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CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2012-2

CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2012

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q1. A creative learner refers to one who is
(a) very talented in drawing and painting
(b) highly intelligent
(c) capable of scoring consistently good marks in tests
(d) good at lateral thinking and problem solving
Ans: (d)
Q2. Individual learners differ from each other in
(a) principles of growth and development
(b) rate of development
(c) sequence of development
(d) general capacity for development
Ans: (b)
Q3. Every learner is unique means that
(a) no two learners are alike in their abilities, interests and talents
(b) learners do not have any common qualities, nor do they share common goals
(c) a common curriculum for all learners is not possible
(d) it is impossible to develop the potential of learners in a heterogeneous class
Ans: (a)
Q4. Constructivism as a theory
(a) focuses on the role of imitation
(b) emphasises the role of the learner in constructing his/her own view of the world
(c) emphasises memorising information and testing through recall
(d) emphasises the dominant role of the teacher
Ans: (b)
Q5. Development of concepts is primarily a part of
(a) emotional development
(b) intellectual development
(c) physical development
(d) social development
Ans: (b)
Q6. Heredity is considered a _________ social structure.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) dynamic
(d) static
Ans: (d)
Q7. The most intense and crucial socialisation takes place
(a) throughout the life of a person
(b) during adolescence
(c) during early childhood
(d) during adulthood
Ans: (b)
Q8. Helping learners recapitulate or recall what they have already learnt is important because
(a) it is a convenient beginning for any classroom instruction
(b) relating new information to prior knowledge enhances learning
(c) it is an effective way of revising lessons
(d) it enhances the memory of learners thereby strengthening learning
Ans: (b)
Q9. According to Piaget, during the first stage of development (birth to about 2 years age), a child learns best by
(a) using the senses
(b) comprehending neutral words
(c) thinking in an abstract fashion
(d) applying the newly acquired knowledge of language
Ans: (a)
Q10. The theory of learning that totally depends on ‘observable behaviour’ is associated with the ________ theory of learning
(a) cognitivist
(b) development
(c) behaviourist
(d) constructivist
Ans: (c)
Q11. The multilingual character of Indian society should be seen as
(a) a hindrance in the teaching-learning process
(b) a resource for enrichment of school life
(c) a challenge to the teacher’s capacity to motivate students to learn
(d) a factor that makes school life a complex experience for learners.
Ans: (b)
Q12. Creative answers require
(a) direct teaching and direct questions
(b) content-based questions
(c) open-ended questions
(d) a highly disciplined classroom
Ans: (c)
Q13. Diagnosis of gaps in the learning of students should be followed by
(a) appropriate remedial measures
(b) intensive drill and practice
(c) systematic revision of all lessons
(d) reporting the findings to learners and parents
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of learning?
(a) Learning is a process that mediates behaviour.
(b) Learning is something that occurs as a result of certain experiences.
(c) Study of behaviour is learning.
(d) Unlearning is also a part of learning.
Ans: (c)
Q15. ‘Self-regulation’ of learners refers to
(a) their ability to monitor their own learning
(b) creating regulations for student behaviour
(c) rules and regulations made by the student body
(d) self-discipline and control
Ans: (a)
Q16. Which of the following does not reflect ‘teaching for understanding’?
(a) Ask students to explain a phenomenon or a concept in their own words
(b) Teach students to provide examples to illustrate how a law works
(c) Help students see similarities and differences and generate analogies
(d) Enable students to memorise isolated facts and procedures
Ans: (d)
Q17. Which of the following statements is true about learning?
(a) Errors made by children indicate that no learning has taken place.
(b) Learning is effective in an environment that is emotionally positive and satisfying for learners.
(c) Learning is not affected by emotional factors at the stage of learning.
(d) Learning is fundamentally a mental activity.
Ans: (b)
Q18. Human development is based on certain principles.
Which of the following is not a principle of human development?
(a) Continuity
(b) Sequentiality
(c) General to specific
(d) Reversiblility
Ans: (d)
Q19. The main purpose of assessment should be
(a) to point out the errors of the learners
(b) to measure the achievement of learners
(c) to decide if a student should be promoted to the next class
(d) to diagnose and remedy gaps in learning
Ans: (d)
Q20. The centrally-sponsored scheme of integrated education for disabled children aims at providing educational opportunities to children with disabilities in
(a) regular schools
(b) special schools
(c) open schools
(d) blind relief association schools
Ans: (a)
Q21. Which of the following is not a sign of reading difficulty among young learners?
Difficulty in
(a) letter and word recognition
(b) reading speed and fluency
(c) understanding words and ideas
(d) spelling consistency
Ans: (d)
Q22. A teacher wants the gifted children of her class to achieve their potential. Which of the following should she not do to achieve her objective?
(a) Teach them to enjoy non-academic activities
(b) Teach them to manage stress
(c) Segregate them from their peers for special attention
(d) Challenge them to enhance their creativity
Ans: (c)
Q23. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?
(a) They always succeed.
(b) They enjoy doing their work.
(c) They display a high level of energy while working.
(d) They like challenging tasks.
Ans: (a)
Q24. Which of the following is not an appropriate tool for formative assessment?
(a) Assignment
(b) Oral questions
(c) Term test
(d) Quiz and games
Ans: (c)
Q25. Learners should not be encouraged to
(a) ask as many questions as possible both inside and outside the class
(b) actively interact with other learners in group work
(c) participate in as many co-curricular activities as possible
(d) memorize all the answers to questions that the teacher may ask
Ans: (d)
Q26. Irfan breaks toys and dismantles them to explore their components. What would you do?
(a) Never let Irfan play with toys.
(b) Always keep a close watch.
(c) Encourage his inquisitive nature and channelise his energy.
(d) Make him understand that toys should not be broken.
Ans: (c)
Q27. The statement ‘Men are generally more intelligent than women’
(a) is true
(b) may be true
(c) shows gender bias
(d) is true for different domains of intelligence
Ans: (c)
Q28. Understanding the principles of development of a child helps a teacher in
(a) identifying the social status of the learner
(b) identifying the economic background of the learner
(c) rationalising why the learner ought to be taught
(d) effectively catering to the different learning styles of learners
Ans: (d)
Q29. Christina took her class for a field trip and after coming back, she discussed the trip with her students. This may connote:
(a) assessment of learning
(b) assessment for learning
(c) learning for assessment
(d) learning of assessment
Ans: (a)
Q30. The statement ‘An important precondition for the proper development of a child is ensuring her/his healthy physical development’
(a) is untrue as physical development does not affect other domains of development in any way
(b) may be incorrect as development varies from individual to individual
(c) is true because physical development occupies the topmost place in the sequence of development
(d) is true because physical development is interrelated with other domains of development
Ans: (d)

Part II: Social Studies

Directions: Based on the passage given below, answer the questions from 31 to 33:
A Letter for You “‘Civics is boring.” You may have heard this from your students. You may have felt that they had a point. Syllabi of Civics in our country tend to focus on formal political institutions of government. The textbooks are full of constitutional, legal and procedural details presented in a dry and abstract manner. No wonder children experience a disconnect between the theory they read in the textbook and what they see in real life around them. This is perhaps what makes Civics ‘boring’ for young adults in a country otherwise full of passion for politics.” Source: Democratic Politics-I IX Social Science
Q31. In which context is the word ‘disconnect’ used in the passage?
(a) Teaching civics in schools is dull.
(b) Children find themselves unable to relate to what happens in the real world with what they read in the textbooks.
(c) It is related to how Civics textbooks are written and transacted.
(d) It is related to the attitude of students towards schooling in general and Civics in particular.
Ans: (b)
Q32. Which one of the following exemplifies the best pedagogical practice for the classroom in transacting the Civics syllabi?
(a) The teacher teaches the Civics textbook cover to cover explaining everything in detail and prepares students well.
(b) The teacher makes the subject interesting by relating anecdotes and short stories, but believes firmly in the textbook and lecture method.
(c) The teacher follows his lesson plan meticulously and uses many reference books for making notes.
(d) The teacher involves his students in youth parliament and encourages them to critically analyse the content in the textbook by comparing it with what they see in reality.
Ans: (d)
Q33. The ‘dry and abstract’ presentation of content in Civics textbooks can be brought alive by a teacher
(a) through real-life examples and episodes followed by debates and discussions
(b) if the abstract aspects are quickly glossed over
(c) through very clear and thorough explanation of the dry concepts
(d) with the help of short tests to reinforce the difficult concepts
Ans: (a)
Q34. Which one of the following statements about water conservation is incorrect?
(a) Water is a non-renewable resource.
(b) The underground water level could be improved with forest or vegetation covers.
(c) Controlling surface runoff is one of the ways to conserve water.
(d) Sprinklers effectively control evaporation.
Ans: (a)
Q35. Around 3900 years ago, the earliest cities, Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro, began to come to an end because of various reasons. Which one of the following is not one of those reasons?
(a) There was internal rivalry and warfare between cities.
(b) Deforestation and floods brought in destruction.
(c) Grazing of green cover by herds of cattle destroyed the soil cover.
(d) Rivers dried up leading to the end of the cities.
Ans: (a)
Q36. Most of the ‘Mahajanapadas’ were fortified because
(a) of availability of wood, brick and stones in the area
(b) they reflected their wealth and power
(c) the rulers were scared of attack and wanted to ensure they were protected
(d) they were symbols of their ‘rich’ warrior tradition
Ans: (c)
Q37. When it is 10:00 a.m. in London in June, the Indian Standard Time will be
(a) 2:30 p.m.
(b) 3:00 p.m.
(c) 3:30 p.m.
(d) 2:00 p.m.
Ans: (c)
Q38. In the following diagram, which arrow shows the southeast direction?

(a) D
(b) B
(c) F
(d) H
Ans: (a)
Q39. A map uses a scale in which 1 cm on the map covers 20 metres on the ground. If two places are 5 cm apart on the map, the actual distance between them is
(a) 20 metres
(b) 150 metres
(c) 200 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: (d)
Q40. For creating an effective administration practice in India, which one of the following was adopted by the British Government?
(a) Military expedition
(b) Practice of surveying
(c) Practice of land revenue collection
(d) Practice of exploiting native population
Ans: (c)
Q41. The two main systems of indigo cultivation were
(a) Nij and Kij
(b) Nij and Ryoti
(c) Kharif and Rabi
(d) Nij and terrace farming
Ans: (b)
Q42. What problems did shifting cultivators face under the British rule?
(a) Exploitation
(b) Decline in their agricultural production
(c) Restricted Movement
(d) Unemployment
Ans: (a)
Q43. What was the main reason behind the destruction of Somnath Temple by Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni?
(a) He wanted to build a palace there.
(b) He did not like the architecture of the temple.
(c) He tried to win credit as a great hero of Islam.
(d) He wanted to use the temple for some other purpose.
Ans: (c)
Q44. During the medieval period in India, temples were regarded as a hub of
(a) architecture
(b) cultural activities
(c) extensive foreign trade
(d) Sufi movement
Ans: (b)
Q45. In Bengal, temples and other religious structures were often built by individuals or groups who were powerful in order to
(a) ensure that they did good ‘karma’
(b) demonstrate a marvel of architecture to the society
(c) add value to the surroundings
(d) demonstrate their power, proclaim their piety and gain followers
Ans: (d)
Q46. A system of structure and practice in which men dominate, oppress and exploit women is called
(a) hierarchy
(b) fascism
(c) monarchy
(d) patriarchy
Ans: (d)
Q47. Which of the following statements is not an objective of social advertising?
(a) To change attitudes and mindset, as people influence people
(b) To target social networks and social groups
(c) To advertise products on social networking sites for personal commercial value
(d) To motivate members of the public to engage in voluntary social activity
Ans: (c)
Q48. Which of the following statements about ‘Prashastis’ is an incorrect statement?
(a) The achievements of rulers or kings are described in ‘Prashastis’.
(b) They were written by scholars/poets/learned people for the purpose of praising kings and earning their patronage.
(c) Usually kings themselves wrote them.
(d) They are valuable sources of history of the period to which they belong.
Ans: (c)
Q49. What does PHC stand for?
(a) Private Health Centre
(b) Public Health Court
(c) Public Health Centre
(d) Public Health Corporation
Ans: (c)
Q50. Which of the following is not a primary economic activity?
(a) Mining
(b) Agriculture
(c) Trading
(d) Fishing
Ans: (c)
Q51. Industrialists set up industries when
(a) they can develop their own native places
(b) they find favourable government policies
(c) towns can be developed
(d) incentives provided by the government reduce their profit
Ans: (b)
Q52. Which one of the following explains the term ‘market’?
(a) A local area that has conducive conditions for setting up an industry
(b) A shop to sell the goods manufactured by the industrialist
(c) The potential trade in a particular type of good being produced by an industry
(d) A mall that sells products
Ans: (c)
Q53. Which of the following pedagogical approaches exhibited by four different teachers for teaching ‘Industrialisation’ is the most appropriate?
(a) The teacher believes that she must cover the entire process of industrialisation in detail and brings in copious material to the class.
(b) The teacher asks the class to read the entire lesson silently and ask questions if they have not understood.
(c) The teacher is a believer in the timeless glory of the textbook and teaches by explaining every word and asking comprehension questions to students.
(d) The teacher is aware of multiple approaches to pedagogy and plans a trip to an industry in the nearby area to demonstrate the concepts and discusses and debates in groups the issues and then in a plenary, sums up the conclusions.
Ans: (d)
Q54. Which of the following statements about ‘ancient manuscripts’ is not correct?
(a) Some manuscripts were engraved on stone or metal.
(b) They were usually written on palm leaves.
(c) They are the primary sources of the period they reflect.
(d) They were handwritten and then printed.
Ans: (d)
Q55. In the middle of the 19th century, a British historian divided history of India into three periods — Hindu India, Muslim India and British India. What is the basis of this division?
(a) It was convenient and easy to remember.
(b) It was based on the idea that religion of the rulers was an important historical change.
(c) History of England is also written in a similar way.
(d) Britishers felt that they were more knowledgeable at that point of time in history and so used this division.
Ans: (b)
Q56. Match the following and choose the correct option:
a. Agriculture I. Cultivation of grapes
b. Horticulture II. Growing crops and farming
c. Pisciculture III. Growing flowers, fruits and vegetables
d. Viticulture IV. Breeding of fish
(a) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
(b) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
(c) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
(d) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
Ans: (b)
Q57. Which development facilitated debates and discussions about social customs and practices on a wider scale during the 19th century?
(a) Magazines
(b) Theatre
(c) Movies
(d) Radio
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which strategy was used by social reformers like Raja Ram Mohun Roy to campaign against the prevailing social injustices (e.g. sati) against women?
(a) They took the help of the popular social milieu.
(b) They used the influence of the government.
(c) They used a verse or sentence from the ancient sacred texts to prove their stand.
(d) They took the help of popular nationalist leaders.
Ans: (c)
Directions: Based on the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q. 59 and 60):
‘‘By the end of the nineteenth century, women themselves were actively working for reform. They wrote books, edited magazines, founded schools and training centres and set up women’s associations. From the early twentieth century, they formed political pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage (the right to vote) and better health care and education for women. Women from all communities joined various kinds of nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.
In the twentieth century, leaders such as Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose lent their support to demands for greater equality and freedom for women. Nationalist leaders promised that there would be full suffrage for all men and women after independence. However, till then they asked women to concentrate on the anti-British struggles.’’ Source: Our Pasts-III, Part-II
Q59. Which of the following statements best describes the inference that can be drawn from the above extract with respect to the strategy used by leaders of India’s national movement?
(a) Participation of women would make the struggle for independence much more attractive.
(b) Women and men were encouraged to follow a policy of ‘give and take’.
(c) Indian women through their speeches could draw many more people into the movement.
(d) Nationalist leaders enlisted the support of the women to their cause by promising them the right to vote after independence.
Ans: (d)
Q60. Which one of the following statements regarding women’s rights is untrue based on the passage?
(a) Women were now becoming vocal in their demands for rights, including political rights. 2) Many women from all communities came forward to join the struggle for freedom.
(c) Women got the support of nationalist leaders.
(d) Women’s writings were not appreciated.
Ans: (d)
Q61. ‘‘Throughout the 19th century, most educated women were taught at home by liberal fathers and husbands instead of sending them to schools.’’ Which of the following statements is not a correct reason for the above trend?
(a) People feared that schools would take girls away from home.
(b) Men derived great pleasure by teaching girls at home.
(c) Girls had to travel through public places in order to reach school and their safety remained a concern.
(d) There was a fear that schooling would prevent girls from doing their domestic duties.
Ans: (b)
Q62. Why is mining called a primary activity?
(a) It involves production from the natural resources of the earth.
(b) It is one of the earliest forms of human activities.
(c) It brings a lot of money to the government.
(d) It is the biggest employer of workers.
Ans: (a)
Q63. Which of the following is not a mineral?
(a) Graphite in pencil
(b) Salt used for cooking
(c) Gold and silver in jewellery
(d) Mica used for insulation
Ans: (d)
Q64. Which of the following was not a problem faced by India soon after independence?
(a) Wealth and debts to be equally distributed among India, Pakistan and Great Britain
(b) Persuading the princely states to join the Indian union
(c) Economic development
(d) Refugees from Pakistan
Ans: (a)
Q65. Though India chose universal adult franchise after becoming independent, this was withheld in many other sovereign countries on the basis of certain criteria. Which of the following was not one of the criteria?
(a) Education
(b) Religion
(c) Gender
(d) Property
Ans: (b)
Q66. Which one of the following statements explains the essence of ‘mixed economy’?
(a) Both the states and centre divide responsibility towards economic development.
(b) Both the public and private sectors play a significant role in increasing production and generation of jobs.
(c) Both the public and private sectors share the profits generated in the economy equally.
(d) Both the central and state governments have a say in the legislation controlling the economy of the country.
Ans: (b)
Q67. Which one among the following is not a feature of the Lithosphere?
(a) 97% of the earth’s water lies in the lithosphere.
(b) Landforms are found on the ocean floor.
(c) Mineral wealth is found in this sphere.
(d) Mountains, plateaus and valleys form a part of the lithosphere.
Ans: (b)
Q68. Which one of the following cannot be said about our planet earth?
(a) It is a perfect sphere.
(b) It is slightly flattened at the poles.
(c) It has a bulge in the middle.
(d) It is called the ‘blue planet’.
Ans: (a)
Q69. Ocean water keeps moving continuously unlike the calm water of ponds and lakes. Which one of the following categories is not one of the movements of water?
(a) Waves
(b) Water cycle
(c) Tides
(d) Currents
Ans: (b)
Q70. Which of the following is not an advantage of high tides?
(a) They help in fishing.
(b) Electricity could be generated from them.
(c) They help the local economy by drawing tourists.
(d) Navigation is easier.
Ans: (c)
Directions: Based on your reading of the case study given below, answer the next two questions (Q. 71 and 72) by selecting the most appropriate option:
Rashmi has the habit of asking the surnames of persons whom she comes across for the first time. She has to place the concerned person in the varna system of the Indian society. This enquiry about caste identity is resented by many people though it is not expressed openly. Things are more complicated when she meets a person from another region or part of India. She is unable to figure out his/her caste status even if that person reveals the surname. This ‘world view’ of Rashmi, according to her, does not affect/influence her teaching-learning transaction process. She says that it is a part of her primary socialisation and she cannot help it.
Q71. Primary socialisation is
(a) social networking at the primary level
(b) learning from family and friends at an early age
(c) learning from society during adolescence
(d) memorising and imitating the teacher
Ans: (b)
Q72. The resentment is justified because the teacher’s attitude
(a) highlights the need for socialisation
(b) is purely based on personal biases
(c) is not an indictment of the stereotypes it creates
(d) perpetuates social, political and economic inequalities
Ans: (d)
Q73. Most people during the 19th century felt that education will have a ‘corrupting’ influence on women. Which of the following brings out the contextual meaning of ‘corrupting’ in the above sentence?
(a) Women were more corrupt than men.
(b) It would bring them more money.
(c) The power they gain through education would take them away from their traditional roles.
(d) They would become impure.
Ans: (c)
Q74. A teacher gives the following exercise to her students:
Imagine you are a member of a nomadic community that shifts residence every 3 months. How would this change your life?
(a) The question will prove that a student’s life is far safer and more enjoyable than the life of people in such situations.
(b) The question will make students less egocentric and promote universal brotherhood.
(c) The question will impress upon students that facts are more important than reflection in Social Science.
(d) The question will help students place themselves in new situations to gain a better understanding of the concepts involved.
Ans: (d)
Directions: Based on the passage given below, answer the next two questions (Q. 75 and 76):
“The popular perception of Social Science is that it is a nonutility subject. As a result, low self-esteem governs the classroom transactions, with both teachers and students feeling uninterested in comprehending its contents. From the initial stages of schooling, it is often suggested to students that the Natural Sciences are superior to the Social Sciences.’’ Source: NCF–2005, Teaching of Social Sciences
Q75. What is the context in which the term ‘non-utility subject’ is used in the above extract?
(a) Social Science has nothing to offer to improve human civilisation.
(b) Studying Social Science does not lead to well-paid jobs and material wealth.
(c) Social Science is a subject that cannot be learnt for its utility.
(d) Social Science is a dry and difficult subject having no use for educators or learners.
Ans: (b)
Q76. Which of the following best conveys the essence of the above extract?
(a) The way Social Science is taught to students does not enthuse them to take it seriously.
(b) Natural Sciences need to be given importance in school curriculum.
(c) Students considered good in Natural Sciences are considered bright.
(d) Social Sciences are inferior to Natural Sciences since they are non-utilitarian subjects.
Ans: (a)
Q77. The significance of language in the teaching-learning of Social Science cannot be over-emphasised. Which of the following statements does not convey the above idea?
(a) Effective understanding of the meaning and use of a language enhances learning in Social Science.
(b) Language is of least significance in a fact-oriented subject like Social Science.
(c) Only a language teacher can do justice to the teaching-learning process of Social Science.
(d) Since language is important, a Social Science teacher should include comprehension and grammar questions in Social Science tests.
Ans: (c)
Q78. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Social Science?
(a) Social Science encompasses diverse concerns of society, including historical, geographical, economic and political dimensions.
(b) Social Science creates and widens human values such as freedom and respect for diversity.
(c) As Social Science deals with people, the nature of enquiry is not scientific.
(d) Social Science lays the foundations for an analytical and creative mindset.
Ans: (c)
Q79. Which of the following is not a source material for writing oral history?
(a) The anecdotes of a person who participated in the ‘Quit India Movement’
(b) A British soldier’s oral account of the Sepoy Mutiny
(c) The memories of a person who migrated to Pakistan from India at the time of Partition
(d) A scholar talking about today’s education system
Ans: (d)
Q80. Which of the following statements about the title of NCERT History textbook, ‘Our Pasts’, as expressed by the authors, is not correct?
(a) It is about the pasts of neighbouring countries.
(b) It does not talk only about the times of kings and queens.
(c) It tries to bring out the contribution of various groups or communities like farmers and artisans.
(d) It emphasises the notion that India does not have just ‘one past’ but ‘many pasts’.
Ans: (a)
Q81. The following question is given under the heading ‘Let’s discuss’ at the end of a chapter:
‘Why do you think ordinary men and women did not generally keep records of what they did?’ What is the relevance of asking this question?
(a) Such questions encourage guesswork and so should not be given.
(b) Such questions show that ordinary men and women lead common lives; an d there is nothing great or of significance to write about them.
(c) It is good to ignite a discussion and let students come out with their reasoning.
(d) Questions that do not have fixed answers should not be given, as they will confuse students.
Ans: (c)
Q82. Which type of questions will not develop critical thinking among students?
(a) Closed-ended questions
(b) Open-ended questions
(c) Probing questions
(d) Divergent questions
Ans: (a)
Q83. While discussing gender roles in the classroom, a teacher should assert that
(a) there are different professions for men and women
(b) boys need to attend the school as they are the future earning members of the family
(c) gender stereotypes in society need to be addressed meaningfully
(d) household work should not be seen as productive
Ans: (c)
Q84. The approach of the ‘Social and Political Life’ textbook of NCERT is to
(a) give the learner one correct answer for a question
(b) focus the attention of the learner on the factual content of lessons
(c) use definitions to sum up a concept
(d) use case studies and narratives to explain concepts
Ans: (d)
Q85. Which of the following questions would help in building the critical thinking skills of students?
(a) ‘All communicable diseases are waterborne’. State whether it is true or false.
(b) Comment on the ‘double burden of women’s work’.
(c) Write two measures the government has adopted to control pollution.
(d) What is the government’s role in Indian health and education?
Ans: (b)
Q86. You are teaching ‘Unity in Diversity’ to the students of Class-VIII. Which of the following activities would you do to make the students understand the concept effectively?
(a) Write an essay on the river disputes among the states of India.
(b) Prepare a model of the hydroelectric project near the school.
(c) Conduct a test after the lesson is thoroughly taught.
(d) Present a feature on the different dance forms of our country appreciating their underlying similarities and differences.
Ans: (d)
Q87. Diagnostic test in Social Science will help a teacher understand
(a) the part of the topic the student has not memorised
(b) learning difficulties a student is facing in Social Science
(c) how revision work has helped her students
(d) how intelligent her students are
Ans: (b)
Q88. Choose the most inappropriate statement regarding the teaching of Social Science in middle school.
(a) Social Science should be taught as it helps acquire an understanding of human relationships.
(b) Social Science should be taught as it helps sensitise students regarding social reality.
(c) Social Science should be taught because it helps students debate and reflect on social issues.
(d) Social Science should be a part of the curriculum so that students know about the lives of kings and the battles they fought.
Ans: (d)
Q89. Doing activities with children will be effective only if
(a) the teacher does not know why she is doing it
(b) the teacher conducts them to complete her ‘Lesson Plan’
(c) the teacher does them as a pretence to obey her principal’s directions for activity-based learning
(d) she believes that activity-based education will help children in understanding concepts
Ans: (d)
Q90. Which of the following should not be a part of the Social Science instructional process?
(a) Planning
(b) Dictation of facts
(c) Feedback mechanism
(d) Implementation
Ans: (b)

Part III: Language I English

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. 91–99) by selecting the most appropriate option.
Surviving a Snakebite
Q1. Annually, there are a million cases of snakebite in India, and of these, close to 50,000 succumb to the bites.
2. When you look around the countryside, where most bites occur, and notice people’s habits and lifestyles, these figures aren’t surprising. People walk barefoot without a torch at night when they are most likely to step on a foraging venomous snake.
3. We encourage rodents by disposing waste food out in the open, or by storing food grains in the house.
Attracted by the smell of rats, snakes enter houses and when one crawls over someone asleep on the floor and the person twitches or rolls over, it may bite in defence.
4. Once bitten, we don’t rush to the hospital. Instead, we seek out the nearest conman, tie tourniquets, eat vile tasting herbal chutneys, apply poultices or spurious stones, cut/slice/suck the bitten spot, and other ghastly time-consuming deadly “remedies”.
5. As Rom cattily remarks: “If the snake hasn’t injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life.” That’s the key -— snakes inject venom voluntarily and we have no way of knowing if it has injected venom, and if it is a lethal dose. The only first aid is to immobilise the bitten limb like you would a fracture, and get to a hospital for anti-venom serum without wasting time.
91. Of the people who are bitten by snakes in India, the fatality rate is
(a) 5%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%
Ans: (a)
Q92. According to the author, people living in which parts are more prone to snakebites?
(a) Crowded cities
(b) The open
(c) Villages
(d) Forests
Ans: (c)
Q93. Storing food grains in the house is one of the causes for snake bites because
(a) food grains attract rats which in turn attract snakes
(b) snakes enter houses in search of stored food grains
(c) the smell of food grains brings both snakes and other animals into the house
(d) stored food grains create convenient hiding places for snakes within houses
Ans: (a)
Q94. ‘… it may bite in defence’ (Para 3). This observation implies that
(a) a snake is very good at defending itself
(b) a snake may bite a human being in order to defend its prey
(c) human beings are defenceless against snakes
(d) a snake bites a human only when it is threatened
Ans: (d)
Q95. What, according to the author, is the reason for the high fatality rate due to snakebites in India?
(a) Shortage of medical facilities
(b) Lack of scientific knowledge about snakebites
(c) Shortage of anti-venom serum
(d) Shortage of doctors
Ans: (b)
Q96. In the instance of snakebite, what should we do immediately?
(a) Tie tourniquets
(b) Eat herbal chutneys
(c) Immobilise the bitten part and get anti-venom serum
(d) Cut-slice-suck the bitten spot
Ans: (c)
Q97. Pick out a word from the passage which means ‘to go around in search of food’ (Para 2).
(a) Foraging
(b) Countryside
(c) Venomous
(d) Barefoot
Ans: (a)
Q98. “If the snake hasn’t injected enough venom, even popping an aspirin can save your life.” This sentence can be rewritten without changing the meaning as
(a) When a snake has not injected enough venom, life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin.
(b) Life can be saved even by swallowing an aspirin, even though the snake hasn’t injected enough venom.
(c) Even popping an aspirin can save your life in spite of a snake not having injected enough venom.
(d) As long as you are popping an aspirin to save your life, the snake will not inject enough venom.
Ans: (a)
Q99. Pick out a word from the passage that means “having the power to cause death” (Para 5).
(a) Immobilise
(b) Voluntarily
(c) Lethal
(d) Serum
Ans: (c)
Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. 100–105) by selecting the most appropriate option.
Common Cold
Q1. Go hang yourself, you old M.D.; You shall not sneer at me.
Pick up your hat and stethoscope, Go wash your mouth with laundry soap; I contemplate a joy exquisite I’m not paying you for your visit.
I did not call you to be told My malady is a common cold.
2. By pounding brow and swollen lip; By fever’s hot and scaly grip; By those two red redundant eyes That weep like woeful April skies; By racking snuffle, snort, and sniff; By handkerchief after handkerchief; This cold you wave away as naught Is the damnedest cold man ever caught;
3. Bacilli swarm within my portals Such as were ne’er conceived by mortals, But bred by scientists wise and hoary In some Olympic laboratory; Bacteria as large as mice, With feet of fire and heads of ice Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.
100. What is the emotion that the poet displays in the first stanza?
(a) Anger
(b) Joy
(c) Jealousy
(d) Sympathy
Ans: (a)
Q101. Why and at whom does the poet show his emotion?
(a) At an old man because he has sneered at the poet
(b) At a doctor for an incorrect diagnosis of his medical condition
(c) At a friend who is happy at the poet’s plight
(d) At a doctor who has said that the poet merely has a cold
Ans: (d)
Q102. The poet describes his eyes as ‘two red redundant eyes’ because
(a) he cannot see properly due to the cold
(b) they show how furious the poet is
(c) they have been affected by an eye disease
(d) in his medical condition the poet is imagining things
Ans: (a)
Q103. ‘Bacteria as large as mice’ is an instance of a/an
(a) simile and a hyperbole
(b) metaphor
(c) personification
(d) alliteration
Ans: (a)
Q104. ‘Who never interrupt for slumber Their stamping elephantine rumba.’ The meaning of these lines is that
(a) the bacteria are continuously stamping their elephant-like feet
(b) the cold-causing germs are causing much discomfort and pain to the poet without any break
(c) the bacilli are so active that they refuse to go to sleep
(d) the poet is not able to concentrate on his work due to the raging cold
Ans: (b)
Q105. The general tone of the poem can be described as
(a) satirical and harsh
(b) ironical and mocking
(c) whimsical and humorous
(d) sad and tragic
Ans: (a)
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q106. The Constructivist Approach to learning means
(a) involving students in a variety of activities to encourage them to learn new words and structures by accommodating them with those that they have already learnt through a process of discovery
(b) teaching rules of grammar and consolidating through rigorous practice
(c) helping learners acquire new vocabulary by studying literature intensively
(d) teaching new words and structures using a variety of audio-visual aids followed by practice through drill
Ans: (a)
Q107. What is the skill among the ones given below that cannot be tested in a formal written examination?
(a) Reading for information
(b) Meaning of words and phrases
(c) Extensive reading for pleasure
(d) Analysing texts
Ans: (c)
Q108. Which of the following is suitable for making students responsible for their own learning?
(a) Discouraging students from making decisions about how they learn best
(b) Using technology to chat and network
(c) Encouraging students to ask more and more questions
(d) Giving a lot of homework, project work and assignments to improve language skills of students
Ans: (c)
Q109. Ania, while teaching paragraph construction, should draw attention to
(a) a large variety of ideas
(b) originality of ideas
(c) topic sentence, supporting details and connectors
(d) a range of vocabulary
Ans: (c)
Q110. Communicative Language Teaching is concerned with
(a) teaching of vocabulary and grammar through rules of spelling and language
(b) teaching language to learners for written tests
(c) interpreting grammar rules to suit the audience
(d) enhancing receptive and productive skills such as speaking, listening, reading and writing
Ans: (d)
Q111. Formative Assessment is assessment
(a) of learning
(b) at learning
(c) in learning
(d) for learning
Ans: (a)
Q112. The term ‘Comprehensive’ in the Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation means
(a) scholastic development
(b) co-scholastic development
(c) academic skills
(d) scholastic and co-scholastic development
Ans: (d)
Q113. A teacher designs a test to find out the cause of the poor grades of her learners through a/an
(a) diagnostic test
(b) proficiency test
(c) achievement test
(d) aptitude test
Ans: (a)
Q114. An inclusive class is that in which
(a) differently abled learners study with normal students
(b) students from different nationalities study together
(c) students from different religions study together
(d) both boys and girls study together
Ans: (a)
Q115. The ‘concrete operational stage’ is one where the learners are
(a) adolescents
(b) at middle level
(c) toddlers
(d) adults
Ans: (b)
Q116. When learners are engaged in a pair activity, taking on the roles of a doctor and a patient, the activity is called
(a) real activity
(b) declamation
(c) simulation
(d) exchanging notes
Ans: (c)
Q117. Essays or long writing tasks especially on a discursive issue should
(a) help students develop their literary skills
(b) help students with grammar
(c) help them improve their handwriting
(d) help them discuss different points of view and justify them with illustrative points
Ans: (d)
Q118. A teacher, Amrita, uses various tasks such as creating charts, graphs, drawing, gathering information and presenting them through pairs or group work. This differentiated instruction
(a) helps learners with multiple intelligences perform well and learn better
(b) is a way of demonstrating her own knowledge
(c) only helps bright learners
(d) is the best way to prepare students for an assessment
Ans: (a)
Q119. Using a word bank and brainstorming helps build
(a) vocabulary
(b) ideas
(c) writing skills
(d) reading comprehension
Ans: (a)
Q120. Gender stereotypes and bias among learners can be discouraged by
(a) enabling all learners to cook and sew irrespective of gender
(b) using textbooks that do not perpetuate such beliefs
(c) creating an open and encouraging atmosphere in a mixed class
(d) pressuring girls to learn cooking
Ans: (c)

भाग IV: भाषा II हिन्दी

निर्देश: गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 121-129) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
कमज़ोर विचारक तत्काल उत्तर की ओर दौड़ता है, परन्तु सोचने वाले बच्चे समय लेते हैं। सवाल पर विचार करते हैं। क्या यह अंतर केवल सोचने के लिए कौशल के होने या न होने के कारण है? एक ऐसा कौशल जो केवल एक तकनीक है और जिसे, अगर भाग्य ने साथ दिया तो, हम बुद्धि से बच्चों को सिखा सकते हैं। क्या बच्चों को इस कौशल में प्रशिक्षित कर सकते हैं? मुझे भय है कि ऐसा नहीं है। अच्छा विचारक सोचने में समय इसलिए लगा सकता है क्योंकि वह अनिश्चय को सह सकता है। वह इस बात को भी झेल सकता है कि वह कोई चीज़ नहीं जानता, परन्तु कमज़ोर विचारक को कुछ न जानने की कल्पना ही असहनीय लगती है। क्या इस पूरे विश्लेषण से हम यह नहीं पाते कि असल में इन बच्चों में ‘ग़लत’ होने का भय बैठा होता है।
बेशक यही भय है। जो मोनिका जैसे बच्चों पर भयानक दबाव डालता है। ठीक ऐसे ही दबाव हैल भी महसूस करता है। शायद मैं भी।
मोनिका अकेली नहीं है जो सही होना चाहती है और ग़लत होने से डरती है। यहाँ शायद एक दूसरी असुरक्षा की भावना काम करती होती है। यह असुरक्षा की भावना पैदा होती है, सवाल के लिए कोई भी जवाब नहीं होने से। (Ïksr% cPps vliQy oSQls gksrs gSa μ tkWu gkWYV] ,dyO;)
Q121. कमज़ोर विचारक
(a) जल्दी उत्तर देना चाहता है
(b) देर से उत्तर देता है
(c) हमेशा अज्ञानी होता है
(d) कमज़ोर होता है
Ans: (a)
Q122. अच्छे विचारक वे हैं जो
(a) सोच-विचार कर जवाब देते हैं
(b) हमेशा सही जवाब देते हैं
(c) उलझे से रहते हैं
(d) जिनकी बुद्धि बहुत तेज़ होती है
Ans: (a)
Q123. मोनिका पर किस बात का दबाव रहता ह?ै
(a) बुद्धि का प्रशिक्षण न होने का
(b) असुरक्षित होने का
(c) अच्छा विचारक न कहलाए जाने का
(d) गलत होने का
Ans: (d)
Q124. लेखक के अनुसार क्या ज़रूरी है?
(a) अच्छी तरह ¯चतन करने के बाद जवाब देना
(b) असुरक्षा न होना
(c) सही जवाब
(d) देर से जवाब देना
Ans: (b)
Q125. कमज़ोर विचारक को क्या असहनीय लगता ह?ै
(a) सोचने का कौशल
(b) उत्तर न जानना
(c) विचार
(d) प्रशिक्षण
Ans: (b)
Q126. ‘प्रश्fिक्षत’ शब्द में उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय है
(a) प्र, इत
(b) प्र, त
(c) प्र, ईत
(d) प्र, क्षित
Ans: (a)
Q127. ‘वह ग़लत होने से μμμडरती है।’ वाक्य में उचित क्रिया-विशेषण शब्द आएगा
(a) बहुत
(b) तेज़
(c) अचानक
(d) धीरे-धीरे
Ans: (a)
Q128. ‘शायद मैं भी’ वाक्य है
(a) संदेहवाचक
(b) संकेतवाचक
(c) इच्छार्थक
(d) विधानवाचक
Ans: (b)
Q129. ‘तत्काल’ शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद है
(a) तत्Rs. काल
(b) तत Rs. काल
(c) तRs.अकाल
(d) तत:Rs.काल
Ans: (d)
निर्देश: गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 130-135) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
अभी भी इस बारे में बहुत कम जानकारी है कि आधुनिक कही जाने वाली आज की दुनिया आखिर कैसे संचालित हो रही है। हालाकि हरेक देश के पास इसकी कोई-न-कोई आधिकारिक व्याख्या ज़रूर है कि वे कैसे और किन संदर्भों में आधुनिक हो रहे हैं। लेकिन इस बारे में मेरा कहना है कि आधुनिकता को समझने के लिए ज़रूरी है कि आप अपने अंदर झाँक सकें। इससे आपको पता चलेगा कि आधुनिकता की राह पर बढ़ने के लिए समाज को किन चीज़ों की ज़रूरत होती है। बेशक, आज हर कोई मॉडर्न होना चाहता है, लेकिन आधुनिकता की राह उतनी स्पष्ट नहीं हैं, जितनी वह मानी जाती है। इसीलिए मैं यह बात बार-बार कहता हूँ कि पश्चिमी समाज कभी-कभी आधुनिक नहीं रहे। पश्चिम के पास एकमात्र उल्लेखनीय चीज़ है सांइस, जिसमें उसने तरक्की की लेकिन जिन साइंटिस्ट के बलबूते वहाँ आधुनिकता का परचम लहराया जाता है, खुद वे साइंटिस्ट अपने कल्चर में उलझे रहते हैं। उनका यह कल्चर आधुनिकता का झंडाबरदार नहीं है। यह भी नहीं कहा जा सकता है कि उनके कल्चर पर दूसरी संस्कृतियों और लोकाचारों का असर नहीं हुआ होगा। अगर यह असर हुआ है तो सिर्फ़ वही आधुनिक क्यों कहा जाए।
(Ïksr% czwuksa ykrwj μ izsaQp lks’ky lkbafVLV)
Q130. लेखक ने किस बात की अस्पष्टता की ओर संकेत किया है?
(a) आधुनिक की सही व्याख्या
(b) आधुनिक बनने के मानदंडों में वैविध्य
(c) पश्चिम देश की संस्कृति
(d) तरक्क़ी का अर्थ
Ans: (a)
Q131. हर देश ने
(a) अपने-आप को आधुनिक साबित किया है
(b) आधुनिक होने के अपने अर्थ और मानदंड तय किए हैं
(c) आधुनिक होने की समान व्याख्या की है
(d) अपने द्वारा निर्धारित मानदंडों को सही नहीं कहा है
Ans: (b)
Q132. लेखक के अनुसार आधुनिक होने के लिए क्या ज़रूरी ह?ै
(a) अपनी संस्कृति का संरक्षण
(b) आधुनिकता की निश्चित परिभाषा
(c) स्वयं का विश्लेषण
(d) साइंस में तरक्की करना
Ans: (a)
Q133. ‘पश्चिमी समाज कभी-कभी आधुनिक नहीं रहे।’ लेखक ने ऐसा क्यों कहा होगा?
(a) पश्चिमी समाज आधुनिक नहीं है
(b) पश्चिमी समाज दूसरे कल्चर का असर ग्रहण कर रहा है
(c) पश्चिमी समाज के पास साइंस है
(d) पश्चिमी समाज यह नहीं जानता कि आधुनिक का अर्थ क्या है और कौन-सी चीजें समाज को आधुनिक बनाती हैं
Ans: (c)
Q134. लेखक इस गद्यांश में क्या कहना चाहता है?
(a) आधुनिक होने के लिए विज्ञान में तरक्की करना ज़रूरी है
(b) पश्चिमी समाज आधुनिक है
(c) वैज्ञानिकों को केवल अपनी संस्कृति का ज्ञान है
(d) विज्ञान में उन्नति करना ही आधुनिक होने का मानदंड नहीं है
Ans: (d)
Q135. ‘साइंटिस्टों’ शब्द इस ओर संकेत करता है कि
(a) कोई भाषा किसी दूसरी भाषा से शब्द तो लेती है लेकिन व्याकरण अपना प्रयुक्त करती है
(b) लेखक का शब्द-चयन अच्छा नहीं है
(c) आजकल खिचड़ी भाषा का प्रयोग हो रहा है
(d) ऐसे शब्द न तो हिन्दी के रहते हैं और न अंग्रेज़ी वे
Q135. (a) ‘साइंटिस्टों’ शब्द के प्रयोग से यह स्पष्ट किया गया है कि किसी भी भाषा में अन्य भाषा के शब्द प्रयोग करने पर भी व्याकरण उसी भाषा का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
निर्देश: नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 136-150) में सबसे उचित विकल्प का चयन कीजिए।
Q136. किस प्रकार के प्रश्न बच्चों की भाषागत समझ का आकलन करने में अधिक सहायक नहीं होते?
(a) अनुमानपरक प्रश्न
(b) पाठ पर आधारित तथ्यात्मक प्रश्न
(c) कल्पनापरक प्रश्न
(d) ¯चतनपरक प्रश्न
Ans: (b)
Q137. ‘भाषा-शिक्षण’ में शब्दार्थ पर अधिक बल नहीं देना चाहिए क्योंकि
(a) बच्चे संदर्भ के अनुसार अनुमान लगाते हुए अर्थ ग्रहण कर लेते हैं
(b) शब्दों के अर्थ शब्दकोष से देखे जा सकते हैं
(c) इसमें समय व्यर्थ होता है
(d) बच्चे सारे शब्दों के अर्थ जानते हैं
Ans: (a)
Q138. ‘पठन-कुशलता’ का मूल्यांकन करने के लिए आप क्या करेंगे?
(a) बच्चों से ज़ोर-ज़ोर से बोलकर पढ़ने के लिए कहेंगे ताकि उच्चारण की जाँच हो सके
(b) पढ़ी गई सामग्री पर तथ्यात्मक प्रश्न पूछेंगे
(c) पढ़ी गई सामग्री पर प्रश्न बनवाएँगे
(d) पुस्तक के किसी पाठ की पंक्तियाँ पढ़वाएँगे
Ans: (c)
Q139. ‘भाषा-शिक्षण’ के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(a) बच्चे भाषा की जटिल संरचनाओं के साथ विद्यालय आते हैं
(b) बच्चे अपने द्वारा बनाए गए भाषा-नियमों में विस्तार एवं परिवर्तन करते हैं
(c) समृद्ध भाषा-परिवेश भाषा अ£जत करने में सहायक होता है
(d) बच्चों की मातृभाषा का कक्षा में प्रयोग नहीं होना चाहिए
Ans: (d)
Q140. ‘बोलना-कौशल’ के विकास के लिए सबसे अधिक महत्वपूर्ण सिद्ध हो सकता है
(a) सुनी गई सामग्री का ज्यों-का-त्यों प्रस्तुतीकरण
(b) श्रुतलेख
(c) कथा श्रवण
(d) परस्पर वार्तालाप
Ans: (d)
Q141. ‘भाषा-अर्जन और ‘भाषा-अधिगम’ के संदर्भ में कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(a) भाषा-अर्जन सहज और स्वाभाविक होता है, जबकि भाषा-अधिगम प्रयासपूर्ण होता है।
(b) रोज़गार प्राप्त करने के लिए ही भाषा सीखी जाती है।
(c) ‘भाषा-अर्जन’ के लिए समृद्ध भाषायी परिवेश की आवश्यकता होती है।
(d) ‘भाषा-अधिगम’ में संप्रेषण-कुशलता पर भी बल रहता है।
Ans: (b)
Q142. विशेष क्षमता वाले बच्चों की कक्षा में ‘लेखन-कौशल’ के अभ्यास के लिए महत्वपूर्ण है
(a) अक्षरों की सुंदर बनावट
(b) विचारों की मौलिकता
(c) शुद्ध वर्तनी का प्रयोग
(d) आलंकारिक भाषा का प्रयोग
Ans: (b)
Q143. भाषा-शिक्षण में सहायक है
(a) व्याकरणिक नियमों की जानकारी
(b) निदानात्मक व उपचारात्मक कार्य
(c) शुद्ध-भाषा पर बल
(d) साहित्य-शिक्षण
Ans: (b)
Q144. अन्य विषयों की कक्षाएँ भी भाषा-अधिगम में सहायता करती हैं क्योंकि
(a) अन्य विषयों के शिक्षक विषय के साथ-साथ भाषा भी सिखाते हैं।
(b) सभी शिक्षक एक से अधिक भाषा जानते ह।ैं
(c) अन्य विषयों की पाठ्य-पुस्तकें भाषा-शिक्षण के उद्देश्यों को ध्यान में रखती ह।ैं
(d) अन्य विषयों को पढ़ने पर वैविध्यपूर्ण भाषा-प्रयोग के अनेक अवसर उपलब्ध होते हैं।
Ans: (d)
Q145. ‘मौन पठन’ में मुख्यत:
(a) तेज गति से पाठ को पढ़ा जाता है
(b) शब्द-भंडार विकसित किया जाता है
(c) मन ही मन बुदबुदाते हुए पढ़ा जाता है
(d) गहन अर्थ को आत्मसात् करने का प्रयास किया जाता है
Ans: (d)
Q146. आप सस्वर पठन में अनिवार्यत: किस साहित्यिक विधा का समर्थन करेंगे?
(a) आत्मकथा का
(b) एकांकी का
(c) यात्रावृत्तांत का
(d) जीवनी का
Ans: (b)
Q147. एकांकी पढ़ाने का सबसे अच्छा तरीका है
(a) शिक्षक स्वयं पढ़ें और बच्चे सुनें
(b) बच्चों से अलग-अलग पात्रों के संवाद पढ़वाए जाएँ और फिर एकांकी का मंचन हो
(c) एकांकी को बच्चे घर से पढ़कर आएँ और कक्षा में शिक्षक सवाल पूछें
(d) शिक्षक स्वयं पढ़ते हुए सवाल पूछते जाएँ
Ans: (b)
Q148. समावेशी-शिक्षा के संदर्भ में भाषा-शिक्षण के लिए अनिवार्य है
(a) भाषा-कौशलों का उपयुक्त अभ्यास
(b) विभिन्न प्रकार की गतिविधियों का उपयोग
(c) व्याकरणिक संकल्पनाओं का अधिकाधिक अभ्यास
(d) एकांकी-शिक्षण में सभी की
Ans: (b)
Q149. ‘बहु-सांस्कृतिक’ पृष्ठभूमि वाली भारतीय कक्षाओं में भाषा-शिक्षण के लिए अत्यावश्यक है
(a) लक्ष्यभाषा के विभिन्न भाषाओं के तत्त्वों का अधिकाधिक अभ्यास
(b) परस्पर बातचीत के लिए अनेक अवसरों का निर्माण
(c) विद्या£थयों को ‘श्रवण व लेखन’ कौशलों के अधिकाधिक अवसर देना
(d) विद्या£थयों को ‘भाषण व लेखन’ के अधिकाधिक अवसर देना
Ans: (d)
Q150. हिन्दी भाषा में सतत् और व्यापक मूल्यांकन करते समय आप किस बात पर विशेष ध्यान देंग?े
(a) विभिन्न संदर्भों में भाषा-प्रयोग की कुशलता
(b) शुद्ध वर्तनी
(c) परियोजना-कार्य
(d) शुद्ध उच्चारण June 2011 165
Ans: (a)

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