सामाजिक
(c) चुनौतियों
(d) धारणाओं February 2015 293
Ans: (d)

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