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Chapter 92. Practice Questions on Indian Polity (General Studies—Prelims) (Indian Polity & Constitution Summary Laxmikanth)

Practice Questions on Indian Polity (General Studies—Prelims)

1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the suability of the State of India?

(a) Article 100
(b) Article 200
(c) Article 300
(d) Article 330
2. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?

(a) Committee on Public Undertakings
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Delegated Legislation
3. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?

(a) Question Hour
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Half-an-hour discussion
(d) Short duration discussion
4. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:

(a) Committee on Assurances
(b) Committee on Delegated Legislation
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Estimates Committee
5. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Short duration discussion
(d) Adjournment motion
6. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:

(a) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
7. The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:

(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Pubjab
(d) Maharashtra
8. The institution of Lokayukta was created first in Maharashtra in:

(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1971
9. The correct statements about zero hour includes:
1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the houses of Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the houses of Parliament.
3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior notice.
4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour in both the houses of Parliament.
5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 5
10. The correct statements about calling attention notice are:
1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?
1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
12. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?
1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
13. In parliamentary countries, like India, the legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted in effectiveness due to which of the following reasons?
1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3. The large size of the legislature.
4. The members of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.

(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
14. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of:

(a) 80 Members
(b) 140 Members
(c) 160 Members
(d) 50 Members
15. Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?
1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
16. In which of the following stated years, the Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the Parliament?

(a) 1968
(b) 1971
(c) 1978
(d) 1985
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
17. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same.
Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.
Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular sovereignty.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
19. List-I List-II
A. Short duration discussion 1. 1964
B. Calling attention notice 2. 1962
C. Zero Hour 3. 1953
D. Committee on Public Undertakings 4. 1954
Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
20. List-I (Writs) List-II (Literal meanings)
A. Mandamus 1. ‘By what warrant or authority’
B. Habeas Corpus 2. ‘We command’
C. Quo warranto 3. ‘To be certified’
D. Certiorari 4. ‘You may have the body’ or ‘To have the body of’
Codes: A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
21. List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)
A. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court 1. Article 13
B. Suits against government 2. Article 226
C. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court 3. Article 300
D. Source of the power of judicial review 4. Article 32
5. Article 166
Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 5 4 3 2
22. The final work of UPSC in recruitment process is:

(a) Selection
(b) Appointment
(c) Certification
(d) Placement
23. The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined by:

(a) President of India
(b) Constitution of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Union Public Service Commission
24. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

(a) Art. 310
(b) Art. 315
(c) Art. 312
(d) Art. 311
25. Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.
Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the following codes.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
26. Assertion: A member of All-India Service can appeal against the order of a State Government to the President of India.
Reason: Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil servant cannot be removed or dismissed by any authority which is subordinate to the authority by which he was appointed.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the following codes.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
27. The Vote on Account is passed:

(a) After the voting of demands
(b) Before the general discussion
(c) After the general discussion
(d) Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion.
28. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:
1. General discussion
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Finance Bill
4. Voting of the demands for grant
5. Presentation to legislature

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
29. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?
1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget
2. A summary of demands for grants
3. An Appropriation Bill
4. A Finance Bill
5. The economic survey

(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(c) It should relate to more than one demand.
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.
31. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with:

(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) National Development Council
32. The number of demands in the General Budget for civil expenditures is:

(a) 109
(b) 106
(c) 103
(d) 102
33. The word ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

(a) Art. 266
(b) Art. 112
(c) Art. 265
(d) None
34. The budget was formally introduced in India in:

(a) 1860
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1868
35. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.
4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 5
(d) only 1
36. Which of the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. Allowances of the Chairman of Lok Sabha.
2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt.
3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.
4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any arbitration tribunal.
5. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General

(a) 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
37. The correct statements about Public Account of India are:
1. The public account is the fund to which all public moneys received by or on behalf of the government are credited.
2. No legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public Account of India.
3. Legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public Account of India.
4. All public moneys, other than those credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, which are received by or on behalf of the government are credited to the Public Account of India.
5. It is operated by executive action.

(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 4
38. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.
3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
39.

List-IList-II
A. Token Cut Motion1. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount.”
B. Economy Cut Motion2. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 1.”
C. Policy Cut Motion3. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 100.”
4. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 1.”
5. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 100.”

Codes: A B C

(a) 5 1 2
(b) 5 3 1
(c) 3 1 4
(d) 3 5 2
40.

List-I (Principles)List-II (Provided by)
A. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.1. Article 117
B. No bill imposing tax can be introduced in the Parliament except on the2. Article 113
C. No expenditure can be incurred except with the sanction of the legislature.3. Article 265
D. No Demand for grant of any money for expenditure can be made except on the recommendation of the President.4. Article 112
5. Article 266

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
41.

List-I (Terms)List-II (Defined by)
A. Consolidated Fund of India1. Article 110
B. Money Bill2. Article 267
C. Annual Financial Statement3. Article 266
D. Contingency Fund of India4. Article 265
5. Article 112

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 2
(d) 3 1 5 2
42. Assertion: Budget is a secret document and should not be leaked out before being presented to the Parliament.
Reason: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
43. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Reason: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
44. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament.
Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
45. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.
Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
46. Assertion: The budget is placed in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) at the end of the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech in the Lok Sabha.
Reason: The budget is presented to the Lok Sabha on the last working day of February.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
47. Assertion: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
48. Assertion: The Constitution of India has authorised the parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India.
Reason: The Contingency Fund enables the government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
49. Assertion: Audit in India is equally concerned with the legal and technical as well as the propriety aspects of expenditure.
Reason: The provision under which the audit is performed by CAG says that he has “to ascertain whether the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the purpose to which they had been applied and whether the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.”
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
50. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:

(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the states.
(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid to the states out of the consolidated Fund of India.
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Account of India.
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interest of sound finance.
51. The National Development Council consists of:

(a) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states and the members of the NITI Aayog.
(b) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, the Central Cabinet Ministers and the Members of the NITI Aayog.
(c) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, Selected Central Cabinet Ministers, Administrators of union territories and the members of the NITI Aayog.
(d) The Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the states, Administrators of union territories and the members of the NITI Aayog.
52. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.
(b) Laid down in Article 123.
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament.
(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.
53. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:
1. All India Federation
2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
54. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as prescribed by:

(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.
(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.
(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.
(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India
55. The erstwhile Planning Commission was described as the “Economic Cabinet” by:

(a) P.P. Agarwal
(b) Ashok Chanda
(c) D.R. Gadgil
(d) Santhanam
56. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919
57. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
1. Finance Commission
2. NITI Aayog
3. Zonal Councils
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission

(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6
58. The features of Indian federal system are:
1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written Constitution

(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
59. Which of the following is not a department under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

(a) Department of Internal Security
(b) Department of Home
(c) Department of States
(d) Department of Law and Order
60. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.
(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre and states.
(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.
(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.
61. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election
(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
(c) 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states
(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government
62. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as:

(a) Chairman of the UPSC
(b) Supreme Court Judge
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
63. Statutory grants are given to states by the Centre on the recommendation of:

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Development Council
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Finance Commission
64. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882
65. Dyarchy was introduced by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(b) Government of India Act of 1919
(c) Government of India Act of 1935
(d) Independence Act of 1947
66. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

(a) Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) All-India Federation
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) Dyarchy in the provinces
67. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council of ministers?

(a) 24th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 44th amendment
(d) 54th amendment
68. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:

(a) Switzerland
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) Canada
69. Who said the “Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”

(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jennings
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) K.C. Wheare
70. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?
1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.
2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.
4. He can be removed by the President on his own.
5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.

(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
71. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.
3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.
4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.
5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
72. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:
1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.
4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 3
73. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India by:

(a) Government of India Act of 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
74. Which is incorrectly matched?

(a) Prohibition of Discrimination—Article 15
(b) Right to Association—Article 19.
(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies—Article 32.
75. Who characterises Indian Union as “a federation with a centralising tendency?”

(a) B.R. Ambedker
(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Ivor Jennings
(d) Granville Austin
76. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
77. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:
1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
78. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:

(a) 41st amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 42nd amendment
79. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General
80. Which of the following are not the departments of Finance Ministry?
1. Department of Expenditure
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Department of Banking
4. Department of Revenue
5. Department of Budget

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
81. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:
1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.
2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.
4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
82. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?
1. Supremacy of Constitution
2. All-India services
3. Single citizenship
4. Independent judiciary
5. Bicameral legislature
6. Integrated judiciary

(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 5 and 6
(c) 2, 3 and 6
(d) 2, 3 and 4
83. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:
1. Independent judiciary.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
3. A written Constitution.
4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
84. Which is correctly matched?

(a) Amendment procedure – Article 268
(b) Duties of Prime Minister – Article 74
(c) President’s rule – Article 365
(d) Inter-State Council – Article 264
85. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures
(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures
(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies
86. The ex-officio members of the erstwhile Planning Commission were:
1. Home Minister
2. Finance Minister
3. Defence Minister
4. Human Resources Minister
5. Planning Minister
6. Agriculture Minister

(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
87. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?

(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Pitts India Act of 1784
88. Erstwhile Planning Commission was set up on the recom-mendation of:

(a) National Planning Committee
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Advisory Planning Board
(d) Constituent Assembly
Matching Pattern
Match List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes given below the lists.
89.

List-IList-II
A. Board of Control1. Regulating Act of 1773
B. Central Administration2. Government of India Act of 1858
C. Governor-General of India3. Pitts India Act of 1784
D. Secretary of state for India4. Charter Act of 1833

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 2 4
90.

List-IList-II
A. Bicameral system1. Government of India Act of 1935
B. Legislative devolution2. Indian Councils Act of 1861
C. Separate electorate3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Provincial autonomy4. Indian Councils Act of 1892
5. Minto-Morely Reforms.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 5 1
(c) 3 2 5 1
(d) 5 4 3 1
91.

List-IList-II
A. Equality in Public employment1. Article 29
B. Minorities rights2. Article 21
C. Right to personal liberty3. Article 23
D. Right against exploitation4. Article 16
5. Article 25

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
92.

List-IList-II
A. Withholding of assent1. Qualified veto
B. Overriden by an ordinary majority2. Pocket veto
C. Taking no action on the bill3. Absolute veto
D. Overriden by a higher majority4. Suspensive veto
5. Majority veto

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 5 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
93.

List-IList-II
A. Third Schedule1. Allocation of seats in Upper House
B. Ninth Schedule2. Disqualification on Grounds of defection
C. Fourth Schedule3. Validation of certain acts
D. Tenth Schedule4. Languages
5. Forms of affirmations

Codes: A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 5 3 1 2
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
94. Assertion: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.
Reason: The President is the titular head of the state while the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
95. Assertion: Article 149 of the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions with regard to the appointment and service conditions of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Reason: He cannot function independently unless he enjoys the constitutional protection.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
96. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office.
Reason: No person shall be eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the House of People.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
97. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.
Reason: Parliament may, by law, regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or a Vice-President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
98. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
Reason: The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
99. A new All-India Service can be created by:

(a) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(b) An act of Parliament
(c) An order of the President
(d) A resolution of the UPSC
100. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals with:

(a) Recruitment matters
(b) Promotion matters
(c) Disciplinary matters
(d) Recruitment and all service matters
101. Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public Service Commission?

(a) President of India
(b) Parliament of India
(c) UPSC
(d) State Governors
102. The origins of UPSC can be traced to:

(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1919 Act
(c) 1930 Act
(d) 1947 Act
103. The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of Personnel
(d) Parliament
104. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?
1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Executive rules and orders
4. Conventions

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
105. The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:

(a) President of India
(b) Central Ministry of Personnel
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
106. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:

(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
107. Who is regarded as the “Father of All-India Services?”

(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) Sardar Patel
108. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:

(a) An order of the President
(b) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An act of Parliament
(d) A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
109. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state atleast for five years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 4 and 5
110. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the prohibition as to the holding of offices by members of Public Service Commissions on ceasing to be such members?
1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
2. The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
3. A member other than Chairman of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman of the UPSC or as Chairman of a SPSC, but not for any other employment, either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
4. A member other than Chairman of the SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of that or any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
111. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?
1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.
3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.
4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as Central Services and Central Government posts.
5. It was setup in 1985.

(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 3
112. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration.
Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
113. Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.
Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
114. Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS.
Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of federalism and ministerial responsibility at the state level.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
115. Assertion: The UPSC makes recruitment to Group A and Group B services.
Reason: The Staff Selection Commission makes recruitment to Group C services.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
116. Assertion: The members of All-India Services can give independent and impartial advise to political executives in the states.
Reason: They enjoy constitutional safeguards with regard to security of service.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
117. Assertion: The salaries and allowances of members of the UPSC are charged on the consolidated Fund of India.
Reason: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on the Commission by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
118. Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure.
Reason: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
119. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC.
Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
120.

List-I (Provisions)List-II (Contained in)
A. Tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a state.1. Article 315
B. Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the states.2. Article 310
C. Recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a state.3. Article 312
D. Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a state.4. Article 309
5. Article 311

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 4 5 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 5
(d) 2 1 5 4
121. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?
1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.

(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
122. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:
1. Creation of a two-tier system
2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions
4. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
5. If superceded, elections must be held within one year

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
123. District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The State Public Service Commission
(c) The Chief Minister of state
(d) The Governor of state
124. Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation of:

(a) Speaker
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Governor
125. According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be:

(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad
(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
126. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:

(a) Democratic-decentralisation
(b) Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development
(d) Community development programme
127. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the order):

(a) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(c) Rajashtan and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
128. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:

(a) District Collector
(b) Governor of the state
(c) Law Minister of the state
(d) High Court of the state
129. Which of the following is a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
130. “The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
131. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:
1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365

(a) only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
132. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?

(a) 4th Amendment
(b) 7th Amendment
(c) 11th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment
133. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates includes:

(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister
(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister
(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
(d) Only the Cabinet Ministers
134. In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the President can:
1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including the High Court.
2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Governor.
3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court.
4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
135. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:
1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 4 and 5
136. Panchayati Raj is a system of:

(a) Local government
(b) Local administration
(c) Local self-government
(d) Rural local self-government
137. The correct statements about cantonment boards are:
1. This system of municipal administration is a British legacy in our country.
2. They are set up under the resolutions passed by the Ministry of Defence.
3. The Ministry of Defence exercises direct administrative control over them.
4. It consists of elected members only.
5. The executive officer of the board is appointed by the President of the board.

(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3, 4 and 5
138. Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?
1. reservation of seats for scs and sts in proportion of their population (to the total population) in municipal Area.
2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.
3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided by the State Governor.
4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban area.
5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 2
139. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the Governor.
Reason: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
140. Assertion: Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local government.
Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ‘father of local self-government in India.’
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
141. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the Constitution gives a constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of the Gram Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
142. Assertion: The Governor of a state is a nominal (titular) executive head.
Reason: The Constitution has provided for a parliamentary government in the states.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
143. Assertion: No person shall be eligible for appointment as a Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty years.
Reason: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
144. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Reason: The Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
145. Assertion: The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Reason: Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the states in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
146. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far he is by or under the Constitution, required to exercise his functions, or any of them in his discretion.
Reason: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
147.

List-IList-II
A. Governor1. Article 167
B. Counil of ministers2. Article 169
C. Duties of Chief Minister3. Article 155
D. Legislative Council4. Article 163

Codes: A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
148.

List-IList-II
A. Deliberative organisation1. Commissioner
B. Formal head2. Standing Committee
C. Management3. Mayor
D. Executive body4. Council

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
149.

List-I (States)List-II (Governor’s special responsibilities)
A. Madhya Pradesh1. Law and order
B. Gujarat2. Administration of tribal areas
C. Nagaland3. Development of backward areas
D. Assam4. Minister for Tribal Welfare
5. Hill Areas Committee working

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
150.

List IList II
A. Article 1561. Executive authority of Governor
B. Article 1542. Tenure of Governor
C. Article 1533. Appointment of Governor
D. Article 1554. Office of Governor
5. Discretionary power of Governor.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
151.

List I (Committees)List II (Setup on)
A. G.V.K. Rao Committee1. Panchayati Raj institutions
B. Balvantray Mehta Committee2. Revitalisation of PRIs for democracy and development
C. L.M. Singhvi Committee3. Existing administrative arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes.
D. Ashok Mehta Committee4. Community Development Programme and National Extension Service.
5. Panchayati Raj elections

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
152. The Governor of a state:
1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.
2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.
3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.
4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers.
Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
153. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality means:

(a) Pleasure of the President
(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister
(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister
(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly
154. The main objective of the National Development Council is:

(a) To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
(b) To strengthen and mobilise the efforts and resources of the nation in support of the plan.
(c) To ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
(d) To secure cooperation of states in execution of the plan.
155. Which of the following factors have led to the decline of Indian Parliament?
1. Growth of delegated legislation.
2. Low level of attendance in the Parliament.
3. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.
4. Frequent amendment of the Constitution.
5. Setback in Parliamentary behaviour and ethics.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5
156. The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 352
(d) Not mentioned in the Constitution
157. Which of the following statements with regard to the erstwhile Planning Commission are correct?
1. It was constituted on 15th March, 1950.
2. It had representation from the state governments.
3. It acted as a kind of a bridge between Union Government, National Development Council and state governments.
4. It was a collegiate body.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
158. Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?
1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.
2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
4. He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
159. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between a censure motion and a no-confidence motion?
1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.
2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
3. The Government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed, whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
160. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:
1. President of India
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
4. Chief Justice of the State High Court
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.

(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 4
161. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a) 1971
(b) 1967
(c) 1968
(d) 1972
162. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

(a) Constitutional provision
(b) Act of the Parliament
(c) Resolution of the Santhanam Committee
(d) Executive resolution
163. The functions of Estimates Committee include:
1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration.
2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
164. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:
1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.
2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.
4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.

(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
165. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Adjournment means an interruption in normal business of the Assembly.
(b) Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.
(c) Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.
(d) Proroagation means end of a session of the Assembly.
166. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
2. Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.
3. Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in Panchayats.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
167. Consider the following statements about municipal corporations:
1. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures.
2. They are established in the union territories by an order of the Chief Administrator.
3. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.
4. Their deliberative functions are separated from the executive functions.
Of the above, the correct statements are:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
168. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.
(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.
(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
(d) It is a statutory body.
169. Consider the following statements with regard to All-India Services:
1. Article 312 of the Constitution specifies the procedure for their creation.
2. The All-India Services Act was enacted in 1950.
3. Indian Forest Service is managed by the Ministry of Forests and Environment.
4. A new All-India Service can be created by the Rajya Sabha.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
170. Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?
1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of President
5. With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 5
171. Assertion: A minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the Prime Minister.
Reason: A minister is appointed by President only on the advice of Prime Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
172. Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system.
Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the Union Government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
173. Assertion: The duty of CAG is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety.
Reason: He has to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
174. Assertion: The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India.
Reason: It is an independent constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
175. Assertion: The Governor is dejure head of state administration.
Reason: The Chief Minister is de-facto head of state administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
176. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-for-grants.
Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
177.

List-I (Meaning of writs)List-II (Name of writs)
A. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties.1. Injunction
B. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court when the latter exceeds its jurisdiction.2. Mandamus
C. It is issued by the courts to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office.3. Certiorari
D. It is issued by the court asking a person to do a thing or refrain from doing a thing.4. Prohibition
5. Quo-warranto

Codes: A B C D

(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 5 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 5 1
(d) 4 5 2 3
178.

List-I (Committees)List-II (Function)
A. Public Accounts Committee1. Examines whether the promises made by the ministers on the floor of the house have been fulfilled.
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation2. Examines the CAG’s report on the appropriation accounts and ascertains whether the funds voted by Parliament are spent within the scope of the demand.
C. Committee on Public Undertakings3. Examines whether the powers to make rules and regulations delegated by the Parliament are properly exercised by the executive.
D. Committee on Government Assurances.4. Examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings and finds out whether their affairs are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practices.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
179.

List-IList-II
A. Token grant1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand whose details cannot be stated.
B. Exceptional grant2. It is voted by the Lok Sabha before the end of the financial year.
C. Vote of credit3. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the end of the financial year.
D. Excess grant4. It forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
5. It is granted when funds to meet proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 3 5 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 5 3 1 4
180.

List-I (Schedules in the Constitution)List-II (Provisions)
A. Sixth Schedule1. Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
B. Second Schedule2. Administration of tribal areas in states of Assam, Meghalya, Tripura and Mizoram.
C. Twelfth Schedule3. Provisions as to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of state Legislative Assemblies.
D. Fifth Schedule4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities.
5. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1
181.

List-IList-II
A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.1. Surcharges on taxes and duties
B. Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the states.2. Taxes on services.
C. Taxes levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states.3. Stamp duties on bills of exchange.
D. Taxes and duties for purposes of the Union.4. Income tax
5. Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 3 1 4
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 3 5 2 1
182. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 153 — Office of the Governor
(b) Article 156 — Term of the Governor
(c) Article 154 — Executive authority of Governor
(d) Article 155 — Removal of Governor
183. The most important Legislative power of the Governor is:

(a) Nominating members to the state legislature.
(b) Issuing ordinances
(c) Assenting bills passed by the state legislature
(d) Dissolving the state legislative Assembly
184. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the Governor and the council of ministers.
Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
185. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Balwantray Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
2. Ashok Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1977.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee submitted its report in 1986.
4. L.M. Singhvi Committee submitted its report in 1987.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
186. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Making provision for reservation to the backward classes.
2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.
3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas.
4. Conferring financial powers on Panchayats with regard to taxes, fees and so on.
5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to the Panchayats.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
187. Assertion: The UPSC’s function is not to decide but to advise.
Reason: UPSC is a constitutional body
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
188. Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?
1. It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the Constitution.
2. It was set up by an order of the President of India.
3. It was set up in 1985.
4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
189. Which of the following audit is discretionary and not obligatory on the part of CAG?

(a) Audit of Accountancy
(b) Audit of Authority
(c) Audit of Appropriation
(d) Audit of Propriety
190. “The state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice—social, economic and political—shall inform all the institutions of the national life.” This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Article 39
(b) Article 46
(c) Article 38
(d) Article 37
191. Which of the following will be the consequences of the proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President?
1. The President can give directions to the states to observe the principles of financial propriety.
2. The President can reduce the salaries and allowances of government employees excluding the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
3. All money bills and other financial bills passed by a state legislature can be reserved for the consideration of the President.
4. The Parliament can authorise the President to sanction expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the state.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
192. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(b) The Governor of the concerned state
(c) The Attorney-General of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India
193. Which of the following articles of the Constitution broadly govern the relationship between the Prime Minister and the President?
1. Article 75
2. Article 73
3. Article 78
4. Article 76
5. Article 74

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
194. Which of the following distinguishes the audit of the CAG from the audit made by professional auditors?

(a) Audit of Authority
(b) Audit of Appropriation
(c) Audit of Accountancy
(d) Audit of Propriety
195. Who/which of the following has called the erstwhilePlanning Commission as “The Economic Cabinet, not merely for the Union but also for the states”?

(a) K. Santhanam
(b) O.R. Gadgil
(c) Administrative Reforms Commission
(d) Ashok Chanda
196. Match the following:

List-I (Statements on NDC)List-II(Madeby)
A. “Among the advisory bodies to the Planning Commission is included the NDC. This is surely incorrect as is clear from its composition. The NDC is a body obviously superior to the Planning Commission.”1. K. Santhanam
B. The NDC was established as a supreme administrative and advisory body on planning . . . since their inception the NDC and its standing Committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.”2. A. P. Jain
C. “The NDC infringes upon functions which under the Constitution, are assigned to other bodies and attempts to do what the council of ministers at the central and the states’ levels should do.”3. M. Brecher
D. “The position of NDC has come to approximate to that of a Super Cabinet of the entire Indian federation, a Cabinet functioning for the Government of India and the government of all the states.”4. Ashok Chanda

Codes: A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 5
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 5 3 4 1
197. Which of the following were the functions of erstwhile Planning Commission?
1. To formulate development plans of state governments.
2. To secure public cooperation in national development.
3. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
4. To provide secretarial assistance to the NDC.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
198. In which of the following respects, the Finance Commission differed from the erstwhile Planning Commission?
1. Legal status
2. Composition
3. Tenure
4. Form of organisation
5. Functions

(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
199. The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings was first visualised by:

(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) Lanka Sundaram
(d) Krishna Menon Committee
200. Match the following:

List-IList-II
A. Executive authority of President1. Article 56
B. Tenure of President2. Article 55
C. Election of President3. Article 61
D. Impeachment of President4. Article 53
5. Article 54

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 4 5 2 3
(d) 4 2 5 3
201. Assertion: Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by the creation of the Contingency Fund of India.
Reason: The Contingency Fund of India is operated by the President of India.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
202. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Vote on account— To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget.
2. Charged items— Not submitted to the Parliament.
3. Vote of credit— Blanck cheque given to the executive.
4. Excess grant— Submitted directly to the Lok Sabha for its approval


(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
203. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges
2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
204. Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?
1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.
2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.
3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that purpose.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
205. Assertion: The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya Sabha.
Reason: An Adjournment Motion does not result in removing the Government from office.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
206. Which of the following Lokpal Bills had Prime Minister in their jurisdiction?
1. The Lokpal Bill of 1968
2. The Lokpal Bill of 1971
3. The Lokpal Bill of 1977
4. The Lokpal Bill of 1985
5. The Lokpal Bill of 1990

(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
207. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?
1. It was set up in 1964.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as those of UPSC.
4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to that of the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in UK.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
208. Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct?
1. It derives its functions only from the Constitution.
2. It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.
3. The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview of consultation with UPSC.
4. The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
209. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:

(a) President of the board
(b) Defence Secretary
(c) Chief Secretary of the state
(d) President of India
210. The correct statements about municipalities include:
1. They are known by various other names in different states.
2. They are controlled by the state governments.
3. Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman.
4. They are statutory bodies.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
211. The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the states of:
1. Nagaland
2. Mizoram
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Meghalaya

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
212. The first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras in:

(a) 1767
(b) 1687
(c) 1667
(d) 1678
213. Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council.

(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) State Assembly
214. In which of the following recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee?
1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
2. Official participation of political parties at all levels of Panchayat elections.
3. Zila Parishad as the executive body.
4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila Parishad.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4
215. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a state bill for the consideration of the President?
1. If it is ultra vires.
2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
216. Which of the following expenditures are ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of Council of States.
2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor-General.
3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal.
4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker.

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
217. The Railway budget has:

(a) 36 demands
(b) 34 demands
(c) 42 demands
(d) 32 demands
218. Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?

(a) Additional grant
(b) Exceptional grant
(c) Token grant
(d) Excess grant
219. Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget?

(a) Finance Ministry
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(d) Finance Commission
220. According to Administrative Reforms Commission, the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after consultation with the:
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
221. Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the President before their introduction?
1. Bills to reorganise states.
2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested.
3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade.
4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
222. The Inter-State Council consists of
1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Ministers of all states
3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures
4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers
5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
223. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister?

(a) Political Affairs Committee
(b) Appointments Committee
(c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Economic Affairs Committee
224. “Since their inception, the NDC and its standing committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.” This statement is associated with:

(a) K. Santhanam
(b) M. Brecher
(c) H.M. Patel
(d) Ashok Chanda
225. On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President?
1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
226. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of:

(a) Shah Commission
(b) Administrative Reforms Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) Swaran Singh Committee
227. Which of the following are the provisions of Article 75 of the Constitution?
1. Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister.
2. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.
3. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
4. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by Parliament.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
228. The composition of National Development Council includes:
1. Chief Ministers of all the states
2. All Union Cabinet Ministers
3. Prime Minister
4. Administrators of union territories
5. Selected Union Cabinet Ministers
6. Members of NITI Aayog

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
229. Assertion: The Estimates Committee has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.
Reason: It is a means of legislative control over administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
230. Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution.
Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
231. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.
Reason: The Act has brought the Panchayati Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the the Constitution.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
232. Consider the following statements about the Governor:
1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the state.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the President.
4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
233. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

(a) One-third
(b) One-twelfth
(c) One-eighth
(d) One-sixth
234. Assertion: A minister at the state level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.
Reason: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
235. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?
1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature to have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of weaker sections.
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) only 2
236. Which of the following are true of the provisions of the 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?
1. Wards Committees, for wards with population of two lakhs.
2. The state Governor may authorise them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes.
3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area.
4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional items for the municipalities.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
237. Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the President.
Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
238. Assertion: The members of All-India Services work in the Central Government, state governments and union territories.
Reason: They are selected and recruited on the basis of all-India competitive examinations conducted by the UPSC.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
239. Which of the following are true of the Staff Selection Commission?
1. It was set up in 1976.
2. It enjoys the status of a subordinate office of Ministry of Personnel.
3. It was created by executive resolution.
4. It recruits personnel to non-technical Class III posts in the Secretariat, the attached offices and the subordinate offices in the Central Government.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
240. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Article 266No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
2. Article 117No tax can be imposed unless asked for by the executive government.
3. Article 113No expenditure can be sanctioned unless asked for by the executive government.
4. Article 265No expenditure can be incurred except with the authorisation of the legislature.


(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
241. Which of the following are true of the Contingency Fund of India.
1. It was created under the provisions of Article 267.
2. It was created in 1951.
3. It is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
4. Its amount will be determined by the President.

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
242. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse leads to ‘rush of expenditure’ towards the end of a financial year.
Reason: The unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
243. Match the following:

List-I (Parliamentary committees)List-II (Created in)
A. Committee on Government Assurances1. 1923
B. Committee on Public Undertakings2. 1953
C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation3. 1921
D. Public Accounts Committee4. 1953
5. 1964

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 2 5 4 3
244. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?
1. It was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.
2. It does not exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI.
3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
4. It consists of a chairman and three members.

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
245. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national emergency by the President?
1. The President can issue directives to the state executives.
2. The President can extend the normal tenure of the Lok Sabha.
3. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
4. The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources between Centre and states.

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
246. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) 1861 Act – Portfolio system
(c) 1935 Act – Bicameralism
(d) 1853 Act – Governor-General of India
247. Which of the following are true of the President’s ordinance making power?
1. It is laid down in Article 123.
2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament.
3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in session.
4. It is a discretionary power of the President.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, and 3
248. Assertion: The Prime Minister’s Office influences the formulation of plans.
Reason: The PM is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
249. Match the following:

List-IList-II
A. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.1. Article 74
B. Duties of the Prime Minister towards the President.2. Article 77
C. Council of ministers to aid and advise the President.3. Article 76
D. All executive action of the Government of India shall be taken in the name of the President.4. Article 75
5. Article 78

Codes: A B C D

(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 5 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
250. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Judicial Review
3. Federalism
4. Written Constitution

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
251. Assertion: Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Residuary powers were vested in the Central Legislature.
Reason: The Government of India Act of 1935 divided the subjects into three lists viz. the federal, provincial and concurrent.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
252. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1. Rigid Constitution
2. Bicameral legislature
3. Office of the CAG
4. Collective responsibility
5. Office of the Governor

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
253. “The position of pre-eminance, accorded to Planning Commission, is inconsistent with the conception of a Cabinet form of Government.” The above state-ment is associated with:

(a) Ashok Chanda
(b) K. Santhanam
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
254. Which of the following are the objectives of the National Development Council?
1. To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the Plan.
3. To review the working of the Plan from time to time.
4. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting develo-pment.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
255. Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson.
Reason: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India.
Select the correct code:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
256. The correct statements about Finance Commission are:
1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism
2. It consists of a chairman and three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President.
4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280.

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
257. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:
1. Pocket veto
2. Absolute veto
3. Suspensive veto
4. Qualified veto

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
258. The functions of National Development Council includes:
1. To consider the national plan as formulated by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the plan.
3. To review the working of the plan from time to time.
4. To consider questions of social and economic policy affecting development.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
259. The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is governed by the provisions of:

(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 48th Amendment Act
(c) 54th Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
260. The Zonal Councils have been established by:

(a) Article 263 of the Constitution
(b) States reorganisation Act
(c) Zonal Councils Act
(d) An order of the President of India
261. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Parliament can increase a tax.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
3. Parliament can abolish a tax.
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax.

(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
262. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament.
2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
263. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:
1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
264. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of a Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?
1. It is laid down in Article 200.
2. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.
3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the position of High Court.
4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
265. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Central Bureau of Investigation—1963
(b) Special Police Establishment—1942
(c) Prevention of Corruption Act—1947
(d) Central Vigilance Commission—1964
266. The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:
1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.
2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.
4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.
5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons.

(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 5
267. Which of the following civil services find mention in the Constitution?
1. Indian Administrative Service
2. Indian Forest Service
3. Indian Police Service
4. All-India Judicial Service
5. Indian Foreign Service

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4
268. In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?
1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
269. Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?
1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
4. Disciplinary matters
5. Talent hunting

(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Matching Pattern
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the respective lists.
270.

List-IList-II
A. Tax belonging to the state exclusively.1. Excise duties on medicinal preparations
B. Duties levied as well as collected by the Union, but assigned to the states.2. Surcharge on taxes
C. Tax belonging to the Centre exclusively.3. Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter-state trade.
D. Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.4. Taxes on non-agricultural income
5. Sales Tax.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 4 3 5 2
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 5 1
271.

List-I (Acts)List-II (Provisions)
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861.1. Introduced Dyarchy
B. Government of India Act of 19192. Placed Indian affairs under the direct control of the British Government.
C. Indian Councils Act of 18923. Introduced representative institutions.
D. Pitts India Act of 17844. Introduced provincial autonomy.
5. Introduced the principle of election.

Codes: A B C D

(a) 5 1 3 2
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 5
(d) 3 1 5 2
272. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body.
Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
273. Assertion: The Constitution of India in quasi-federal.
Reason: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the state governments.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
274. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of state government.
Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
275. Which of the following are correct with regard to the functions of the UPSC?
1. To conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.
2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required.
3. To advise the Union and state governments on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
4. To present, annually, to the President a report as to the work done by it.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
276. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quowarranto
(d) Injunction

Answers

1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. a 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. c 51. d 52. d 53. d 54. d 55. b 56. b 57. b 58. d 59. d 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. d 67. b 68. d 69. d 70. c 71. c 72. d 73. d 74. c 75. c 76. c 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. c 83. c 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. b 99. b 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. d 104. d 105. c 106. d 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. d 111. c 112. a 113. a 114. a 115. b 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. b 120. c 121. b 122. c 123. d 124. d 125. d 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. d 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. a 134. c 135. c 136. d 137. c 138. d 139. a 140. b 141. c 142. a 143. d 144. a 145. b 146. b 147. d 148. d 149. c 150. b 151. c 152. c 153. d 154. d 155. a 156. c 157. c 158. c 159. d 160. d 161. c 162. d 163. b 164. b 165. b 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. a 170. c 171. d 172. a 173. a 174. b 175. a 176. b 177. c 178. b 179. b 180. c 181. d 182. d 183. b 184. a 185. c 186. c 187. b 188. c 189. d 190. c 191. c 192. d 193. b 194. d 195. d 196. c 197. c 198. b 199. c 200. b 201. d 202. c 203. a 204. b 205. b 206. c 207. c 208. a 209. d 210. b 211. c 212. b 213. a 214. b 215. b 216. a 217. d 218. d 219. d 220. c 221. b 222. c 223. c 224. b 225. b 226. d 227. b 228. b 229. b 230. b 231. a 232. a 233. d 234. a 235. d 236. c 237. b 238. b 239. c 240. d 241. a 242. a 243. d 244. c 245. b 246. b 247. c 248. a 249. c 250. d 251. d 252. d 253. a 254. a 255. d 256. c 257. d 258. c 259. d 260. b 261. b 262. c 263. b 264. c 265. b 266. b 267. d 268. d 269. c 270. c 271. d 272. a 273. a 274. d 275. c 276. d

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