NET Political Science Previous Year Paper-III (January-2017)

1. Who of the following said, “An important function of Political theory is not only to show what a political practice is but also to show what it means. In showing what a practice means, or what it ought to mean, Political theory can alter what it is”?
(a) G.H. Sabine
(b) Leo Strauss
(c) Michael Oakeshott
(d) Isaiah Berlin
Ans: (a)


2. Who among the following disputed the view that human behaviour could be adequately described without reference to the intentions, motives and reasons of the actors involved?
(a) Peter Winch (b) C. Hull
(c) D. Hume (d) R.A. Dahl
Ans: (a)


3. Match the List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Authors) (Concepts)
A. John Rawls i. Equality of What?
B. John C. ii. Primary Goods Harsanyi Reconsidered
C. Richard J. iii. Justice as Arneson Fairness
D. Alex iv. The Maximin Callinicos Principle
Codes: A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iii ii i iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) iv iii i ii
Ans: (c)


4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Lenin produced a new theory of the revolutionary function of the intellectuals. Reason (R): The ideas and not the material conditions of production are the effective causes of revolution.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


5. Who among the following declared: “For me morals, ethics, and religion are convertible terms. A moral life without reference to religion is like a house built upon sand”?
(a) Aurobindo
(b) Savarkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayaprakash
Ans: (c)


6. Match the List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below. List–I List–II (Plato’s (Main Themes) Dialogues)
A. Symposium i. The sphere of Physics
B. Philebus ii. The sphere of Politics
C. Timaeus iii. Application of the theory of ideas to the sphere of ethics
D. Republic iv. The metaphysics of love
Codes: A B C D
(a) iv iii i ii
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) ii i iv iii
Ans: (a)


7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
No genuine understanding of Aristotle can endorse the opinion that his philosophical system was the opposite of Plato. Reason (R): Aristotle’s system is an attempt to Philosophize on idealism free from the defects of Plato’s system.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Machiavellism stands for double standard of morals, one for the ruler and another for the private citizen. Reason (R): The ruler, as the creator of the state, is not only outside the Law, and outside morality as well.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


9. Whose ideas of the following were incorporated in the Philosophical radicalism of utilitarianism?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau
Ans: (b)


10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Karl Marx is interpreted by some as an economic determinist but by others as a humane socialist. Reason (R): The problem stems from the wide range and complex nature of his own writings.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


11. Who among the following defined Civil power as “the right of making laws with penalties… for the regulating and preserving of property, and of employing the force of the community, in the execution of such laws…. All this only for the public good.”?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Thomas Hobbes
(c) John Locke
(d) Rousseau
Ans: (c)


12. Who among the following said, ‘Ideology is the most elusive concept in the whole of Social Science’?
(a) Martin Seliger
(b) David McLellan
(c) J.B. Thompson
(d) John Plamenatz
Ans: (b)


13. Arrange the following works of Sri Aurobindo in chronological order: Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
A. Love and Death
B. The Life Divine
C. Essays on Gita
D. Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol
Codes:
(a) A, B, D and C
(b) A, B, C and D
(c) B, D, A and C
(d) D, A, B and C
Ans: (*)


14. Which one of the following statements is not true in case of Liberalism?
(a) Liberal thought focuses upon needs and interests of the ‘individual,’ rather than those of any group or ‘collective’.
(b) The liberals desire to create a society in which each individual is capable of developing and flourishing to the fullness of his or her potential.
(c) Liberals do not believe in universalism that individuals are all of equal moral worth.
(d) Individual liberty is for liberals the Supreme Political Value.
Ans: (c)


15. Who among the following argued that ‘the only purpose for which power can be right fully exercised over any member of a civilized community against his will, is to prevent harm to others’?
(a) James Mill
(b) Jeremy Bentham
(c) J.S. Mill
(d) J.B. Priestley
Ans: (c)


16. In the year 1960, application of structural functionalism by Almond and Powell was an application of
(a) Easton’s Framework of Political System
(b) Dahl’s Polyarely
(c) Lucian Pye’s Modernization Theory
(d) Rostow’s Theory of Stapes of Growth
Ans: (a)


17. Economics is value free, but political economy originates in the context of the ideological debate of the eighteenth century is a comment made by
(a) Marx
(b) Keynes
(c) Schumpeter
(d) Amartya Sen
Ans: (c)


18. Which of the following is not an integral part of liberal constitutionalism?
(a) Individual freedom
(b) Toleration and consent
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Minority rights
Ans: (c)


19. The Presidential system operates most successfully in the U.S.A. because of
(a) A strong two party system
(b) A well demarcated constitution
(c) Judicial review
(d) Minor contradictions in society
Ans: (d)


20. The House of Lords in Great Britain is mainly retained because
(a) It is as important as the House of Commons.
(b) It plays an important role of checks and balances.
(c) It acts as a judicial court.
(d) It is maintained as an institution.
Ans: (d)


21. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Huntington is correct in asserting that the combination of the role of the state and government of the U.S. President is a medieval practice. Reason (R): It is because in other liberal democracies, the two roles are not combined.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


22. The growth of judicial power over the last one hundred years in liberal democracies have taken place because
(a) The constitutions have given the judiciary more powers.
(b) Acceptance of the theory of separation of powers.
(c) The U.N. Directives.
(d) Protect Human Rights.
Ans: (d)


23. Environmental Green parties originated from
(a) Breakaway from main stream political parties
(b) Pressure of public opinion
(c) Emergence of a planetary consciousness
(d) New social movements
Ans: (d)


24. Duverger’s theory asserts that a two party system emerges in a
(a) representational parliamentary system.
(b) homogeneous political order.
(c) welfare state.
(d) a majoritarian parliamentary system.
Ans: (d)


25. The first use of the concept of political culture was made by
(a) Gabriel Almond
(b) G. Bingham Powell, Jr.
(c) Karl Deutseh
(d) Lucian Pye
Ans: (a)


26. Which one of the following orientations is not a part of the basic types of political culture?
(a) Cognitive orientations
(b) Affective orientations
(c) Evaluative orientations
(d) Individual orientations
Ans: (d)


27. The progressive comparativists in political development do not emphasize in one of the following:
(a) Under development
(b) Dependency
(c) Imperialism
(d) Modernization
Ans: (d)


28. The Theory of Modernization and decay is formulated by
(a) Rostow
(b) Pye
(c) Huntington
(d) Lipset
Ans: (c)


29. Which of the following is not an essential prerequisite for making elitism compatible with democracy in Schumpeter?
(a) The calibre of politicians must be high.
(b) Competition is to take place within a relatively restricted range.
(c) Presence of a well trained independent bureaucracy.
(d) A well organised party system.
Ans: (d)


30. Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive features of the notion of authority in
(a) Marx (b) Parsons
(c) Verba (d) Weber
Ans: (d)


31. Regarding the Interim Government of 1946, which of the following is not correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister/Head of the Executive Council.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice-President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
(c) The Viceroy continued to be the Head of the Executive Council.
(d) The members of the Interim Government were members of viceroy’s Executive Council.
Ans: (a)


32. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Certiorari?
(a) A High Court can issue a writ against itself in its administrative capacity.
(b) A bench of a High Court can issue a writ to another bench of the same High Court.
(c) A High Court cannot issue a writ to another High Court.
(d) A High Court can issue certiorari to a tribunal situated within its jurisdiction.
Ans: (b)


33. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India used the principle of “continuing mandamus”?
(a) S.P. Gupta Vs. Union of India
(b) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
(c) Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India
(d) Sagir Ahmad Vs. State of U.P.
Ans: (c)


34. Who was the first President of India to make use of ‘Pocket Veto’?
(a) Zakir Hussain
(b) Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) R. Venkatraman
(d) Gyani Zail Singh
Ans: (d)


35. Who said Indian federalism is “a new kind of federation to meet India’s peculiar needs”?
(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jenneigs
(c) Alexandrowicz
(d) Ronald Wats
Ans: (a)


36. Adi Ambedkar Samaj movement is related to which State?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b)


37. Who was the Chairman of the Group of Interlocutors for Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) T.S.R. Subramanian
(b) Dilip Padgaonkar
(c) Radha Kumar
(d) Dr. Karan Singh
Ans: (b)


38. Which of the following statements is true about the constitution of P.K. Thungan Committee?
(a) To consider the type of political and administrative structure needed in the District Planning.
(b) To consider the administrative arrangements for rural Development.
(c) To consider the need for decentralized planning.
(d) For drawing guidelines for Block level planning.
Ans: (a)


39. When did the Communist Party of India (Marxist) emerge as a separate political party?
(a) 1960 (b) 1964
(c) 1968 (d) 1973
Ans: (b)


40. Match the List–I with List–II and give the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Case) (Subject)
A. Rudal Vs. i. Right to Fly State of Bihar tricolour
B. A.D.M. ii. Right to Jabalpur Vs. know Shiv Kant antecedents Shukla of candidates for election
C. Union of iii. Award of India Vs. monetary Naveen Jindal compensation
D. Union of iv. Right to life India Vs. Association for Democratic Reforms
Codes: A B C D
(a) iii iv i ii
(b) ii iii iv i
(c) i ii iii iv
(d) iv i ii iii
Ans: (a)


41. Who described the critical and creative role of politics in India as “the Indian model of development”?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) Jagdish Bhagwati
(d) James Maner
Ans: (a)


42. Match List–I with List–II and identify the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Event) (Year)
A. Millennium i. 2010 Development Goals Report
B. National ii. 2006 Commission for Women
C. Ministry of iii. 1992 Women and Child Development
D. National iv. 2011 Mission for Empowerment of Women
Codes: A B C D
(a) i ii iv iii
(b) iv iii ii i
(c) i iv iii ii
(d) iii i ii iv
Ans: (b)


43. Who among the following made a significant contribution to theories of the Interaction between social dominance and state power in contemporary India?
(a) Francine R. Frankel & M.S.A. Rao
(b) Myron Weiner
(c) Lloyd and Susane Rudolph
(d) Partha Chatterjee
Ans: (a)


44. Which one of the following Committees opposed the state funding of elections in India?
(a) Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy
(b) Indrajit Gupta
(c) Tarkunde
(d) Dinesh Goswami
Ans: (a)


45. Which of the following newspaper is managed by a trust in India?
(a) Times of India
(b) Indian Express
(c) Hindu
(d) Tribune
Ans: (d)


46. Who among the following hold the view that administration comprises of the work of only those persons who are engaged in performing managerial functions in an organization?
A. Luther Gulick
B. Herbert Simon
C. Victor Thomson
D. Henry Fayol Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) B, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (d)


47. Which one of the following stages of evolution of public administration is called the era of politics administration dichotomy?
(a) First stage
(b) Second stage
(c) Third stage
(d) Fourth stage
Ans: (a)


48. Which of the following are the salient features of the New Public Management?
A. Empowerment of Citizens
B. Disaggregation of Public Bureaucracy
C. Cost-cutting
D. Organizational Centralization Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and C
(b) A, C and D
(c) A, B and C
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (c)


49. ‘Squealer’ in the Human Relations theory is
(a) one who does too much work.
(b) one who does too little work.
(c) one who absents himself from work.
(d) o n e who commu n i c a t e s detrimental information about others to the supervisor.
Ans: (d)


50. Match the List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II
A. Proverbs of i. Henry Fayol Administration
B. Principles of ii. Herbert Management Simon
C. Functions of iii. Morestein Executive Marx
D. Elements of iv. Chester Public Barnard Administration
Codes: A B C D
(a) ii i iv iii
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) ii iii iv i
(d) iii iv i ii
Ans: (a)


51. Who among the following has defined budget as “a series of goals with price tags attached”?
(a) Wildavsky
(b) Paul Appleby
(c) Chester Barnard
(d) John D. Millet
Ans: (a)


52. Who among the following is the creator of Zero-Based-Budgeting?
(a) Hoover Commission
(b) Peter A. Phyrr
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Gug Peters
Ans: (b)


53. What is the correct sequence of Morstein Marx’s classification of bureaucracy given below:
A. Merit B. Patronage
C. Caste D. Gurdian Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) D, C, B and A
(b) A, B, C and D
(c) A, D, C and B
(d) D, A, B and C
Ans: (a)


54. Who among the former Prime Ministers had observed that “only a committed bureaucracy could bring about social transformation…..”?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans: (c)


55. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to
(a) seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill.
(b) censure the Government.
(c) propose a reduction in the budget.
(d) draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance.
Ans: (d)


56. The First attempt to confer constitutional status on rural local government was made by
(a) the 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill
(b) the 68th Constitutional Amendment Bill
(c) the 72nd Constitutional Amendment Bill
(d) the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (a)


57. Match the List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II
A. Finance Com- i. Ashok Mehta mission Committee
B. Nagar ii. 73rd Constitu- Panchayats tional Amendment Act
C. Democratic iii. 74th Constitu- Decentralisation tional Amendment Act
D. Mandal iv. Balwantrai Panchayats Mehta Committee
Codes: A B C D
(a) ii iii iv i
(b) i ii iii iv
(c) iii iv ii i
(d) ii iii i iv
Ans: (a)


58. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
The Principle of Unity of Command cannot always be strictly followed in organizations. Reason (R): Employees are quite often subject to dual control administrative and technical.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


59. e-governance is
A. cost-efficient
B. transparent
C. time-saving
D. responsive Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
(a) A and C
(b) A, B and C
(c) A, C and D
(d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (d)


60. Which one of the following Commissions/Committees has recommended legal protection to whistle blowers?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(c) Vohra Committee
(d) Election Commission
Ans: (b)


61. Which one of the following arrangements was not visualized by Morton Kaplan?
(a) Balance of Power
(b) Tight bipolar system
(c) Loose bipolar system
(d) Unipolar system
Ans: (d)


62. Which one of the following is not the technique of the balance of power?
(a) Amassing of weapons
(b) Seizing of territory
(c) Methods of persuasion
(d) Creating of buffer states
Ans: (c)


63. In 1999 NATO acted against Serbia accusing of indulging in act of ‘ethnic cleansing’ in Kosovo. To this, other major powers such as Russia and China reacted as under:
(a) Russia criticised NATO acting without UN approval.
(b) China described NATO act as illegal.
(c) Both Russia and China criticised NATO acting without UN approval.
(d) Russia and China remained noncommittal on the issue.
Ans: (c)


64. Which one of the following was not the basis invoked by the US for attacking Iraq in March, 2003?
(a) Iraq possessed weapons of mass destruction.
(b) Saddam Hussain had links with Al Quaeda.
(c) Regime Change in Iraq.
(d) Iraq had not withdrawn from Kuwait completely.
Ans: (d)


65. ‘Common but differentiated’ responsibility principle on climate mitigation agenda emerged from
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Rio Earth Summit
(c) Rio + 20
(d) Paris Climate Conference
Ans: (a)


66. Which of the following Republic/ Republics was/were supported by Russia in Georgian war of 2008?
(a) South Ossettia
(b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia both
(c) Abkhazia
(d) Nogorno Karabakh
Ans: (b)


67. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea (UNCLOS) states are entitled for Jurisdiction over sea water as under:
(a) three miles from sea shore as territorial waters.
(b) twelve miles from the shore for shipping.
(c) two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
(d) all the three jurisdictions.
Ans: (d)


68. India’s good neighbourhood policy based on the principle of nonreciprocity is attributed to
(a) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(b) Inder Kumar Gujral
(c) A.B. Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Ans: (b)


69. Sir John Chilcot Commission has indicated
(a) U.K. for its conduct in US led NATO war in Afghanistan
(b) U.K. for its conduct in Iraq war in 2003
(c) US for its invasion in Iraq in 2003
(d) Russia for its attacks in Syria
Ans: (b)


70. The Washington consensus did not stand for
(a) Fiscal discipline
(b) Tax reforms
(c) Financial and Trade Liberalisation
(d) State Controlled Market System
Ans: (d)


71. Under Bush Doctrine, the USA held states responsible for activities inside their territories and thus acquired the right to
(a) act unilaterally against rogue and failed states.
(b) act against states which were opposed to it ideologically.
(c) move against states which refused to join in drive for NATO expansion.
(d) intervene in situations of ethnic cleansing.
Ans: (a)


72. Match the List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II
A. Uniting for i. 1999 Peace Resolution
B. The Suez Crisis ii. 2002
C. UN Security iii. 1956 Council Resolution on Iraq Weapons
D. UN Mission in iv. 1950 Kosovo
Codes: A B C D
(a) iii ii i iv
(b) ii i iii iv
(c) iv iii ii i
(d) i ii iv iii
Ans: (c)


73. Match the List–I with List–II and select correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II
A. Conventional i. 1996 Arms Cut Treaty
B. Strategic Arms ii. 1993 Reduction Treaty-I
C. Strategic Arms iii. 1990 Reduction Treaty-II
D. Comprehensive iv. 1991 Test Ban Treaty
Codes: A B C D
(a) iii iv ii i
(b) ii iii i iv
(c) iv ii iii i
(d) i iii iv ii
Ans: (a)


74. The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban regime in Afghanistan after
(a) 9/11 attacks in the US
(b) attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
(c) attack on US military mission headquarter in Riyadh
(d) failures of talks on gas pipeline through Afghanistan
Ans: (b)


75. Who among the following statesmen described USSR as an ‘evil empire’?
(a) John F. Kennedy
(b) Ronald Regan
(c) Richard Nixon
(d) Henry Kissinger
Ans: (b)


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