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Chapter 10. Government And Administration (UPSC IAS CSE Civil Services CSAT Prelims Paper-1 Topicwise Previous Year Papers)

Chapter 10. Government And Administration (UPSC IAS CSE Civil Services CSAT Prelims Paper-1 Topicwise Previous Year Papers)

1. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?(1995)
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
2. Council of statesHouse of the People
Not more than 250Not more than 552
membersmembers
Not more than 238not more than 530
representatives ofrepresentative of states
States and Unionplus not more than 2
Territoriesnominated Anglo-Indians
plus X
Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?(1995)
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representative of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament
3. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? (1995)
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
4. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even though the Constitution? (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?(1995)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
5. Which of the following is the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?(1995)
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
6. Which of the followings political parties is/are national political parties?(1995)
1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) None
7. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with:(1995)
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north-east
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
8. If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:(1995)
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
9. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be :(1995)
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
10. Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college for the President but, not the forum for his impeachment? (1996)
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
11. Which one of the following statements about the duties of Prime Minister is correct? (1996)
(a) Is free to choose his minister only from among members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Can choose his cabinet after consulting the President of India.
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested the President of India
12. Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?(1996)
(a) Boycott
(b) Gherao
(c) Bandh
(d) Hartal
13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?(1996)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
14. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament:(1997)
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in
15. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population as ascertained by the:(1997)
(a) 1991 Census
(b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1961 Census
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:(1997)

List-IList-II
(Functionaries)(Oaths or affirmations)
A.President of India1.Secrecy of information
B.Judges of Supreme Court2.Faithful Discharge of
duties
C.Members of Parliament3.Faith and Allegiance
to the Constitution of
India
D.Minister for the Union4.Upholding the Constitution and the law

Codes:
(a) A-3, B-4- C-1 D-2
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
17. Which one of the following is not a principle of “Panchsheel”?(1997)
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
18. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?(2000)
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
19. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:(2000)
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
20. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:(2000)
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
21. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:(2000)
(a) distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
22. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:(2000)
(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
23. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is :(2000)
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
24. Consider the following functionaries:(2000)
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
25. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India? (2001)
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
26. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?(2001)
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees in various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
27. In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies? (2001)
(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
28. Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:(2001)
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election commission
Which of these statement are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements is correct?(2002)
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to the Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
30. Consider the following statements with reference to India:(2002)
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2 and 4
31. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is:(2002)
(a) Rs 5,000 and Rs 2,500
(b) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2,500
(c) Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000
(d) Rs 15,000 and Rs 7,500
32. The term of the Lok Sabha:(2002)
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
33. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?(2002)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
34. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2003)
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutionalprovision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
35. Consider the following statements:(2003)
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?(2003)(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
37. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?(2003)
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former Presidents
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
38. Consider the following statements:(2003)
The function(s) of the Finance commission is/are:
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
39. Consider the following statements:(2003)
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals

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2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s and total number of elected MP’s
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 3
40. Consider the following statements:(2003)
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements is are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Survey of India is under the ministry of : (2003)
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology
42. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?(2004)
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no additional Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
43. Consider the following tasks:(2004)
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political, parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
44. Consider the following statements:(2004)
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3.
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
45. Which one of the following statements is not correct?(2004)
(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
46. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:(2004)
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
47. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?(2004)
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchange : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
48. Consider the following statements :(2004)
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
49. Consider the following events:(2004)
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana state
3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
50. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?(2005)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
51. Consider the following statements:(2006)
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government. (2007)
(a) Both A are R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
53. Consider the following statements:(2007)
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
54. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?(2007)
(a) Hukum Singh
(b) G. V. Mavalankar
(c) K. M. Munshi
(d) U. N. Dhebar
55. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:(2007)
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Consider the following statements:(2007)
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?(2008)
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:(2008)
List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
A. Nagendra Singh 1. Chief Election
Commissioner of India
B. A. N. Ray2. President, International
Court of Justice
C. R. K. Trivedi3. Chief Justice of India
D. Ashok Desai4. Attorney General of India
Code:
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
(b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
59. Consider the following statements:(2008)
The Constitution of India provides that:
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:(2009)
1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily be a sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:(2009)
1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements:(2009)
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Consider the following statements:(2009)
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:(2009)
1. Number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. Number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of’ Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are(2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical-Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is I are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 ? (2010)
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
(b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve’ Bank of India except under certain circumstances
(c) Elimination, of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
67. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct ?(2010)
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.
68. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha ?(2011 – I)
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers.
69. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from (2011 – I)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
70. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is(2012 – I)
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
71. Consider the following statements:(2012 – I)
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3(d) None
72. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:(2012 – I)
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3(d) None
73. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?(2012 – I)
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) ?(2012 – I)
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment(2012 – I)
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
76. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of(2012 – I)
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only(d) 1, 2 and 3
77. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?(2013 – I)
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
78. Which one of the following statements is correct?(2013 – I)
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
79. Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can(2013 – I)
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
80. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties(2013 – I)
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
81. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?(2013 – I)
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82. Consider the following statements:(2013 – I)
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following statements:(2013 – I)
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Consider the following statements :(2014 – I)
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in(2014 – I)
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
86. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India : (2014 – I)
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
88. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?(2014 – I)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?(2014 – I)
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
90. Consider the following statements :(2014 – I)
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. Consider the following statements :(2015-I)
1 The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
92. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :(2015-I)
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
93. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the(2015-I)
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
94. Consider the following statements:(2015-I)
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
95. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by(2015-I)
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
96. Consider the following statements(2015-I)
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity(2017-I)
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
98. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of(2017-I)
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
99. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?(2017-I)
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?(2017-I)
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
101. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in(2017-I)
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
102. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that(2017-I)
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
103. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:(2017-I)
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
104. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through.
1. Adjournment motion(2017-I)
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
105. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:(2017-I)
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
106. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by(2017-I)
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
107. Consider the following statements:(2017-I)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
108. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(2017-I)
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
109. Consider the following statements:(2017-I)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only(d) 3 only
 

Solutions

1. (c)
2. (c) The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of theAnglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.
3. (d) As Indian follows Universal Adult Suffrage elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature i. e. , Las have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The State Legislature besides making laws also has one electoral power in electing the President of India. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly along with the elected members of Parliament are involved in this process.
4. (d) There are only five states with bicameral legislature (Legislative assembly as well as Legislative Council) – UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir
5. (b) In Gujarat and Maharashtra the Chief Ministers come under the ambit of Lok Ayukta Act.
6. (d) All the parties mentioned are state level parties.
7. (b) Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) was concerned with electoral reforms. It suggested providing state funding in kind to political parties. It also suggested that a candidate should not be allowed to contest election from more than two constituencies.
8. (d) A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to distribution of votes, the winning candidate may get less than 1/6 th of valid voters.
9. (*) Incomplete question. In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That’s why the number of reserved seats for SCs cannot be predicted.
Allocation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha are made on the basis of proportion of Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State concerned to that of the total population, vide provision contained in Article 330 of the Constitution of India read with Section 3 of the R. P. Act, 1950. Article 332 Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States :
(1) Seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, except the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam, in the Legislative Assembly of every State.
(2) Seats shall be reserved also for the autonomous districts in the Legislative Assembly of the State of Assam.
(3) The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of any State under clause (1) shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats in the Assembly as the population of the Scheduled Castes in the State or of the Scheduled Tribes in the State or part of the State, as the case may be, in respect of which seats are so reserved, bears to the total population of the State.
10. (d) According to article 54, electoral college of President includes elected members of LS, RS and State legislative assemblies. Under article 61, members of state legislative assemblies do not take part in the process of impeachment of the president.
11. (c) PM has complete discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house within 6 months from the date he enters the office.
12. (a) Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by the local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants’ rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning “to ostracise”.
13. (b) Both statements are correct but do not explain the assertion. At present, the Minorities Commission has a Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Bill provides for granting constitutional status to the Minorities Commission. The bill has not passed by the Houses of Parliament.
14. (a) Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.
15. (c) The expression at present population in 1997 here means the previous census, i. e. , 1971.
16. (c) Oath or affirmation by the President under article 60; Oath or affirmation by Judge of SC, Members of Parliament, Ministers for the Union comes under Third Schedule of the Constitution.
17. (a) The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a series of agreements between the People’s Republic of China and India. They were formed in 1954. The 5 principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement, were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru. Those are:
1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-aggression against anyone.
3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
4. Equality and mutual benefit
5. Peaceful co-existence
18. (a) A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.
19. (d) Decorum means maintaining proper behaviour. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice is allowed in some legislative bodies, it is not allowed in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorized in the rules.
20. (a) Under Article 76, impeachment procedure of the Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
21. (c) Article 280; It shall be the duty of commission to make recommendations to the President as to:
(i) the distribution between union and states of the met proceeds of taxes, grants in aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated Fund of India, any matter referred to the commission by the president in the interests of sound finance.
22. (d) It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.
23. (d) Presently (2018) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and odisa each have 5 seats reserved for schedule caste in the Lok- Sabha.
But according to the question, Madhya Pradesh is the appropriate ensure.
24. (c) Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner and Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of precedence.
25. (d) As per provisions under Article 149, the Comptroller and Auditor General shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor General of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the Dominion of India and of the Provinces respectively.
26. (a) Parliamentary Committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time but with detailed scrutiny. Their appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under Article 118(1) . These are of 2 kinds: Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.
27. (a) The State government does not have control over its local bodies in matters of Citizens’ grievances.
28. (d) All the statements are correct.
29. (b) President can issue an ordinance only when both houses of parliament are not in session (Art 123) . No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court in the Constitution. The age of a Judge of the SC shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as parliament may by law provide. NDC is composed of the PM as its head, all Union Cabinet ministers, the CMs of all states, CMs/Administrators of all UTs and the members of the Planning Commission. There is no constitutional provision regarding the accountability of the planning commission the parliament.
30. (b) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers and salaries. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier.
31. (c) As per the given options the right answer is (c) . As if now (2018) ; The security deposit for Lok Sabah election is Rs 25,000 while for on Assembly election it is Rs 10,000. A de feasted indicate who fails to secure move than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.
32. (c) The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352.
33. (a) The finance commission will be governed by the principles to allocate grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated fund of India.
34. (c) In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (Art 331) . A nominated member can vote only in the Vice-Presidential elections.
35. (d) So far three joint sittings have been held, First was held on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961, Second was held on Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 and Third was held on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. The presiding officer of joint sitting is Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
36. (d) According to Article 368 an amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.
37. (c) Order of precedence is President, Vice President, PM, Governor of State within their respective states, Former Presidents and Deputy PM, CJI and Speaker of LS.
38. (b) Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. The commission makes recommendations to the president with regard to the distribution of the proceeds of taxes between the union and the states. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to be given to the states. Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.
39. (b) The value of a MP’s vote is calculated by dividing the total value of all MLAs’ votes by the number of MPs.
Value of an MP vote =

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40. (a) The PAC is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament. The term of office of the members is one year. The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs renders secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which, inter-alia recommends prorogation of both the Houses of the Parliament, Govt’s stand on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions. Option 3 is not correct.
41. (d) Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science and Technology, is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India. It was set up in 1767.
42. (a) Appropriation Bill is a money bill. In case of money bill, RS has only recommendatory power and need not to be passed by RS.
43. (a) The High Court (and not the Election Commission) is the final authority to give a final verdict in case of election disputes. In the alternative special election benches may be constituted in high courts and earmarked exclusively for the disposal of election petitions and disputes.
44. (d)
45. (a) In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No-Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.
46. (d) Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India states, a Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
47. (b) Stock Exchanges are listed in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) List I-Union List, item no. 90 that reads, taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets. Forests-Concurrent List, 17-A, Post Office Savings Bank -Union List-3, Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries – State List -6.
48. (b) The highest decision making body for planning in India is the Parliament, National Development Council is at second position and Planning Commission at third position. Economic and social planning is placed under Entry 20 in the Concurrent list.
49. (a) Haryana was founded in 1966 when the former state of Punjab was divided into Haryana and the modern Punjab. The 1967 general elections or the 4th Lok Sabha was held in February. Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya became full-fledged states on Jan 21, 1972. Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1997.
50. (*) Food and Nutrition Board works under Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry. None of the given options is correct.
51. (a) Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 249. Statement 2 is incorrect as resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed by both Houses of Parliament (not only LS) .
52. (d) Assertion is false, because the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only.
53. (d) Terms of Jawahar Lal Nehru (1947-52; 1952-57; 1957-62; 1962-64) . He died in 1964 during his 4th Prime-ministerial term. He represented Phulpur constituency in UP. The first non-congress PM of India was Morarji Desai (Janta Party) from 1977-1979.
54. (b) GV Mavalankar (1952-56) , Hukum Singh (1962-67) ; K. M. Munshi and U. N. Dhebar were never the Speakers of the Lok Sabha.
55. (a) Statement 1 is correct as under Article 360, any Proclamation of Financial Emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions Passed by both Houses of Parliament. If approved by both Houses, then it operates for 6 months.
During the proclamation of financial emergency. President of India can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union including the judges of supreme court and the High warts.
56. (a) Statement 2 is incorrect as Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
57. (b) Mohd. Hidayatullah (1979-84) ; Shankar Dayal Sharma (1987-92)
58. (b) Ashok Desai was Attorney General of India (1996-98) ; Nagendra Singh was President of International Court of Justice (1985-88) ; AN Ray was CJI (1973-77) ; RK Trivedi was Chief Election Commissioner (1982-85)
59. (b) Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under Article 173. Statement 1 is incorrect as according to article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
60. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect as members of Rajya Sabha can become cabinet ministers. Statement 2 is incorrect as Cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the PM.
61. (b) According to Article 70 the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 is made by the President of India under Article 77 of the constitution for the allocation of business of the government of India.
The Ministries/ Departments of the government of India are created by the president on the advice of the prime Minister under these Rules.
62. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate General of the state is appointed by the governor of the State. Statement 2 is correct. The original civil jurisdiction of the High Courts has not altogether been abolised but retained in respect of actions of higher value.
The Original Criminal Jurisdiction of High Courts has, however, been completely taken away by the criminal procedure code, 1973.
63. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as CAT was set up in 1985 during the prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.
64. (a) The number of ministeries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.
65(b) A trademark is a distinctive sign or indicator used by an individual, business organization, or other legal entity to identify that the products or services to consumers with which the trademark appears originate from a unique source, and to distinguish its products or services from those of other entities. The owner of a registered trademark may commence legal proceedings for trademark infringement to prevent unauthorized use of that trademark. However, registration is not required.
66. (c) It included recommendations for Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.
67. (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.
68. (d) If annual union budget is not passed by the LOK SABHA, it is tantamount to no confidence motion. So the govt submits the resignation of his council of ministers.
69. (b) Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.
70. (a) Adjournment motion :
(i) It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(ii) It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house.
(iii) It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha cannot introduce Adjournment Motion.
(iv) The discussion on adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
71. (d) None of the above statements are correct
(i) Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
(ii) It is not within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the Supreme Court and High Court which look into the disputes.
(iii) According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.
72. (b) If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his / her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is elected by the Lok-Sabha from amongst its Members. Usually the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok-Sabha.
73. (c) Inclusive governance Means that the benefit of governance Should reach the down trodden and to the last corner of the country.
Provisions given in option 2, 3 and 4 leads to the inclusive governance.
Permitting the Non-Banking Financial companies to do banking is not directly linked to the inclusive governance.
74. (c) Only 2nd and 3rd are correct statements.
(2) CAG reports on execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
(3) Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finance.
75. (a) Article 75(I) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without hisher being a member of either House of the Parliament at the time of appointment. However he/she has to become a Member of either house of parliament with in Six Months from the date of his/her appointment as prime-minister.
76. (a) Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary Machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill.
The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills of financial bills only and not to Money bills or constitutional amendment bills.
77. (a) When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.
78. (c)
79. (c) The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.
80. (d) Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.
81. (a) Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. The cabinet is headed by the prime minister and is advised by the cabinet secretary who also acts as the head of Indian Administrative service.
82. (b) Article – 75 (4) : The ministers Shall hold office during the pleasure of the president.
Article – 75 (5) : The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok-Sabha.
Article–78 (2) : Prime minister shall furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation on the president may call far.
83. (b)
84. (a) Clause (3) of Article 77 (“Conduct of Business of the Government of India”) of the Constitution of India lays down as follows: “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
The Constitution of India mentions that, “All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. ” Therefore, only option (a) is correct.
85. (b) It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.
86. (c) Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Loksabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no-confidence motion. But the word “no confidence motion” itself is not mentioned in Constitution. It comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. No confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok Sabha.
87. (b) The largest Committee is the committee of Estimates, given its 30 members

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88. (b) The governor has Constitutional discretion in cases of Reservation of bill for consideration of the President and Recommendation of the imposition of President’s rule. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. Moreover Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. So Governor doesn’t have “Discretion” in appointment of the minister. Therefore 2 is wrong .
89. (c) The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat includes preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in budget is the task of finance ministry.
90. (c) A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority.
91. (d) The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
92. (c) The department of economic affairs under the ministry of finance is responsible for the preparation of union Budget that is presented to the parliament.
•Consolidated fund of India is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited.
•No money can be appropriated (issued or drawn) out of the consolidated fund of India without the authorization from the parliament of India.
Public account of India is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.
93. (d) The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions. The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.
94. (b) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants ( which is the exclusive privilage of the Lok-Sabha.
95. (a) In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill.
If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of member both the houses present and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses.
96. (d) The Executive powers of the Union of India is vested in the President. The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.
97. (a) NEW NCERT Class 8 Civics, Chapter 3, page 32
The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i. e. the desire, approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning.
So, since democracy requires voters’ decision making- hence intelligence and character are called in. hence answer “A”
98. (a) NEW NCERT Class 11, Political Science, page 45.
•First step towards bringing about equality is of course ending the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste system in India prevented people from the ‘lower’ castes from doing anything except manual labour. In many countries only people from some families could occupy high positions. Attainment of equality requires that all such restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end.
99. (b) MIND IT: you’ve to find the wrong statements here- they’re the right answers.
•when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Meaning “2” is definitely the consequence of proclamation. Hence all options involving “2” are wrong. Hence by elimination we are left with answer “B”: 1 and 3 only.
100. (d) Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states unlike the American federation. So, “D” is not the feature of Indian federalism.
101. (b) Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
102. (c) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, page 91: Parliamentary system is also known as Cabinet Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. Hence answer “C”.
103. (b) NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics: Chapter 5: Working of the institutions, page 87
•Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, (hence) the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet form of government. Hence “B” is the answer.
104. (d) The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc. and Supplementary questions can be asked during the question hour. Therefore, all three are correct.
105. (d) Private member’s bill as a bill introduced by any member of the parliament who’s not a minister. Hence first statement is wrong.
•The Indian Express report in 2016 says only 14 private members bill have been passed since 1952. So statement 2 is also wrong.
106. (c)
107. (d) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution Chapter 3: Election and Representation, Page 57: India has first past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the election may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes. Statement #1 is wrong.
Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Meaning it’s an ‘informal consensus’ among political parties, and not Constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
108. (c) New NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics, Page 109: Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right.
New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, Page 66 one of the important decisions of the framers of India Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India, the right to vote. (Article 326)
Combining the interpretation of both textbooks, “C” is the answer.
109. (d) Election Commission has three election Commissioners.
Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Hence answer “D” only 3.
 

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