NET Political Science Previous Year Paper-III (July-2016)

1. Who among the following said that political theory stands for an abstract model of the political order?
(a) T.P. Jenkin
(b) R.A. Dahl
(c) W.T. Bluhm
(d) Weinstein
Ans: (c)


2. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Classical political theory is qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Behavioural theory is not specially concerned with Anglo-American model.
Ans: (d)


3. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Neo-liberalism refers to significant revival of interest in classical liberalism.
(b) Neo-liberal ideas were taken up by the political parties of the New Right in Britain.
(c) The revival of classical liberalism occurred as a reaction against the onset of a world recession in the 1970s.
(d) T.H. Green accepted the classical liberal notion of liberty only.
Ans: (d)


4. Who among the following dismissed John Rawl’s concept of social justice as a ‘mirage’?
(a) Macpherson
(b) Friedrich Hayek
(c) Isaiah Berlin
(d) Robert Nozick
Ans: (b)


5. Who among the following said that ideology should neither be thought of as liberating or oppressive, nor as true or false. It can be any these things?
(a) Andrew Heywood
(b) John Rawls
(c) Andrew Gamble
(d) Bill Coxall
Ans: (a)


6. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Year)
(A) 1917
(B) 1918
(C) 1921
(D) 1934 List–II (Event)
(i) Mao started his historic ‘Long March’ (ii) Mao participated in the first Congress of the CCP (iii) Mao became a Library Assistant in Peking University (iv) Mao met Liu Shao-Chi
Codes: A B C D
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: (b)


7. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Philosopher)
(A) Machiavelli
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau List–II (Idea)
(i) Revolt against Reason (ii) Moral Indifference (iii) Instinct of self-preservation (iv) Natural Right to Property
Codes: A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: (a)


8. Who among the following said: “Most religious men I have met are politicians in disguise. I, however, who wear the guise of a politician in disguise, am at heart a religious man”?
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) C.R. Das
(c) M.K. Gandhi
(d) M.A. Jinnah
Ans: (c)


9. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Platonic theory of ideas is based upon the theory of knowledge. Reason (R): For him, knowledge is perception.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (c)


10. Who among the following said: “Aristotle’s new general science of politics was not only empirical and descriptive, but even in some respects independent of any ethical purpose, since a statesman might need to be expert in governing even a bad state.”?
(a) E. Barker
(b) G.H. Sabine
(c) E.B. England
(d) G.C. Field
Ans: (b)


11. For Locke, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) The state must be a constitutional state.
(B) Government must posses discretionary power.
(C) It is a tolerant state.
(D) The right to property is not a natural right. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (B) only
(d) (D) only
Ans: (d)


12. For Rousseau, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Two original instincts i.e. selflove and sympathy make up man’s nature.
(B) A thinking man is a depraved animal.
(C) Family is the only natural society.
(D) General will is not a group mind. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C) only
(d) (D) only
Ans: (d)


13. For J.S. Mill, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Pleasures differ in quality as well as in quantity.
(B) Mill makes use of the nonutilitarian arguments.
(C) The felicific calculus is absurd.
(D) Pleasures can be objectively measured. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (B) and (C)
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (D) only
Ans: (d)


14. Arrange the following works of Amartya Sen in chronological order of his publications.
(A) Idea of Justice
(B) Inequality Re-examined
(C) Development as Freedom
(D) Choice, Welfare and Measurement Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (C), (D), (A), (B)
(d) (B), (A), (D), (C)
Ans: (a)


15. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
There was great deal of similarity between the ideas of Mazzini and those of Aurobindo. Reason (R): Both believed that faith in God was the basis of morality, that politics could not be separated from morality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


16. Identify the correct sequence in which general systems theory has been adopted in social sciences?
i. Psychology ii. Sociology iii. Anthropology iv. Political Science Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), and (iv)
Ans: (b)


17. The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in terms of erosion of confidence in public institutions resulting in coercive apparatus of states, was developed by:
(a) David Apter
(b) S.P. Huntington
(c) Edward Shills
(d) Habermas
Ans: (d)


18. Which of the following is not true of a Constitution?
(a) It safeguards the political institutions.
(b) It is the source of all authority of the organs of the government.
(c) It promotes transnational security.
(d) It incorporates fundamental laws.
Ans: (c)


19. Who among the following are European thinkers associated with the theory of political elites?
(A) Pareto (B) Mosca
(C) Schumpeter (D) Lasswell Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (A), (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Ans: (a)


20. Who among the following do not make any distinction between interest groups and pressure groups?
(A) Jean Blondel
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) Robert C. Bone
(D) James Coleman Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (D) only
Ans: (d)


21. Identify the basic contentions of Dependency theory. Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
(A) Development of colonies is viewed as Whiteman’s burden.
(B) Third world nations provide natural resources and cheap labour.
(C) Industrialization and market economy are conducive for development.
(D) Advanced western nations perpetuate a state of dependency by various means.
Codes:
(a) (B) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (C) (d) (A) and (D)
Ans: (b)


22. Which of the following is/are the common feature(s) between the Indian political system and the US political system?
(A) Residuary powers belong to the centre.
(B) Residuary powers are with the states.
(C) Presidents have the power of pocket veto.
(D) Upper houses have some nominated members. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D)
(d) (C) only
Ans: (d)


23. Which one of the following types of bureaucracy exhibits a bias towards party interests?
(a) Guardian bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Merit bureaucracy
Ans: (c)


24. In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required to:
(a) Indicate one preference more than the seats to be filled up.
(b) Indicate one preference less than the total seats to be filled up.
(c) Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected.
(d) Indicate only a single preference.
Ans: (c)


25. Which of the following are true of presidential system of government?
(A) President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(B) It is based on separation of powers.
(C) President’s term of office is fixed
(D) Secretaries are responsible to the president as well as to the Senate. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D)
Ans: (a)


26. Which of the following Houses has had the longest speeches by the members?
(a) House of Lords
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) US Senate
(d) Swiss Council of States
Ans: (c)


27. Which of the following statements are correct about the Vice- Presidents of India and America?
(A) Both the Vice-Presidents are elected for a fixed term.
(B) They are the presiding officers of the upper house.
(C) They appoint the committees of the house.
(D) They have a casting vote in case of a tie. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (A), (B) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B) and (C)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Ans: (a)


28. Which one of the following characteristics is not true of Anomic interest groups?
(a) They are spontaneous groups that are formed suddenly.
(b) They are formed on the basis of prior organisation and planning.
(c) Eruption of violent behaviour at times to ventilate the discontentment.
(d) They are short lived and transitory as they cease to operate once the purpose is achieved.
Ans: (b)


29. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
In the advanced liberal democracies of the western nations, military is subordinate to the civilian authority. Reason (R): Military plays a key role in countries where democracy has not been institutionalized.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Ans: (b)


30. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Writer)
(A) Robert Mitchels
(B) James Burnham
(C) C.Wright Mills
(D) Harold Lasswell List–II (Concept/Model)
(i) Communication Model (ii) Power Elites (iii) Managerial Revolution (iv) Iron Law of oligarchy
Codes: A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Ans: (c)


31. Which of the following statement/s about the Right to negative vote is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
I. The Election Commission of India wanted that ‘None of the above’ button on Electronic voting machine should be offered to voters. II. The public interest litigation, in the Supreme Court for NOTA option was filed by the Association for Democratic Reforms. III. Elections in a constituency will be held again if NOTA gets the highest votes. IV. The candidate with highest number of votes will be declared elected even if she/he receives less than the NOTA votes.
Codes:
(a) Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only II and III are correct.
(c) Only III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I and IV are correct.
Ans: (d)


32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Federalism is not dead in India. Reason (R): New regions are constantly demanding statehood.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Ans: (b)


33. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Laxmi Kant Pandey v/s Union of India: Inter-country adoption of Indian babies.
(b) S.P. Gupta v/s President of India and others: enabling citizens to file public interest litigation for social cause.
(c) Mohini Jain v/s State of Karnataka: enjoyment of pollution-free water and air.
(d) Olga Tellis vs/ Bombay Municipal Corporation: right to livelihood.
Ans: (c)


34. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Presidents of India)
(A) Varahgiri Venkatgiri
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) R. Venkatraman
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy List–II (Tenure)
(i) July 1987 – July 1992 (ii) July 1977 – July 1982 (iii) August 1969 – August 1974 (iv) May 1967 – May 1969
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Ans: (b)


35. Which one of the following is the correct break-up of the composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies? Total Constituencies General Constituencies Scheduled Caste Constituencies Scheduled Tribe Constituencies
(a) 545 423 80 42
(b) 543 423 79 41
(c) 543 425 78 40
(d) 545 427 79 39
Ans: (b)


36. According to the Supreme Court of India, the foundation of ‘composite culture’, as mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51 A, is:
(a) the diverse culture of India
(b) the Sanskrit language and literature
(c) the secular fabric of India
(d) the values evolved during the freedom movement
Ans: (b)


37. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are granted only to citizens of India? Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
I. Cultural and educational rights. II. Equality before the law. III. Right against exploitation. IV. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Codes:
(a) I and II only
(b) II and IV only
(c) III and IV only
(d) I and IV only
Ans: (d)


38. Which of the following statement/s about the Government of India Act, 1935 is/are not true? Select the correct answer from the
code given below:
I. In six of the provinces, the legislature was bi-cameral. II. The Governor-General had the power to make permanent acts but not ordinances. III. The residuary powers of legislation were vested in the Central Legislature. IV. Education as a subject was with Central Legislature.
V. Separate representation was provided only to the Muslim community.
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and V
(b) II, IV and V
(c) II, III, IV and V
(d) I, III, IV and V
Ans: (c)


39. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Farmer’s Organization)
(A) Shetkari Sangathana
(B) Bhartiya Kisan Sangh
(C) Samata Sangathan
(D) Kisan Mazdoor Sangathan List–II (State)
(i) Gujarat (ii) Maharashtra (iii) Rajasthan (iv) Orissa
(v) West Bengal
Codes: A B C D
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iv) (v)
Ans: (d)


40. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
I. Subject to legislation by Parliament, the power to declare any area as a ‘Scheduled area’ is given to the President. II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of ‘Scheduled Areas’ in Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura. III. The Government of the states having ‘Scheduled Areas’ have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such ‘Areas’. IV. The executive power of the Union shall extend to giving directions to the respective states regarding administration of the ‘Scheduled Areas’. Which of the above statements are correct?
Codes:
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only I and IV
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III
Ans: (b)


41. Which one of the following is correctly matched about the outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha elections?
(a) National Democratic Alliance: 336 seats and 35 percent vote share.
(b) United Progressive Alliance: 54 seats and 23 percent vote share.
(c) Left Front: 10 seats and 4.8 percent vote share.
(d) Congress: 44 seats and 17 percent vote share.
Ans: (b)


42. Match List–I with List–II and give the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Author)
(A) R.M. Jenkins
(B) Myron Weiner(ed)
(C) Christophe Jafferlot
(D) Paul R. Brass List–II (Book)
(i) State Politics in India (ii) Language Religion and Politics in North India (iii) Regional Reflections Comparing Politics Across India’s States (iv) India’s Silent Revolution: The rise of the Low Castes in North Indian Politics
Codes: A B C D
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Ans: (a)


43. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Rajni Kothari – Congress system
(b) Yogendra Yadav – Third Electoral System
(c) Paul Brass – Disintegration of Congress organisation
(d) James Manor – Post-Congress polity
Ans: (d)


44. Who among the following wrote, “In the context of society today, the caste system and much that goes with it are wholly incompatible, reactionary, restrictive, and barriers to progress.”?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) M.K. Gandhi
(d) R.M. Lohia
Ans: (b)


45. Consider the following statements about lower courts and identify the false statements from the
codes given below:
(A) The Panchayat Courts have only civil jurisdiction.
(B) The Munsiff Courts are lower in hierarchy to the court of Subordinate Judges.
(C) The Sessions cases are the more serious civil cases in the Court of the District Judge.
Codes:
(a) (A) only
(b) (A) and (B)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (C)
Ans: (c)


46. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Books)
(A) The Art of Judgment: A Study of Policy Making
(B) Understanding Public Policy
(C) The New Science of Management Decision
(D) Personality and Organization List–II (Authors)
(i) Thomas R. Dye (ii) Herbert Simon (iii) Sir Geoffrey Vickers (iv) Chris Argyris
Codes: A B C D
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Ans: (b)


47. At present, Public Account Committee consists of 22 members:
(a) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
(b) 14 from Lok Sabha and 8 from Rajya Sabha.
(c) 12 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
(d) 11 from Lok Sabha and 11 from Rajya Sabha.
Ans: (a)


48. A horizontal grouping of specialized activities is attained in an organization that is:
(a) Centralized
(b) Integrated
(c) Decentralized
(d) Disintegrated
Ans: (c)


49. Which of the following statements about the Right to Information Act 2005 is/are correct?
(A) The Act came into force in October 2005.
(B) It repealed the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
(C) It has not repealed the Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
(D) It is available to Indian citizens only. Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (D)
Ans: (d)


50. Which one of the following is not included as a cause for disciplinary action against public servants by L.D. White?
(a) Inefficiency
(b) Long absence from duty
(c) Immorality
(d) Intoxication
Ans: (b)


51. The names associated with behavioural theory of organization are:
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) J.L. Moreno
(C) Thomas Carlyle
(D) A.H. Maslow Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
Ans: (d)


52. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Decision making is a process of selection and the aim is to select the best alternative. Reason (R): Decision making involves rationality.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


53. Riggsian Agraria model is characterized by which of the following?
(A) Clan-based organization
(B) Communalistic value
(C) Impersonal human actions
(D) Divine authority source Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C)
(b) (B), (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (B) and (D)
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Ans: (c)


54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
“The issue of decentralisation is more complex in concept and practice than is generally acknowledged”. Reason (R): ‘The dual role approach to decentralisation is a kind of rehearsal of the area function dichotomy in a new setting.’
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (b)


55. Which one of the following was not supported by Taylor in his Scientific Management theory?
(a) Efficiency evaluation experts
(b) Concept of ‘Economic Man’
(c) Functional foremanship
(d) Standardization of tools
Ans: (a)


56. Chester Barnard developed a concept in respect of acceptance of authority by a subordinate from his manager. Identify it.
(a) Motivation matrix
(b) Decision making authority
(c) Zone of indifference
(d) Zone of coercive authority
Ans: (c)


57. Summarising the defects of bureaucracy, W.A. Robson did not include:
(a) Excessive sense of self-importance.
(b) G e n e r a l i s t d o m i n a t e d administrative system.
(c) Indifference towards the feelings of individual citizens.
(d) A failure to recognize the relations between the governors and the governed.
Ans: (b)


58. Max Weber and Fred W. Riggs have a commonality between them in the context of:
(a) They constructed ideal type models.
(b) They studied administrative systems in their environmental settings.
(c) They concentrated on the problems of change.
(d) They used deductive approach.
Ans: (b)


59. Upward communication is basically unconventional, but can be improved by:
(A) Management to give evidence that it is really interested in the opinions of employees.
(B) Superior should state his own position before he listens to subordinates.
(C) Chief should act upon the ideas and problems reported to him.
(D) Superior should ask his subordinates for reactions to his own ideas. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (D)
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)
Ans: (b)


60. How many ways to embezzlement of government money have been mentioned by Kautilya in his Arthasastra?
(a) 75 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 30
Ans: (b)


61. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Secretary General of UN)
(A) Kofi Annan
(B) Boutros-Boutros Ghali
(C) Javier Perez de Cuellar
(D) Kurt Waldheim List–II (Tenure)
(i) January 1972 to December 1981 (ii) January 1982 to December 1991 (iii) January 1997 to December 2006 (iv) January 1992 to December 1996
Codes: A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: (a)


62. Which of the following rights is not included in the second generation human rights?
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to health
(c) Right to be free from torture and slavery
(d) Right to housing
Ans: (c)


63. Which one of the following peace keeping operations of the United Nations is not an example of first generation peacekeeping operations?
(a) UN Transitional Authority in Cambodia
(b) UN Truce S u p e r v i s i o n Organization
(c) UN Emergency Force
(d) UN Disengagement Observer Force
Ans: (a)


64. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Writer)
(A) Immanual Wallerstein
(B) Von Newmann
(C) Morgenthau
(D) Francis Fukuyama List–II (Idea)
(i) Game theory (ii) End of history (iii) Realism (iv) Dependency theory
Codes: A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Ans: (c)


65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Non-alignment policy was more relevant during cold war period. Reason (R): Non-aligned countries are divided on ethnic and religious differences.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (b)


66. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
American foreign policy supported the democratic regimes. Reason (R): At times the military systems were also supported by America.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (b)


67. Which of the following statements is/are not true of dependency theory?
(A) Unequal relation between core and periphery.
(B) Developmental process in the third world nations reinforces underdevelopment.
(C) Industrialization leads to new forms of democratization and equity in global order.
(D) Strengthening of neo-colonialism. Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (C) only
Ans: (d)


68. “Uniting for Peace Resolution” is also called as:
(a) Truman plan
(b) American plan
(c) Acheson plan
(d) Eisenhower plan
Ans: (c)


69. ‘Balance of Power’ is an important principle of:
(a) Liberal thought in international politics.
(b) Marxist thought in international politics.
(c) Traditional thought in international politics.
(d) Realist thought in international politics.
Ans: (d)


70. According to Iris L Calude Jr. which of the following is not a device for the management of power?
(a) Arms control
(b) Collective security
(c) Balance of power
(d) World Government
Ans: (a)


71. How many Asian countries are members of G–20?
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
Ans: (c)


72. The modern state system with its territorial sovereignty came into existence first in Europe in the wake of the
(a) Treaty of Versailles
(b) Congress of Vienna
(c) Treaty of Westphalia
(d) Congress of Berlin
Ans: (c)


73. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Economic and Social Council of U.N.? Choose your answer from the
codes given below:
(i) The Council has 54 members. (ii) The Council generally hold several short sessions and many preparatory meetings, and panel discussions with the members of civil society throughout the year. (iii) It also holds a three-week substantive session in July. (iv) Voting in the Council is by simple majority, each member has one vote.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Ans: (c)


74. According to Karen. A. Mingrt, which of the following conditions is not essential to make first generation peacekeeping operations most effective?
(a) A clear and practical mandate or purpose for the operation.
(b) U.S. forces must also be present in the peace-keeping operations.
(c) Consent of the parties involved as to the mandate and composition of the force.
(d) Strong financial and logistical support of the members of the UN Security Council.
Ans: (b)


75. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I (Term)
(A) Preventive diplomacy
(B) Peace making
(C) Peace keeping
(D) Post-conflict peace building List–II (Contents)
(i) It is like classical peace-keeping. It refers to the deployment of a UN force in the field with the consent of all parties. (ii) It involves developing social, political and economic infrastructure to prevent further violence and consolidate peace. (iii) It involves confidence-building measures, fact finding and preventive deployment of UN authorised forces. (iv) It is designed to bring hostile parties to agreement essentially through peaceful means.
Codes: A B C D
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Ans: (a)


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