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Chapter 91. UPSC Questions on Indian Polity (General Studies–Prelims) (Indian Polity & Constitution Summary Laxmikanth)

UPSC Questions on Indian Polity (General Studies–Prelims)

1993 Test Paper
1. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to
(a) the Hindu Code Bill
(b) the PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
(d) the Dowry Prohibition Bill
2. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
3. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the
(a) Dhebar Commission
(b) Kalekar Commission
(c) Kher Commission
(d) Rajamannar Commission
4. Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathak
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan
(d) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan
5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is a constitutional body
(b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of the revenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takes an overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements of the States
(c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission at the same time
(d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the Finance Commission and those of the Planning Commission.
6. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of
(a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India
(c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
(d) administrative reforms
7. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Three lists in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
(d) A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution
8. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
(a) Population control and family planning
(b) Public health and sanitation
(c) Capitation taxes
(d) Treasure trove
9. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his election.
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure
(d) If he intends to resign the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker
10. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) Disputes between the States inter se
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
11. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in
(a) Kerala
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
12. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary control over the Budget?
(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’s recommendation
(d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President’s recommendation
13. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-IList-II
(Features of the Indian Constitution)(Borrowed from)
A. Fundamental Rights1. U.K.
B. Parliamentary system of government2. U.S.A.
3. Ireland
C. Emergency provisions4. German Reich
D. Directive Principles of State Policy5. Canada
Codes :
ABCD
(a)2451
(b)5134
(c)2143
(d)1243

14. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
1. It was not based on adult franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1994 Test Paper
1. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
2. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies
(b) As the Vice-president is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-president
(c) A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
(d) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister
3. Freedom of the press in India
(a) is specially provided in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
(b) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the constitution
(c) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution
(d) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country
4. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?
(a) Centre’s control of the State in legislative sphere
(b) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(c) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(d) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process
5. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?
(a) ‘Exit Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised their franchise
(b) ‘Exit Poll’ and ‘Opinion Poll’ are one and the same
(c) ‘Exit Poll’ is device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted
(d) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation
6. Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V.P. Singh
4. Chandrashekhar
5. P.V. Narasimha Rao
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2 only
(d) 4 only
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R): The elections based on the majority-vote-system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
8. Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?
1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
9. Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India?
1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage
2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
3. List system of proportional representation
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
10. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?
(a) Stamp duties
(b) Passenger and goods tax
(c) Estate duty
(d) Taxes on Newspapers
11. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
12. Given below are voting percentages of a political party secured in three successive elections to the Lok Sabha:

Years198419891991
Percentages of Votes7.411.422.4

The party which secured these percentages of votes was
(a) Congress (I)
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
13. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
14. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that
(a) certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated
(b) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(c) the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Art. 368
(d) the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not part of the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit
1995 Test Paper
1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north east
(d) the problem of the chakmas
2. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President.
3. Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
4. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission.
5. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) None
6. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
7. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
8. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. The Inter-State Council
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
9. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
10. Consider the table given below:
Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
11. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected Members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
12. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
13. In the interim government formed in 1946 the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
14. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither
15. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
16. Corporation tax
(a) is levied and appropriated by the States
(b) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States
(c) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
(d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
17. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State governments by
(a) the Finance Commission
(b) the National Development Council
(c) the Inter-State Council
(d) the Constitution of India
1996 Test Paper
1. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
(a) 21 (b) 14 (c) 7 (d) 6
2. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor General of free India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
4. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
5. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘District Judge’ shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
6. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
7. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set-up?
(a) Single tier structure of local self-government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels
8. Consider the following statements:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practice and propagation of religion.
3. there is no provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) none is correct
9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The prime minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested with the President of India
10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The world ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
1997 Test Paper
1. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “Population” here means the population as ascertained by the
(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census (d) 1961 Census
2. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
1. The President shall not be a member of either Houses of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 alone (d) 2 alone
3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Functionaries) (Oaths or affirmations)
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of Informa-
tion
B. Judges of the 2. Faithful Discharge of
Supreme Court Duties
C. Members of 3. Faith and Allegiance
Parliament to the Constitution of
India
D. Ministers for the 4. Upholding the Con-
Union stitution and the law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
4. In the following quotation,
“WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA,
having solemnly resolved to constitute India into
a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the
individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ – do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves thisConstitution”, ‘X’ stands for
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practiced without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
6. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended
(a) the constitution of state level election commissions
(b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in the parliamentary elections
7. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
8. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or dissolved by the State government
9. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where
(a) there are no reserved constituencies
(b) a two-party system has developed
(c) the first-past-post system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms of government
10. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
(a) the United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) the United States
(d) Canada
11. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in as the Prime Minister
12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
1998 Test Paper
1. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
2. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
3. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
4. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(d) Ministry of Industries, Govt. of India
5. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United Front which was in power during 1996-97?
1. Bahujana Samaj Party.
2. Samata Party
3. Haryana Vikas Party
4. Asom Gana Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
1999 Test Paper
1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the Indian Republic from the French
(b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
(c) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the Chinese in the 1962 Sino-Indian War
(d) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which are transferred to India by lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan respectively.
2. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
3. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
4. The most short-lived of all of Britain’s constitutional experiments in India was the
(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
5. The Constitution of India recognises
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
6. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability.
7. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
8. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax is correct?
(a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income tax between itself and the states
(b) The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax to itself
(c) The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are distributed among the states
(d) Only the surcharge levied on income tax is shared between the Union and the states
2000 Test Paper
1. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
2. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
3. Consider the following functionaries :
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
4. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to
(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
5. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
6. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that
(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voters’ List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
7. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I
(Local bodies)
List-II
(States as in 1999)
A. Zilla Parishads at the sub-divisional level1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mandal Praja Parishad2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats4. Meghalaya

Codes:

ABCD
(a)2143
(b)1243
(c)3214
(d)2134

8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haweli were under French colonial rule till 1954.
9. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
10. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?
(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
(b) A bicameral legislature
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) An All-India Federation
11. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
12. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under-employed men and women in rural area.
(b) generation of employment for the able bodies adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season.
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country.
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination.
2001 Test Paper
1. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349 (b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 A (d) Article 351
2. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
3. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
4. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.
5. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
6. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:
1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
7. In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control over its local bodies?
(a) Citizens’ grievances (b) Financial
(c) Legislation (d) Personnel matters
8. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 4 only
9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I
(Amendments to the Constitution)
List-II
(Contents)
A. The Constitution (sixty-ninth Amendment) Rent Tribunals1. Establishment of state level Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth Amendment) Act, 19942. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 20003. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels
4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 20005. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi

Codes:

ABCD
(a)5142
(b)1534
(c)5134
(d)1542

10. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
11 Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I
(Articles of the Constitution)
List-II
(Content)
A. Article 541. Election of the President of India
B. Article 752. Appointment of the Prime Minister And Council of Ministers
C. Article 1553. Appointment of the Governor of a state
D. Article 1644. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies

Codes:

ABCD
(a)1234
(b)1245
(c)2135
(d)2143

2002 Test Paper
1. Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Article of Indian Constitution)List-II (Provisions)
A. Article 16(2)1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29(2)2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste
C. Article 30(1)3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31(1)4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.

Codes:

ABCD
(a)2431
(b)3124
(c)2134
(d)3421

2. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
3. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
(a) nominated by the British Parliament
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
4. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
5. The real intention of the British to include the princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to
(a) exercise more and direct political and administrative control over the princely states
(b) involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony
(c) finally effect the complete political and administrative take-over of all the princely states by the British
(d) use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders
6. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 51 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 41
7. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
8. Match List I (Article of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of India)List-II (Provisions)
A. Charter Act, 18131. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company’s affairs in India
B. Regulating Act2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
C. Act of 18583. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
D. Pitt’s India Act4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the British government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company

Codes:

ABCD
(a)2431
(b)1342
(c)2341
(d)1432

9. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
10. Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
11. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
12. Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council
13. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
14. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
15. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
16. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th (b) 40th
(c) 42nd (d) 44th
17. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
18. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
(a) 5,000 and 2,500
(b) 10,000 and 2,500
(c) 10,000 and 5,000
(d) 15,000 and 7,500
19. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
2003 Test Paper
1. Consider the following statements :
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
2. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
3. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
4. Consider the following statements :
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
5. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
6. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
7. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Calcutta
(c) Madras (d) Orissa
8. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
9. Consider the following statements :
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc., set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
10. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
11. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
12. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
13. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari
14. Consider the following statements :
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
15. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
16. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
(a) Article 215 (b) Article 275
(c) Article 325 (d) Article 355
17. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are
1. levied and collected by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution)List-II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
ABCD
(a)5412
(b)3521
(c)5421
(d)3512

19. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
2004 Test Paper
1. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Account of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor’s provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle of communal representation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no – confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no – confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no – confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no – confidence
7. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
8. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) the Government of India Act, 1919
(c) the Government of India Act, 1935
(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
9. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
10. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Forests:Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges:Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank:Union List
(d) Public Health:State List

11. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
12. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
13. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
14. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258
(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356
15. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India)List-II (Provision)
A. Article 141. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
B. Article 152. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
C. Article 163. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Article 174. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State

Codes:

ABCD
(a)2413
(b)3142
(c)2143
(d)3412

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
17. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
18. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
19. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram (b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat (d) Hukum Singh
20. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Departments:Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of Women and Child Development:Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Language:Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply:Ministry of Water Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
21. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 (b) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
22. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament
2005 Test Paper
1. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX–A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243–Q envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements:
1. Articles 371–A to 371–I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300–A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Bill is related to:
(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States.
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
8. Consider the following statements :
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for
1. the provincial autonomy
2. the establishment of Federal Court
3. All India Federation at the centre
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements :
1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
2006 Test Paper
1. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
2. Consider the following statements :
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
5. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the Central Government
6. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
7. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946?
(a) Defence
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None
8. Consider the following statements :
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) States Reorganization : Andhra Pradesh
Act
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes
a State
10. Consider the following statements :
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Service tax is a/an
(a) direct tax levied by the Central Government.
(b) indirect tax levied by the Central Government.
(c) direct tax levied by the State Government.
(d) indirect tax levied by the State Government.
12. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?
(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A.M. Ahmadi
(c) A.S. Anand (d) P.N. Bhagwati
13. Consider the following statements :
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2007 Test Paper
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
2. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukam Singh (b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) K.M. Munshi (d) U.N. Dhebar
4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) T.S. Krishna Murthy Election:Former Chief
(b) K.C. Pant:Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A.M. Khusro:Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R.C. Lahoti:Former Chief Justice of India

5. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
1. V.P. Singh 2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y.B. Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (B): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
7. Consider the following statements :
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
(a) 91st (b) 93rd
(c) 95th (d) 97th
10. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India :
1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements :
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
2008 Test Paper
1. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?
(a) 16 (b) 18
(c) 22 (d) 24
2. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
3. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
4. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
(a) Guntur (b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore (d) Warangal
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Person)List-II (Position)
A. Nagender Singh1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A.N. Ray2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R.K. Trivedi3. Chief Justice of India
D. Ashok Desai4. Attorney General of India
ABCD
(a)1423
(b)2314
(c)1324
(d)2413

6. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Kangra (b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh (d) Bhilwara
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India
2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
9. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India provides that
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he / she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third (b) Fifth
(c) Seventh (d) Ninth
12. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
13. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
(a) Police Reforms
(b) Tax Reforms
(c) Reforms in Technical Education
(d) Administrative Reforms
2009 Test Paper
1. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
(a) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
2. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
3. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests
(d) Minister of Science and Technology
4. During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected?
(a) Third (b) Fourth
(c) Fifth (d) Sixth
5. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
(a) 1 month (b) 3 months
(c) 6 months (d) 1 year
6. Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
2. The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements :
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta (b) Madras
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi
9. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?
(a) 90th (b) 91st
(c) 92nd (d) 93rd
12. Consider the following statements :
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2010 Test Paper
1. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements:
The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2
3. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
4. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
5. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
6. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
7. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general
9. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
10. Consider the following statements:
In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2011 Test Paper
1. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
5. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
6. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
7. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
8. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide the Constitution and respect its ideals
9. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
10. Consider the following:
1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Consider the following statements:
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
12. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2012 Test Paper
1. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
2. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
4. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None
7. With reference to consumers’ rights / privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
9. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
10. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
11. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
12. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
13. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
14. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency / financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
16. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
18. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2013 Test Paper
1. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements:
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
9. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
10. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
11. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
12. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
13. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
14. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
16. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
17. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
18. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
2014 Test Paper
1. Consider the following languages:
1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
3. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a
(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government
4. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule (d) Tenth Schedule
5. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
6. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council.
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
7. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Carbinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
8. Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
11. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
13. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
2015 Test Paper
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined
(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above
4. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
5. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
10. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
(a) Odia (b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri (d) Assamese
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size that half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duries
13. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
15. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
2016 Test Paper
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answers

1993 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. c 14. c
1994 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. a 14. a
1995 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. d
1996 TEST PAPER
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. b
1997 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. d
1998 TEST PAPER
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. b
1999 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. a
2000 TEST PAPER
1. d 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. d 9. d 10. a 11. a 12. c
2001 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5 a 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. a
2002 TEST PAPER
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. c 19. b
2003 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d
2004 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. b
2005 TEST PAPER
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. a
2006 TEST PAPER
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. c 8. d 9. d 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. b
2007 TEST PAPER
1. d­ 2. b 3. b 4. c­ 5. d 6. d ­ 7. b­ 8. a­ 9. a 10. a 11. a 12.­ b­
2008 TEST PAPER
1. d 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. d
2009 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b
2010 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. a
2011 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. d 11. a 12. b
2012 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. a
2013 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. c
2014 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. c 12. c 13. b
2015 TEST PAPER
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. d
2016 TEST PAPER
1. b 2. d 3. b 4. d 5. b

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