NET Political Science Previous Year Paper-II (January-2017)

1. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Kautilya emphasizes the need for a strong ruler. Reason (R): He was having acute awareness of the dangers of anarchy as well as the absolute necessity to establish order in society.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


2. Which one of the following is not a source of Plato’s theory of Ideas?
(a) Heracleitus-The notion of sphere of Becoming.
(b) Antisthenes-The notion of absolute asceticism and rigorous self-mortification.
(c) Socrates-The doctrine of concepts.
(d) Eleatics-The idea of a sphere of absolute being.
Ans: (b)


3. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Aristotle’s theory (Explanations) of causation)
A. The efficient i. The substance cause and essence of the thing.
B. The final ii. Matter of cause which it is composed.
C. The material iii. The purpose cause towards which the movement is directed.
D. The formal iv. The cause cause of motion.
Codes: A B C D
(a) i ii iii iv
(b) iv iii ii i
(c) iii iv i ii
(d) ii i iv iii
Ans: (b)


4. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
For Locke, Labour is the source and justification of property. Reason (R): Its function is to turn the earth into consumable goods.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (a)


5. Which one of the features of Rawls’ concept of ‘Veil of ignorance’ is not true?
(a) No one knows his place in society, his class position or social status.
(b) No one knows his fortune in the distribution of natural assets and abilities.
(c) The parties know their special psychological propensities.
(d) The parties do not (even) know their conception of the good.
Ans: (c)


6. Who among the following described the welfare state as a kind of enslavement?
(a) Karl Popper
(b) F.A. Hayek
(c) R. Nozick
(d) Milton Friedman
Ans: (c)


7. E.M.S. Namboodiripad’s book Mahatma and Ism is an analysis of Mahatma Gandhi from the point of view
(a) Syndicalism (b) Socialism
(c) Liberalism (d) Marxism
Ans: (d)


8. Which of the following statements is not true in case of M.N. Roy?
(a) He prepared a model constitution for free India.
(b) Sovereign power was to be vested in the people.
(c) People’s committees to be set up in villages, towns and cities.
(d) He did not concede the right of secession to its constituent units.
Ans: (d)


9. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Traditional political theory is qualitative.
(b) Behavioural political theory is quantitative.
(c) Post-behavioural political theory is both qualitative and quantitative.
(d) Post-behavioural political theory is ethnocentric; focuses especially on western democracies.
Ans: (d)


10. Who among the f o llowing emphasized on ‘procedural theory of democracy’ highlighting three criteria?
(a) S.M. Lipset
(b) R.A. Dahl
(c) Joseph Schumpeter
(d) Sheldon Wolin
Ans: (b)


11. Which one of the following is not a formulation of Max Weber?
(a) Rationality, functional differentiation and specialization resulting in order, harmony and efficiency.
(b) Dominant authority based on beliefs and symbols in relation to ideal types.
(c) Dominant authority is hierarchical and related to state and ruling class.
(d) Rationalization and ideal typology method.
Ans: (c)


12. Who said that federalism requires a people “Who desire union and must not desire unity”?
(a) James Bryce
(b) A.V. Diecy
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) H. Finer
Ans: (b)


13. The assertion that there is no direct connection between the shape of a political culture and the stability of governance is made by
(a) Lijphart (b) Wolin
(c) Kavanagh (d) Blondel
Ans: (a)


14. The ability of the U.S. President to get their way depends on four crucial relationships
(A) Congress,
(B) The federal bureaucracy,
(C) The Supreme Court and
(D) The mass media. Which of the above is undoubtedly the most critical?
(a) The Congress
(b) The Federal bureaucracy
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The mass media
Ans: (a)


15. C. Wright Mills’ The Power Elite (1956) offered a general analysis of elites in
(a) Entire capitalistic world.
(b) Developed capitalistic world of North America and Western Europe.
(c) Developed capitalistic nations of North America, Western Europe and Japan.
(d) Developed capitalism of the U.S.A.
Ans: (d)


16. Power is like money is formulated by
(a) C. Wright Mills
(b) Paul Sweezy
(c) Talcott Parsons
(d) Ralph Miliband
Ans: (c)


17. Catch all party describes the post second world war party system in
(a) Western Europe
(b) Eastern Europe
(c) The U.S. Party system
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)


18. Who believed that the success of a revolution occurs when it is limited to the political and not extending to the social?
(a) Crane Brinton
(b) V.I. Lenin
(c) Hannah Arendt
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (c)


19. The Capitalist world economy is made up of “Commodity Chains” of producers and consumers, sellers and buyers linking countries in the core of the world economy”, is the basis of
(a) Globalization and modernization theory
(b) Lenin’s theory of imperialism
(c) Friedman’s World is flat theory
(d) World system theory
Ans: (d)


20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Consociational democracy is an incomplete theory of democracy. Reason (R): As it blocks the way of a genuine alternative In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (b)


21. Who said, “The Constituent Assembly was a one party body in an essentially one party country. The Assembly was the congress and the congress was India”?
(a) Morris Jones
(b) Paul R. Brass
(c) Granville Austin
(d) Richard Sisson
Ans: (c)


22. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Books) (Authors)
A. The Child and i. Atul Kohli the State in India
B. The Hindu ii. Pranab Nationalist Bardhan Movement and Indian Politics
C. The Political iii. Christopher Economy of Jafrelot Development in India
D. Poverty Amid iv. Myron Plenty in the Weiner New India
Codes: A B C D
(a) iii iv i ii
(b) iv iii ii i
(c) ii i iii iv
(d) i ii iv iii
Ans: (b)


23. Which of the following have been identified as the ground for judicial review in the exercise of power of pardon by the President of India or Governor of a state?
A. that the order has been passed without application of mind.
B. that the order is malafide.
C. that the order is based on extraneous or wholly irrelevant considerations.
D. that the order suffers from arbitrariness. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (d)


24. Match List–I with List–II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: List–I List–II (Panchayati Raj (Year) Committee)
A. C.H. Hanumantha Rao i. 1978
B. G.V.K. Rao ii. 1984
C. Ashok Mehta iii. 1986
D. L.M. Singhvi iv. 1985
Codes: A B C D
(a) iv ii i iii
(b) ii iv i iii
(c) i iii ii iv
(d) iii i iv ii
Ans: (b)


25. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable. Reason (R): They are supposed to inculcate a sense of patriotic and sensible citizenship
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (b)


26. Which of the following are the privileges of the Legislature in India?
A. Right to publish debates and proceedings and the right to restrain others from publishing.
B. The privilege of excluding strangers from the house.
C. The right to regulate its internal matters.
D. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of privilege. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, C and D (b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (d)


27. Arrange the following peasant movements in India in chronological order and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
i. Singur ii. Bardoli iii. Tebhaga iv. Champaran
Codes:
(a) iv, iii, i, ii (b) iv, ii, iii, i
(c) ii, iii, iv, i (d) i, ii, iii, iv
Ans: (b)


28. Identify the correct chronological order of the developments of events related to federalism in India.
(a) Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Rajamannar Committee, Punchhi Commission, West Bengal Memorandum.
(b) West Bengal Memorandum, Rajamannar Committee, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Commission
(c) Rajamannar Committee, West Bengal Memorandum, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Commission
(d) Rajamannar Committee, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, West Bengal Memorandum, Punchhi Commission
Ans: (d)


29. Who described Indian capitalism as “Dharmashala Capitalism”?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) J. Bhagwati
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Raj Krishna
Ans: (d)


30. Which of the following is not associated with electoral reforms in India?
(a) Tarkunde Committee
(b) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(c) N.N. Vohra Committee
(d) Indrajit Gupta Committee
Ans: (c)


31. Arrange the following approaches to the study of Public Administration in a sequential order:
A. Behavioural approach
B. Systems approach
C. Institutional approach
D. Public Policy approach Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) a, b, c, d (b) c, b, a, d
(c) a, c, d, b (d) c, a, b, d
Ans: (d)


32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A):
Civil servants in India do not have any political rights. Reason (R): Neutrality is the hallmark of the civil services in India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Ans: (d)


33. Which of the following have been identified by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission as barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?
A. Inflexible self-perpetuating and inward looking attitude of civil servants.
B. Lack of accountability of civil servants.
C. Absence of well educated political leadership.
D. Low levels of awareness of the rights and duties of citizens. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A, B and C (b) A, B and D
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (b)


34. Which of the following is the nodal agency for budget implementation in India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans: (c)


35. In India, the term deficit financing was first defined by
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) A.D. Gorwala Report
Ans: (a)


36. Which of the following types of bureaucracy regards itself as the custodian of public interest but is independent of and unresponsive to public opinion?
(a) Merit bureaucracy
(b) Caste bureaucracy
(c) Patronage bureaucracy
(d) Guardian bureaucracy
Ans: (d)


37. Which of the following are the common features between the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act and the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act?
A. Periodical elections.
B. Empowerment of socially and economically weak groups.
C. Constitution of State Election Commission.
D. Constitution of Ward Committees. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and C (b) A, B and C
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (b)


38. Which of the following are statutory bodies?
A. University Grants Commission
B. Official Language Commission
C. Railway Board
D. Atomic Energy Commission Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and B (b) A, C and D
(c) A, B and D (d) B and D
Ans: (b)


39. Which one of the following ministries is an example of ministry formed on the basis of clientele principle?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Ministry of Law
Ans: (c)


40. Who among the following are of the view that the managerial techniques and skills of Planning, Organizing, Coordinating and Budgeting are same in both Public and Private Administration?
A. Henry Fayol
B. M.P. Follet
C. Luther Gulick
D. L. Urwick Select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
Codes:
(a) A and C (b) B and D
(c) A, B and C (d) A, B, C and D
Ans: (d)


41. Who of the following belongs to British School of Realism?
(a) Reinhold Niebuhr
(b) N.J. Spykman
(c) Quincy Wright
(d) Hedley Bull
Ans: (d)


42. The notion of ‘Balance of Terror’ is related to
(a) Global Terrorism
(b) Counter Terrorist strategies
(c) Terrorist activities of drug traffickers
(d) Over-kill capacity emanating from nuclear weapons.
Ans: (d)


43. Which one of the following is not a major assumption of balance of power?
(a) States are determined to protect vital national interests.
(b) Vital national interests may be threatened.
(c) Relative power positions of the states can be measured.
(d) States apply moral parameters for assessing others’ behaviour.
Ans: (d)


44. Which country/countries refused to accept legally binding emission cuts following Kyoto Protocol?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) India and China both
(d) Sweden
Ans: (c)


45. Which leader of the USSR introduced the policy of ‘peacefulcoexistence’?
(a) Mikhail Gorbachev
(b) N. Khrushchev
(c) L. Brezhnev
(d) Joseph Stalin
Ans: (b)


46. At the end of cold war Francis Fukuyama constructed the thesis of ‘end of history’ which meant:
(a) The world would no longer be unfolding events.
(b) The tension and conflict would cease to exist at global level.
(c) Ideological struggles had come to an end.
(d) Ideological struggles would be waged with new vigour.
Ans: (c)


47. NATO’s partnership for peace programme was aimed at
(a) Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc states into the organisation.
(b) Tackling problem of Serbs in Bosnia.
(c) Implementing military action against Yugoslavia.
(d) Taking action against Al Asad Regime in Syria.
Ans: (a)


48. Which of the events mentioned below is taken as signaling the end of Cold War?
(a) Soviet Union’s collapse in 1991
(b) Breaching of Berlin Wall in 1989
(c) Declaration of independence by Republic of Kazakhstan in 1991
(d) Large scale revolt for freedom in Baltic States in 1989
Ans: (b)


49. The renaming of European Community (EC) to European Union resulted from the signing of
(a) Maastricht Treaty
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) The Lisbon Treaty
(d) Treaty of Nice
Ans: (a)


50. Which of the following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?
(a) WHO (b) IMF
(c) FAO (d) OPEC
Ans: (d)


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