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Chapter 09. Indian Polity & Constitution (UPSC IAS CSE Civil Services CSAT Prelims Paper-1 Topicwise Previous Year Papers)

Chapter 09. Indian Polity & Constitution (UPSC IAS CSE Civil Services CSAT Prelims Paper-1 Topicwise Previous Year Papers)

1. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India? (1995)
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
2. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?(1995)
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council in a State
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
3. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?(1995)
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?(1995)
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature Council of a State
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
5. What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention? (1995)
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
6. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?(1997)
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment:
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?(1997)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
8. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?(1997)
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
9. In the following quotation,
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution. ”,
‘X’ stands for:(1997)
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
10. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?(1998)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
11. The Constitution of India recognises:(1999)
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
12. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:(1999)
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?(1999)
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
13. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:(1999)
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the:(2000)
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural areas
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination
15. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?(2001)
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351
16. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?(2001)
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:(2001)
 

List-IList-II
(Amendments to(Provisions)
the Constitution)
A.The Constitution1.Establishment of state
(Sixty-ninth Amendment)level Rent Tribunals
Act, 1991
B.The Constitution2.No reservations for
(Seventy-fifthScheduled Castes in
Amendment)Panchayats in
Act. 1994Arunachal Pradesh
C.The Constitution3.Constitution of
(Eighteenth Amendment)Panchayats in Villages
or at other local level
Act, 2000
D.The Constitution4.Accepting the
(Eighty-third Amendment)
Act, 2000
recommendations of
the Tenth Finance Commission
5.According the status
of National Capital
Territory to Delhi

Codes:
(a) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
18. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?(2001)
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: (2001)

List-IList-II
(Article of the(Content)
Constitution)
A. Article 541.Election of the President of India
B. Article 752.Appointment of the Prime Minister
C. Article 1553.Appointment of the Governor of a State
D. Article 1644.Appointment of the Chief
Minister and Council of
Ministers of a State
5.Composition of Legislative Assemblies

Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
20. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?(2002)
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
21. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:(2002)
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
22. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:(2002)
List-I List-II
(Article of Indian (Provisions)
Constitution)
A. Article 16 (2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29 (2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
C. Article 30 (I) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31 (I) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them
Codes :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
23. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:(2002)
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
24. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?(2002)
(a) 51
(b) 48 A
(c) 43 A
(d) 41
25. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:(2003)
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
26. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002) ?(2003)
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
27. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002) ?(2003)
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
28. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?(2003)
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
(2003)
List-I (Item in theList-II (Country from
Indian Constitution) which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles1. Australia
of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in 3. Ireland
Union-State Relations
D. India as a Union of 4. United Kingdom
States with greater
powers to the Union
5. United States of America
Codes:
(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2
(b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
(c) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
30. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?(2003)
(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd
31. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?(2003)
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
32. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?(2004)
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
33. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?(2004)
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355(d) Article 358
34. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:(2004)
List-IList II
A. Article 141. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term
B. Article 152. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
C. Article 163. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden
D. Article 174. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State
Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
35. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?(2004)
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
36. Consider the following statements:(2005)
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. Consider the following statements:(2005)
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single cititzenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
38. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to: (2005)
(a) empowering the centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001
(c) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.
39. Consider the following statements:(2005)
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
40. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? (2005)
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
41. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?(2006)
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public Health
42. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill related to?(2006)
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states.
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India.
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government.
43. Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?(2006)
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
( c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
44. Consider the following statements:(2006)
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age-group by the State by the seventy-sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
45. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?(2007)
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
46. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy?(2008)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains :
Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?(2008)
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
48. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?(2008)
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
49. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?(2009)
(a) 90th
(b) 91st
(c) 92 nd
(d) 93 rd
50. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following :(2010)
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of the State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
51. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty ?(2011 – I)
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
52. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :(2012 – I)
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?(2012 – I)
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
54. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?(2012 – I)
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
55. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?(2012 – I)
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?(2012 – I)
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Act provided in the(2012 – I)
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
58. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were(2013 – I)
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
59. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?(2013 – I)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
60. Consider the following statements:(2013 – I)
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?(2013 – I)
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Consider the following statements:(2013 – I)
1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
63. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in(2013 – I)
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
64. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?(2014 – I)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
65. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the (2014 – I)
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
66. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to(2015-I)
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
67. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?(2015-I)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme court of India
68. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the(2015-I)
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
69. The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its(2015-I)
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
70. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:(2015-I)
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
(2016-I)
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
72. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?(2017-I)
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
73. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?(2017-I)
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
74. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
(2017-I)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
75. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(2017-I)
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
76. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?(2017-I)
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(2017-I)
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
78. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?(2017-I)
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
79. Consider the following statements:(2017-I)
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 

Solutions

1. (b) Best answer is 1, 2 and 3. Because only Inter State Council is a constitutional body under article 263. So option 4 should not be included.
2. (a) Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a council or for the creation of such a council in a state having no such council, if the Legislative Assembly of the state passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting.
3. (d) According to Article 156, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
4. (a) Abolition of Legislative Council of a state does not need the ratification of not less than one half states. Under Art. 169, it has been mentioned that Parliament can create or abolish the council if that every State passes a resolution to do so with special majority. So drop point 4.
5. (b) PM resigns, if he loses the majority in the house is a convention and not mentioned in the constitution. Conventions are unwritten practices which are binding on the three organs of the State. Unlike the President, the Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenure. The full term of the Prime Minister is five years, which coincides with the normal life of the Lok Sabha. However, the term can end sooner if he loses the vote of confidence in the Lower House. So, it can be said that he remains in power as long as he enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister can also resign by writing to the President. There are no term limits on the office of the Prime Minister. There is also no official retirement age.
6. (c) Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
7. (d) Assertion is wrong as reservation for women in Parliament and state legislature would require a constitutional amendment.
8. (b) Statement 1 is correct as per provisions under Article 59. Statement 2 is correct as according to Article 79, Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
9. (b) The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.
10. (d) Tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.
11. (c) The Constitution of India recognizes religious and linguistic minorities under article 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational rights) . However it does not define the term Minority.
12. (d) An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require the President’s recommendation.
13. (b) Statement 3 is incorrect as a candidate shall not be allowed to contest from more than two constituencies, it also adds options 1 and 2.
14. (c) 73rd Amendment Act added Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for the Panchayati Raj System.
15. (c) Article 350A was inserted by 7th Constitutional Amendment act 1956. It says, it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Article 349 – Special Procedure for enactment of certain laws relating to language; Article 350 – Language to be used in representations for redress of grievances; Article 351 – Directive for development of the Hindi language.
16. (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i. e. Rajya Sabha.
17. (a)
18. (a) First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that’s why it should be amended, if a new state is created.
19. (a)
20. (d) 44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74(1) stated that, “there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions”. However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, “act in accordance with such advice”. The amendment went into effect from 3 January, 1977. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.
21. (b) According to 93rd Amendment every Child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have right to free and compulsory Education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ capitation fee/ charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.
22. (a) These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitutionm, runs from Art 14 – 32.
23. (d) The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.
24. (a) This comes under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Constitution. Article 51 states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.
25. (a) Ninth Schedule was added by First Amendment Act of 1951, which relates to Land Reforms.
26. (c) President can issue Ordinance under Article 123.
27. (b) Article 143 provides power to the President to consult the Supreme Court.
28. (d) According Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
29. (d) Borrowed features from different countries are correct.
30. (c) 7th Amendment Act 1956 provides for composition of the House of the People and re-adjustment after every census. 31st amendment act 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.
31. (a) The ‘First Schedule’ of the constitution deals with list of States and Union Territories.
32. (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i. e. Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament) .
33. (a) Article 257 in the Constitution states that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on the States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies.
34. (c) These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.
35. (a) Article 24 of the constitution states that, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
36. (a)
37. (d) Article 371 A to I deals with special provisions to -Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.
38. (b) The Constitution 98th Amendment Bill, 2003, seeks to constitute a National Judicial Commission (NJC) by including Chapter IV-A in Part V of the Constitution which will be in charge of appointing judges to the higher judiciary and for transferring High Court Judges.
39. (c) The Constitution of India has 24 parts, 12 schedules and more than 444 articles at present. In the original constitution, there were 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
40. (c) Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly: Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru, Drafting Committee – B R Ambedkar, Flag Committee – J B Kriplani, Fundamental Rights and Minority Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel, Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabh Bhai Patel. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee.
41. (a) Agriculture (Entry 14) , Fisheries (Entry 21) , Public Health (Entry 6) are in the State List. Regulation of Labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list under Entry 55 (Art 246) .
42. (c) The Indian Parliament has passed the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill, providing reservations for the socially and educationally backward classes, besides the Scheduled Classes and Scheduled Tribes, in all private aided and unaided educational institutions.
43. (c) Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission under Article 324.
44. (c) Statement 1 is incorrect as this provision was added by 86th Amendment Act (not 76th ) .
45. (a) The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
46. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as it is a Fundamental Right under article 23 of Part III of the constitution. Statement 2 corresponds to Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 47 under Part IV of the Constitution.
47. (b) Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. While Sixth Schedule deals with administration and control of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
48. (c) 92nd Amendment Act 2003 added Bodo, Santhali, Maithali and Dogri languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution. Originally there were 14 languages in the 8th schedule. 21st amendment act added Sindhi language. 71st amendment act added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages.
49. (b) The above provision has been added by 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003.
50. (b) The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995 represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to Work, to Education and to Public Assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution.
51. (a) To vote in public elections is not a fundamental duty.
52. (b) Organizing village Panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas are the Gandhian principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
53. (b) Rajyasabha can pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws in the state list and to create one or more All India Services. This is a special power that has been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the constitution.
54. (d) The items DPSP, Rural and Urban Local Bodies, 6th Schedule, 7th Schedule provide provision for education.
55. (c) CAG gives three audit reports to president which are laid by the president before both the houses of the parliament. Subsequently the Public Accounts committee examines them and reports its findings to the parliament.
56. (c) All the statements except 2 regarding the Fundamental Duties of citizens are correct.
57. (c) Distribution of power between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Government of India Act. 1935.
58. (c) The members of the constituent Assembly from the provinces were indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
59. (c) Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and State government of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure the performance of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
60. (d) An amendment to the constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in either house of the parliament.
If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of at least half of the states.
61. (d) National Development council is not a constitutional body. It is an extra-constitutional body. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by the Govt. of India in 1950 by a resolution. Zonal councils were set up under the states Re-Organization Act, 1956 (So it is not a constitutional body) to faster inter-state co-operation and co-ordination among the states.
Currently there are total five zonal councils viz Northern, Western, Eastern, Central and Southern.
62. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government. Planning for economic development and social justice is one such power given to village panchayats. There are 52 items in the concurrent list. Economic and social planning is placed under entry no. 20. Article -40 of the constitution of India has the provision for organisation of vilage panchayats Directive Principles of state policy lays down that the state shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.
Accordingly village panchayats have been entrusted with the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
The national development council includes members of the planning commission, but it is a separate body.
63. (b) The Preamble to the Constitution of India in its introductory statement says- “Justice- Social, Economic and Political” and the Directive Principles of state policies aim to create social and economic condition under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
64. (d) The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, added 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often referred to as anti-defection law.
65. (b) Promotion of international peace and security is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 51 of constitution that mentions to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlements of international disputes by arbitration.
66. (a) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in these areas. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
67. (d) The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of the custodian of the Constitution.
68. (d) The idea behind incorporation of fundamental duties was to remind the citizens of the country that they have certain obligations towards the country and society. The fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There were ten fundamental duties at the time of incorporation but the eleventh was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is one of the fundamental duty mentioned in the constitution.
69. (b)
70. (c)
71. (d) Given verbatim in Disha Publications Crack CSAT Paper-1, 2016(4th Edition) Page p-101
•If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-third of its members present and voting.
72. (b) Read the preamble given in any school textbook: “We, the people of India,. . . . LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship…”So, “B” is the answer.
73. (a) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, had said ‘The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long. ” So “A” is the answer.
74. (c) Prof. DD Basu classifies fundamental right in following manner:

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So by elimination, we are left with answer 1 and 4 only.
75. (c) New NCERT,Std. 11, Political Theory Chapter 5: Rights , Page 72
•Through these rights, people make demands upon the state. So, “C” is most fitting answer.
76. (d) At present there are no laws for enforcing the the duty to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform or to enforce the fundamental duty to strive towards excellence. So, first statement wrong.
The list of fundamental duties does not cover other important duties like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning etc. so second statement also wrong.
77. (a) Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable, hence A is the answer.
78. (b) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39) .
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A) .
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A) .
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A) .
79. (d) The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. Noted constitutional author Granville Austin considers DPSP as “positive obligations” of the state. Since both the statements are wrong, answer is (d) .
 

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