28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(4) Griffith
Ans: (1)
2. Mutations used in agriculture are commonly
(1) induced
(2) spontaneous
(3) lethal
(4) recessive and lethal
Ans: (1)
3. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?
(1) t-RNA
(2) m-RNA
(3) mi-RNA
(4) r-RNA
Ans: (4)
4. DNA fragments are:
(1) Negatively charged
(2) Neutral
(3) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
(4) Positively charged
Ans: (1)
5. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as
(1) Polysome
(2) Polymer
(3) Polypeptide
(4) Okazaki fragment
Ans: (1)
6. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:
(1) DNA replication is occurring.
(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
(3) The DNA double helix is exposed.
(4) Transcription is occurring.
Ans: (2)
7. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
(1) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
(2) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(3) Chargaff ’s rule
(4) Complementary base pairing
Ans: (3)
8. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
Ans: (2)
9. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
(1) Pyrimidine
(2) Nucleoside
(3) Nucleotide
(4) Purine
Ans: (2)
10. Transformation was discovered by:
(1) Meselson and Stahl
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Griffith
(4) Watson and Crick
Ans: (3)
11. Infectious proteins are present in:
(1) Gemini viruses
(2) Prions
(3) Viroids
(4) Satellite viruses
Ans: (2)
12. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a
(1) bacterium
(2) fungus
(3) viroid
(4) bacterial virus
Ans: (4)
13. T.O. Diener discovered a:
(1) free infectious DNA
(2) infectious protein
(3) bacteriophage
(4) free infectious RNA
Ans: (4)
14. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Pea
(2) Mucor
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) HIV
Ans: (4)
15. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
(1) super-coiling in nucleosomes
(2) DNase digestion
(3) through elimination of repititive DNA
(4) deletion of non-essential genes.
Ans: (1)
16. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it?
(1) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
(2) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines
(3) Guanine, Adenine – Purines
(4) Adenine, Thymine – Purines
Ans: (4)
17. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
(1) AATT
(2) CACC
(3) TATA
(4) TTAA
Ans: (3)
18. A sequential expression of a set of human genes
(1) messenger RNA
(2) DNA sequence
(3) ribosome
(4) transfer RNA.
Ans: (2)
19. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is transcribed over mRNA as
(1) GUCTUTCG
(2) GACUAUCG
(3) GAUTATUG
(4) UACTATCU
Ans: (2)
20. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(1) discontinuous
(2) antiparallel
(3) semi-conservative
(4) parallel.
Ans: (2)
21. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf ?
(1) rRNA
(2) hn RNA
(3) m RNA
(4) t RNA
Ans: (4)
22. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) peroxisome and ribosome
(2) chloroplast and mitochondria
(3) mitochondria and ribosome
(4) chloroplast and lysosome
Ans: (2)
23. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be the percentage of guanine?
(1) 20%
(2) 40%
(3) 30%
(4) 60%
Ans: (3)
24. Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?
(1) E.coli
(2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella
(4) Pasteurella pestis
Ans: (2)
25. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980 the evolution was termed as RNA world?
(1) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise proteins
(2) In some virus RNA the genetic material
(3) RNA have enzymatic property
(4) RNA is not found in all cells
Ans: (3)
26. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in
(1) Killer strain in Paramecium
(2) Colour blindness
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Tay sach disease
Ans: (1)
27. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pairs?
(1) AG-CT
(2) AC-GT
(3) AT-GC
(4) All of these
Ans: (3)
28. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears
(1) L-shaped
(2) E-shaped
(3) Y-shaped
(4) S-shaped
Ans: (1)
29. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the haploid genome of humans?
(1) 2.9 × 109
(2) 4 × 108
(3) 7 × 109
(4) 3 × 109
Ans: (4)
30. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that
(1) DNA is the genetic material
(2) Bacteria undergo binary fission
(3) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(4) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA and proteins
Ans: (1)
31. Reverse transcriptase is
(1) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Ans: (4)
32. The eukaryotic genome differs from the prokaryotic genome because
(1) genes in the former case are organized into operons
(2) the DNA is complexed with histones in prokaryotes
(3) repetitive sequences are present in eukaryotes
(4) the DNA is circular and single stranded in prokaryotes
Ans: (2)
33. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably be
(1) single stranded
(2) double stranded
(3) triple stranded
(4) four stranded
Ans: (1)
34. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by
(1) X-ray crystallography
(2) electron microscope
(3) ultracentrifuge
(4) light microscope
Ans: (1)
35. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty was
(1) mRNA
(2) DNA
(3) protein
(4) polysaccharide
Ans: (2)
36. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(1) Griffith
(2) Watson
(3) Boveri and Sutton
(4) Hershey and Chase
Ans: (4)
37. A nucleotide is formed of
(1) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(2) purine, sugar and phosphate
(3) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(4) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
Ans: (3)
38. Nucleosome core is made of
(1) H1, H2A, H2B and H3
(2) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
(3) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(4) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
Ans: (4)
39. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork.
Ans: (3)
40. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?
(1) 11
(2) 33
(3) 333
(4) 1
Ans: (2)
41. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called :
(1) Duplication
(2) Translocation
(3) Crossing over
(4) Inversion
Ans: (2)
42. Which one of the following is the starter codon?
(1) AUG
(2) UGA
(3) UAA
(4) UAG
Ans: (1)
43. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?
(1) Universal
(2) Non-overlapping
(3) Ambiguous
(4) Degeneracy
Ans: (3)
44. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(1) Transcription – Writing information from DNA to tRNA.
(2) Translation – Using information in mRNA to make protein
(3) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis.
(4) Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter.
Ans: (1)
45. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA ?
(1) The inducer
(2) A terminator
(3) A promoter
(4) The structural gene
Ans: (1)
46. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of :
(1) t RNA
(2) hn RNA
(3) m RNA
(4) r RNA
Ans: (1)
47. Read the following four statements (A-D).
(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
Ans: (1)
48. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called :
(1) Looping
(2) Inducing
(3) Slicing
(4) Splicing
Ans: (4)
49. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being:
(1) degenerate
(2) ambiguous
(3) universal
(4) specific
Ans: (2)
50. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand. What is so special shown in it? 5’ —— GAATTC —— 3’ 3’ —— CTTAAG —— 5’
(1) Replication completed
(2) Deletion mutation
(3) Start codon at the 5’ end
(4) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
Ans: (4)
51. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
(1) tailing
(2) transformation
(3) capping
(4) splicing
Ans: (4)
52. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is nearly universal
(2) It is degenerate
(3) It is unambiguous
(4) A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion
Ans: (4)
53. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid?
(1) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(2) UAG, UGA-Stop
(3) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(4) UUA, UCA-Leucine
Ans: (2)
54. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a ‘triplet’ .
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) Morgan and Sturtevant
(3) Beadle and Tantum
(4) Nirenberg and Mathaei
Ans: (4)
55. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by
(1) ribosome
(2) transcription factor
(3) anticodon
(4) RNA polymerase.
Ans: (4)
56. Polysome is formed by
(1) several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(2) many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
(3) a ribosome with several subunits
(4) ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
Ans: (1)
57. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of
(1) frame shift mutation
(2) transcription
(3) transition
(4) transversion
Ans: (3)
58. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
(1) simple protein
(2) RNA
(3) ribonucleoprotein
(4) repetitive DNA
Ans: (3)
59. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) RNA primers are involved
(2) is facilitated by telomerase
(3) moves in one direction of the site
(4) moves in bi-directional way
Ans: (4)
60. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of
(1) thymine rich repeats
(2) cytosine rich repeats
(3) adenine rich repeats
(4) guanine rich repeats
Ans: (3)
61. Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’codon ?
(1) UAC – Tyrosine
(2) UCG – Start
(3) UUU – Stop
(4) UGU – Leucine
Ans: (1)
62. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in
(1) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
(2) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(3) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(4) association of 30 S-mRNA with formylmet- tRNA
Ans: (4)
63. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids ?
(1) 60
(2) 20
(3) 64
(4) 61
Ans: (4)
64. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
(UAU) is mutated to UAA?
(1) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
(2) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(3) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(4) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
Ans: (2)
65. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
(1) degeneracy of genetic code
(2) overlapping of gene
(3) wobbling of codon
(4) universility of codons
Ans: (1)
66. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the
(1) third member of a codon
(2) first member of a codon
(3) second member of a codon
(4) entire codon
Ans: (1)
67. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus for RNA synthesis?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans: (3)
68. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for
(1) protein
(2) lipid
(3) carbohydrate
(4) phospholipid
Ans: (1)
69. Mutation generally produces
(1) polygenes
(2) dominant genes
(3) recessive genes
(4) lethal genes
Ans: (4)
70. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
(1) one cistron contains many genes
(2) one gene contains many cistrons
(3) one gene contains one cistron
(4) one gene contains no cistron
Ans: (3)
71. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome is to
(1) indentify the correct number of the homologous pair of chromosomes
(2) help two chromatids to move towards poles
(3) “seal” the ends of chromosomes
(4) start RNA synthesis
Ans: (3)
72. Protein synthesis occurs
(1) on ribosmes present in cytosol as well as in mitochondria
(2) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum
(3) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
(4) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as cytoplasm
Ans: (2)
73. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in eucaryotes) is
(1) GUA
(2) GCA
(3) CCA
(4) AUG
Ans: (4)
74. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of
(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) sRNA
Ans: (3)
75. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations?
(1) Adenine
(2) 5-bromouracil
(3) 5-methylcytosine
(4) Guanine
Ans: (3)
76. DNA replication is
(1) conservative and discontinuous
(2) semiconservative and semi discontinuous
(3) semiconservative and discontinuous
(4) conservative
Ans: (2)
77. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
(1) Operator genes
(2) Redundant genes
(3) Regulator genes
(4) Polymorphic genes
Ans: (1)
78. DNA elements which can switch their position are called
(1) exons
(2) introns
(3) cistrons
(4) transposons
Ans: (4)
79. Three codons causing chain termination are
(1) TAG, TAA, TGA
(2) GAT, AAT, AGT
(3) AGT, TAG, UGA
(4) UAG, UGA, UAA
Ans: (4)
80. Which step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond ?
(1) Translocation
(2) Amino acid activation
(3) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active ribosomal site
Ans: (3)
81. If a completely radioactive double stranded DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of replication in a non-radioactive medium, what will be the radioactive status of the four resulting molecules?
(1) Half the number contain no radioactivity
(2) All four still contain radioactivity
(3) Three out of four contain radioactivity
(4) Radioactivity is lost from all four
Ans: (1)
82. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of a gene, produces a non-functional protein.
Such a mutation is called
(1) nonsense mutation
(2) missense mutation
(3) frameshift mutation
(4) reverse mutation
Ans: (2)
83. During development of an organism, the product of one gene is required to activate another gene. Such gene products are called
(1) transcription factors
(2) episomes
(3) coenzymes
(4) catalase
Ans: (1)
84. Different mutations referrable to the same locus of a chromosome give rise to
(1) multiple alleles
(2) pseudoalleles
(3) polygenes
(4) oncogenes
Ans: (1)
85. Okazaki fragments are seen during
(1) transcription
(2) translation
(3) replication
(4) transduction
Ans: (3)
86. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA, some of its nucleotides are removed before it is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides which are removed from mRNA are called
(1) exons
(2) upstream sequences
(3) unusual bases
(4) introns
Ans: (4)
87. In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(1) introns
(2) operons
(3) exons
(4) cistrons
Ans: (3)
88. The translation termination triplet is
(1) UAU
(2) UAA
(3) UAC
(4) UGC.
Ans: (2)
89. Which is not involved in protein synthesis ?
(1) Transcription
(2) Initition
(3) Elongation
(4) Termination
Ans: (4)
90. Protein helping in opening of DNA double helix in form of replication fork is
(1) DNA gyrase
(2) DNA polymerase I
(3) DNA ligase
(4) DNA topoisomerase
Ans: (1)
91. The number of base substitution possible in amino acid codons is
(1) 261
(2) 264
(3) 535
(4) 549
Ans: (4)
92. Reverse transcriptase is
(1) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
Ans: (4)
93. The process of translation is
(1) ribosome synthesis
(2) protein synthesis
(3) dNA synthesis
(4) rNA synthesis
Ans: (2)
94. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in alternate valency state owing to arrangement called
(1) analogue substitution
(2) tautomerisational mutation
(3) frame-shift mutation
(4) point mutation
Ans: (2)
95. Because most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon, the genetic code is
(1) overlapping
(2) wobbling
(3) degenerate
(4) generate
Ans: (3)
96. During DNA replication, the strands separate by
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) topoisomerase
(3) unwindase/Helicase
(4) gyrase
Ans: (3)
97. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
(1) serine and isoleucine
(2) cysteine and valine
(3) tyrosine and tryptophan
(4) phenylalanine and methionine
Ans: (2)
98. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria have
(1) different density and do not resemble parent DNA
(2) different density but resemble parent DNA
(3) same density and resemble parent DNA
(4) same density but do not resemble parent DNA
Ans: (1)
99. The process of transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is
(1) transversion
(2) transcription
(3) translation
(4) translocation
Ans: (2)
100. Experimental material in the study of DNA replication has been
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Neurospora crassa
(3) Pneumococcus
(4) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans: (1)
101. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms
(1) endosome
(2) nucleosome
(3) mesosome
(4) centromere
Ans: (2)
102. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as
(1) 64 amino acids are to be coded
(2) 64 types of tRNAs are present
(3) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense codons
(4) genetic code is triplet.
Ans: (4)
103. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of;
(1) Fungi
(2) Animals
(3) Bacteria
(4) Plants
Ans: (3)
104. Genetic code consists of
(1) adenine and guanine
(2) cytosine and uracil
(3) cytosine and guanine
(4) all the above
Ans: (4)
105. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :
(1) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(2) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription
(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off trascription
(4) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose
Ans: (1)
106. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) Lactose
(4) Lactose and galactose
Ans: (3)
107. Select the correct option: Direction of RNA Direction of reading of synthesis the template DNA strand
(1) 5´—3´ 3´—5´
(2) 3´—5´ 5´—3´
(3) 5´—3´ 5´—3´
(4) 3´—5´ 3´—5´
Ans: (1)
108. Satellite DNA is important because it :
(1) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(2) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(3) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(4) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
Ans: (1)
109. In an inducible operon, the genes are
(1) Always expressed
(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them “on”
(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them “off ”
(4) Never expressed
Ans: (2)
110. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
(1) Lactose permease
(2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transcetylase
(4) - galactosidase
Ans: (4)
111. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon.
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
(ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod The correct statements are:
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)
Ans: (3)
112. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell ?
(1) 5s rRNA
(2) sn RNA
(3) hn RNA
(4) 23s rRNA
Ans: (4)
113. In the DNA molecule
(1) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(2) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5′→3′direction
(3) the proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(4) there are two strands which run anti parallel one in 5′→3′direction and other in 3′→5′
Ans: (4)
114. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans: (1)
115. One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium
(2) Escherichia coli
(3) Diplocococcus pneumoniae
(4) Neurospora crassa.
Ans: (4)
116. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
(1) polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
(2) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
(3) polymerize in the 5’ – to – 3’ direction and explain 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication
(4) result in transcription.
Ans: (3)
117. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because:
(1) the lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(2) they cannot synthesize functional betagalactosidase
(3) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do not utilize lactose
(4) they cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
Ans: (2)
118. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by
(1) Hershey and Chase
(2) A. Garrod
(3) Beadle and Tatum
(4) R. Franklin
Ans: (3)
119. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA?
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
Ans: (3)
120. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at that point. What is that sequence called?
(1) AAAT box
(2) TATA box
(3) GGTT box
(4) CAAT box
Ans: (2)
121. What does “lac” refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) The number 1,00,000
(2) Lactose
(3) Lactase
(4) Lac insect
Ans: (2)
122. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
(1) enhancer
(2) transgene
(3) promoter
(4) reporter
Ans: (2)
123. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor binds to
(1) regulator gene
(2) operator gene
(3) structural gene
(4) promoter gene
Ans: (2)
124. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(1) enhancer
(2) promoter
(3) regulator
(4) receptor
Ans: (2)
125. In negative operon
(1) co-repressor binds with repressor
(2) co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(3) co-repressor binds with inducer
(4) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon
Ans: (1)
126. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E.coli and proposed operon concept.
Operon concept is applicable for
(1) all prokaryotes
(2) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(3) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
(4) all prokaryotes and some protozoans
Ans: (2)
127. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the process at different levels and at different time due to
(1) promoter
(2) regulator
(3) intron
(4) exon
Ans: (2)
128. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template ?
(1) 5′ → 3′
(2) 3′ → 5′
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Any
Ans: (1)
129. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to ribosome during protein synthesis is called
(1) mRNA
(2) tRNA
(3) rRNA
(4) carrier RNA
Ans: (2)
130. In operon concept , regulator gene functions as
(1) repressor
(2) regulator
(3) inhibitor
(4) all of these
Ans: (1)
131. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a
(1) regulator
(2) inducer
(3) depressor
(4) controlling element
Ans: (2)
132. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes takes place?
(1) The lac operon is repressed
(2) All operons are induced
(3) The lac operon is induced
(4) E.coli cells stop dividing
Ans: (3)
133. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(1) lactose
(2) promoter gene
(3) -galactosidase
(4) I-gene
Ans: (1)
134. The lac operon is an example of
(1) arabinose operon
(2) inducible operon
(3) repressible operon
(4) overlapping genes
Ans: (2)
135. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present ?
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2) Zinc finger analysis
(3) Restriction enzymes
(4) DNA-DNA hybridization
Ans: (2)
136. Binding of specific protein on regulatory DNA sequence can be studied by means of
(1) ultra centrifugation
(2) electron microscope
(3) light microscope
(4) X-ray crystallography
Ans: (4)
137. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA Finger printing?
(1) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA.
(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
Ans: (2)
138. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is
(1) AFLP
(2) VNTR
(3) SSCP
(4) SCAR
Ans: (2)
139. Satellite DNA is useful tool in:
(1) organ transplantation
(2) sex determination
(3) forensic science
(4) genetic engineering
Ans: (3)
140. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of :
(1) biotechnology
(2) biomonitoring
(3) bioinformatics
(4) biosystematics
Ans: (3)
141. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is
(1) occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
(2) phenotypic differences between individuals
(3) availability of cloned DNA
(4) knowledge of human karyotype
Ans: (1)
142. DNA fingerprinting refers to
(1) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(2) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(3) techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(4) techniques us ed for identification of fingerprints of individuals
Ans: (1)
143. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?
(1) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(2) Wing of a Moth
(3) Hind limb of Rabbit
(4) Flipper of Whale
Ans: (4)

27. Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi.
Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
Ans: (2)
2. Amniocentesis is a technique
(1) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated
(2) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected
(3) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed
(4) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus
Ans: (2)
3. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?
(1) 1840 – 1850
(2) 1857 – 1869
(3) 1870 – 1877
(4) 1856 – 1863
Ans: (4)
4. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?
(1) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
(2) Seed – Green or Yellow →d →d →d
(3) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
(4) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
Ans: (1)
5. Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option : Column-I Column-II
(A) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character
(B) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself
(C) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully
(D) Polygenic (iv) A single gene inheritance influences many characters
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Ans: (2)
6. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf
(3) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf
(4) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall
Ans: (1)
7. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments ?
(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Seven
(4) Five
Ans: (3)
8. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates
(1) the two genes are located on two different chromosomes.
(2) chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
(3) the two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
(4) both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
Ans: (3)
9. Alleles are
(1) true breeding homozygotes
(2) different molecular forms of a gene
(3) heterozygotes
(4) different phenotype
Ans: (2)
10. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of sexually reproducing organism?
(1) Chromosomal aberrations
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Recombination
(4) Transduction
Ans: (3)
11. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offsprings ?
(1) A,B and AB only
(2) A,B,AB and O
(3) O only
(4) A and B only
Ans: (2)
12. In his classic experiments on Pea plants, Mendel did not use
(1) Pod length
(2) Seed shape
(3) Flower position
(4) Seed colour
Ans: (1)
13. A gene showing codominance has:
(1) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome
(2) alleles that are recessive to each other
(3) both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
(4) one allele dominant on the other
Ans: (3)
14. Multiple alleles are present :
(1) At different loci on the same chromosome
(2) At the same locus of the chromosome
(3) On non-sister chromatids
(4) On different chromosomes
Ans: (2)
15. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is:
(1) 0.4
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.7
Ans: (3)
16. Fruit colour in squash in an example of :
(1) Recessive epistasis
(2) Dominant epistasis
(3) Complementary genes
(4) Inhibitory genes
Ans: (2)
17. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?
(1) Law of dominance
(2) Inheritance of one gene
(3) Co-dominance
(4) Incomplete dominance
Ans: (3)
18. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of :
(1) incomplete dominance
(2) Partial dominance
(3) Complete cominance
(4) Codominance
Ans: (4)
19. Genetic variation in a population arises due to
(1) Mutations only
(2) Recombination only
(3) Mutations as well as recombination
(4) Reproductive isolation and selection
Ans: (3)
20. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?
(1) The genes are tightly linked
(2) The genes show independent assortment
(3) If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis
(4) The genes may be on different chromosomes
Ans: (1)
21. A test cross is carried out to
(1) determine the genotype of a plant at F2.
(2) predict whether two traits are linked.
(3) assess the number of alleles of a gene.
(4) determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully.
Ans: (1)
22. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at once offers his blood.What was the blood group of the donor?
(1) Blood group B
(2) Blood group AB
(3) Blood group O
(4) Blood group A
Ans: (3)
23. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents. This phenomenon is called:
(1) heterosis
(2) transformation
(3) splicing
(4) metamorphosis
Ans: (1)
24. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of:
(1) Co-dominance
(2) Dihybrid cross
(3) Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
(4) Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
Ans: (4)
25. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves crossing
(1) between two genotypes with recessive trait
(2) between two F1 hybrids
(3) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype.
(4) between two genotypes with dominant trait
Ans: (3)
26. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type offers blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
(1) Type B
(2) Type AB
(3) Type O
(4) Type A
Ans: (3)
27. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of Dominance?
(1) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(2) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
(3) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.
(4) Factors occur in pairs
Ans: (3)
28. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child ?
(1) Two X chromosomes
(2) Only one Y chromosome
(3) Only one X chromosome
(4) One X and one Y chromosome
Ans: (1)
29. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
(1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
(2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
(4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
Ans: (4)
30. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by:
(1) test cross
(2) dihybrid cross
(3) pedigree analysis
(4) back cross
Ans: (1)
31. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
(1) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
(2) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
(3) higher number of the parental types
(4) higher number of the recombinant types.
Ans: (3)
32. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by
(1) crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
(2) studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
(3) crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent
(4) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent.
Ans: (3)
33. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of
(1) point mutation
(2) polygenic inheritance
(3) codominance
(4) chromosomal aberration.
Ans: (2)
34. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation ?
(1) 9 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 50 : 50
Ans: (4)
35. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance ?
(1) Production of male honey bee
(2) Pod shape in garden pea
(3) Skin colour in humans
(4) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
Ans: (3)
36. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions.
What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
(1) AaBB
(2) AABb
(3) AABB
(4) AaBb
Ans: (4)
37. Test cross involves
(1) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(2) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype
(3) crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
(4) crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
Ans: (2)
38. In Mendel’s experiment with garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY)
was dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 generation of the cross RRYY × rryy?
(1) only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(2) only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(3) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
(4) only round seeds with green cotyledons
Ans: (3)
39. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC ?
(1) Four
(2) Nine
(3) Two
(4) Three
Ans: (3)
40. Phenotype of an organism is the result of
(1) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
(2) environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
(3) genotype and environment interactions
(4) mutations and linkages
Ans: (3)
41. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(1) 0.36
(2) 0.16
(3) 0.24
(4) 0.48
Ans: (4)
42. In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype:
(1) AABB
(2) AaBb
(3) aabb
(4) aaBB
Ans: (3)
43. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy
(1) may be colour blind or may be of normal vision
(2) must be colour blind
(3) must have normal colour vision
(4) will be partially colour blind since he is heterozygous for the colour blind mutant allele
Ans: (1)
44. The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran larvae, are useful in gene mapping because:
(1) these are fused
(2) these are much longer in size
(3) these are easy to stain
(4) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes.
Ans: (4)
45. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to
(1) repulsion
(2) recombination
(3) linkage
(4) crossing over
Ans: (3)
46. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in
(1) cytosol
(2) chloroplast genome
(3) mitochondrial genome
(4) nuclear genome
Ans: (1)
47. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal genes A and B and is also hemizygous for hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his sperms will be abh?
(1)
(2) 32 1
(3) 16 1
(4)
Ans: (1)
48. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans are always
(1) lethal
(2) sub-lethal
(3) expressed in males
(4) expressed in females
Ans: (3)
49. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t) .If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt genotype, what will be the percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the progeny ?
(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 75%
(4) 25%
Ans: (1)
50. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
(1) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(2) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(3) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(4) 8 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
Ans: (1)
51. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
(1) Round seed shape
(2) Axial flower position
(3) Green seed colour
(4) Green pod colour
Ans: (3)
52. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N. tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross fertilized to produce self – fertile offspring.
What is the best reason for considering
N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate species ?
(1) They are morphologically distinct
(2) They cannot interbreed in nature
(3) They are reproductively distinct
(4) They are physiologically distinct
Ans: (3)
53. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the source of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is known as
(1) reverse cross
(2) test cross
(3) reciprocal cross
(4) dihybrid cross
Ans: (3)
54. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes ?
(1) Four
(2) Seven
(3) Six
(4) Five
Ans: (1)
55. A gene is said to be dominant if
(1) it expresses its effect only in homozygous state
(2) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous condition
(3) it expresses its effect both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
(4) it never expresses its effect in any conditions
Ans: (3)
56. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed hair (2) gene at the other
end. The recombination frequency between these two genes (y and b) should be
(1) 100%
(2) 66%
(3) > 50%
(4) < 50%
Ans: (2)
57. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence of genes on chromosome?
(1) b, a, c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, b
(4) none of these
Ans: (1)
58. On selfing a plant of F1 generation with genotype “AABbCC”,the genotypic ratio in F2 generation will be
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
Ans: (2)
59. When dominant and recessive alleles express itself together it is called
(1) codominance
(2) dominance
(3) amphidominace
(4) pseudodominance
Ans: (1)
60. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when
(1) genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(2) genes are linked and located on same chromosomes
(3) genes are located on nonhomologous chromosomes
(4) all the above
Ans: (2)
61. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently are called?
(1) Epistatsis
(2) Polygene
(3) Non- complimentary genes
(4) Complimentary genes
Ans: (4)
62. Ratio of complementary genes
(1) 9 : 3 : 4
(2) 12 : 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4
(4) 9 : 7
Ans: (4)
63. A and B genes are linked what shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?
(1) AAbb and aabb
(2) AaBb and aabb
(3) AABB and aabb
(4) None of these
Ans: (2)
64. Probability of four sons to a couple is
(1)
(2)
(3) 16 1
(4) 32 1
Ans: (3)
65. Which character studied by Mendel in garden pea (Pisum sativum) was dominant
(1) Wrinkled seed shape
(2) Green pod colour
(3) Green seed colour
(4) Terminal flower position
Ans: (2)
66. Which one pair of the following parents is most likely to get a child who suffer from hemolytic disease of new born?
(1) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father
(2) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father
(3) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father
(4) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father
Ans: (1)
67. In hybridisation Tt tt gives rise to the progeny of ratio
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1
Ans: (1)
68. Molecular weight of chromosome of yeast cell is
(1) 2.56 × 109
(2) 40 × 109
(3) 0.5 × 109
(4) 1 × 109
Ans: (1)
69. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for
(1) segregation of alleles
(2) dominance of genes
(3) linkage between genes
(4) recombination of linked alleles
Ans: (4)
70. How many base pairs are found in one genome of man?
(1) 7 104
(2) 2.8 107
(3) 3 109
(4) 4 109
Ans: (3)
71. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in what way would his interpretation have been different ?
(1) He would have discovered blending or incomplete dominance
(2) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(3) He would have discovered sex linkage
(4) He could have mapped the chromosome
Ans: (2)
72. How many genome types are present in a typical green plant cell?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) More than five
(4) More than ten
Ans: (2)
73. Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the newly synthesized
DNA. Which of the following types of chromatin is expected to become radioactive if cells are exposed to radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the S-phase?
(1) Heterochromatin
(2) Euchromatin
(3) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin
(4) Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but only the nucleolus
Ans: (2)
74. How many different types of genetically different gametes will be produced by a heterozygous plant having the genotype :
AABbCc?
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Nine
Ans: (2)
75. After crossing between two plants, the progenies are found to be male-sterile. This phenomenon is found to be maternally inherited and is due to some genes which are present in
(1) nucleus
(2) chloroplast
(3) mitochondrion
(4) cytoplasm
Ans: (4)
76. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes. When mated with a normal female fruit fly, the male-specific chromosome will enter egg cells in the proportion of
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 7 : 1
Ans: (1)
77. When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are considered to be
(1) pseudoalleles
(2) different genes
(3) multiple alleles
(4) parts of same gene
Ans: (1)
78. Alleles that produce independent effects in their heterozygous condition are called
(1) codominant alleles
(2) epistatic alleles
(3) complementary alleles
(4) supplementary alleles
Ans: (1)
79. A cross between pure tall Pea plant with green pods and dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods will produce short F2 plants out of 16
(1) 9
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
Ans: (3)
80. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb, F2 progeny of AABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in the ratio of
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 :2 : 2 : 4
Ans: (4)
81. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs of traits in Pea which can have 21 possible combinations. If you are told that in one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be
(1) Independent assortment principle may be wrong
(2) Mendel might not have studied all the combinations
(3) It is impossible
(4) Later studies may be wrong
Ans: (2)
82. A child of blood group O can not have parents of blood groups
(1) AB and AB/O
(2) A and B
(3) B and B
(4) O and O
Ans: (1)
83. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is
(1) cis type
(2) trans type
(3) complete
(4) absent/ Incomplete
Ans: (4)
84. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
(1) Skin colour
(2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Colour blindness
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
Ans: (1)
85. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(4) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
Ans: (3)
86. An organism with two identical alleles is
(1) dominant
(2) hybrid
(3) heterozygous
(4) homozygous
Ans: (4)
87. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
(1) both homozygous and heterozygous states
(2) second generation
(3) heterozygous combination
(4) homozygous combination
Ans: (1)
88. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon is
(1) epistasis
(2) dominance
(3) mutation
(4) none of the above
Ans: (1)
89. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora the arrangement is 2a : 4a : 2a showing
(1) No crossing over
(2) Some meiosis
(3) Second generation division
(4) First generation division
Ans: (3)
90. A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be
(1) IO IO
(2) IB IB
(3) IA IB
(4) IB IO
Ans: (4)
91. Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white
(WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an example of
(1) dominant -recessive
(2) incomplete dominance
(3) hybrid
(4) supplementary genes
Ans: (2)
92. When a certain character is inherited only through female parent, it probably represents
(1) multiple plastid inheritance
(2) cytoplasmic inheritance
(3) incomplete dominance
(4) mendelian nuclear inheritance
Ans: (2)
93. A dihybrid condition is
(1) tt Rr
(2) Tt rr
(3) tt rr
(4) Tt Rr
Ans: (4)
94. The allele which is unable to express its effect in the presence of another is called
(1) codominant
(2) supplementary
(3) complementary
(4) recessive
Ans: (4)
95. First geneticist/ father of genetics was
(1) de Vries
(2) Mendel
(3) Darwin
(4) Morgan
Ans: (2)
96. Mendel’s last law is
(1) segregation
(2) dominance
(3) independent assortment
(4) polygenic inheritance
Ans: (3)
97. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous A?
(1) AB
(2) A
(3) O
(4) B
Ans: (4)
98. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called
(1) multiple alleles
(2) allelomorphs
(3) alloloci
(4) paramorphs
Ans: (2)
99. ABO blood group system is due to
(1) multifactor inheritance
(2) incomplete dominance
(3) multiple allelism
(4) epistasis
Ans: (3)
100. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic of offspring ?
(1) 75% recessive
(2) 50% recessive
(3) 25% recessive
(4) All dominant
Ans: (2)
101. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form
(1) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB
(2) All AaBB
(3) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB
(4) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
Ans: (1)
102. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotypic ratio would be
(1) 9 : 6 : 1
(2) 15 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 4
(4) 12 : 3 : 1
Ans: (3)
103. Bateson used the terms coupling and repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name the correct parent of coupling type alongwith its cross repulsion
(1) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, AAbb
(2) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb, aabb
(3) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB, aabb
(4) Coupling AABB, aabb : Repulsion AAbb, aaBB
Ans: (4)
104. Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colour blind. The probability of their daughter becoming colour blind is
(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%
Ans: (1)
105. Two linked genes a and b show 20% recombination. The individuals of a dihybrid cross between + +/ + + × ab/ab shall show gametes
(1) + + 80 : ab : 20
(2) + + 50 : ab : 50
(3) + + 40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b : 10
(4) + + 30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b : 20
Ans: (3)
106. Diploid chromosome number in humans is
(1) 46
(2) 44
(3) 48
(4) 42
Ans: (1)
107. What contribute to the success of Mendel ?
(1) Qualitative analysis of data
(2) Observation of distinct inherited traits
(3) His knowledge of biology
(4) Consideration of one character at one time
Ans: (4)
108. A normal green male maize is crossed with albino female. The progeny is albino because
(1) trait for albinism is dominant
(2) the albinos have biochemical to destroy plastids derived form green male
(3) plastids are inherited from female parent
(4) green plastids of male must have mutated
Ans: (3)
109. The term ‘linkage’ was coined by :
(1) T. Boveri
(2) G. Mendel
(3) W. Sutton
(4) T.H. Morgan
Ans: (4)
110. Haploids are able to express both recessive and dominant alleles/mutations because there are
(1) many alleles for each gene
(2) two alleles for each gene
(3) only one allele for each gene in the individual
(4) only one allele in a gene
Ans: (3)
111. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(3) XO condition in human as found in Turner syndrome, determines female sex.
(4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
Ans: (2)
112. In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex-determination in humans
(1) Due to some defect in the women
(2) Due to some defect like aspermia in man
(3) Due to the genetic make up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg
(4) Due to the genetic make up of the egg
Ans: (3)
113. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offspring?
(1) Cytoplasmic
(2) Y-linked
(3) X-linked
(4) Autosomal
Ans: (1)
114. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
(1) whether the egg is fertilized or develops parthenogenetically
(2) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of autosomes
(3) X and Y chromosomes
(4) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of autosomes
Ans: (2)
115. When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they
(1) induce cell division
(2) do not show a chromosome map
(3) show recombination during meiosis
(4) do not show independent assortment
Ans: (4)
116. Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher organisms occurs between
(1) sister chromatids of a bivalent
(2) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(3) two daughter nuclei
(4) two different bivalents
Ans: (2)
117. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females but in case of humans, such individuals are abnormal males (Klinefelter’s syndrome).
This indicates that
(1) The Y chromosome has no role in sex determination
(2) In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is essential for sex determination
(3) The Y chromosome is male determining in humans
(4) The Y chromosome is female determining in Drosophila
Ans: (3)
118. No. of barr body present in each somatic cell of a female is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Ans: (1)
119. An individual exhibiting both male and female sexual characteristics in the body is known as
(1) hermaphrodite
(2) intersex
(3) gynandromorph
(4) bisexual
Ans: (3)
120. Genetic identity of a human male is determined by
(1) autosomes
(2) nucleolus
(3) sex chromosomes
(4) cell organelles
Ans: (3)
121. H.J.Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his
(1) discovery that chemicals can induce gene mutations
(2) discovery that ionizing radiations can induce gene mutations
(3) work on gene mapping in Drosophila
(4) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear weapons.
Ans: (2)
122. Barr body in human female is formed by
(1) inactivation of paternal X-chromosome
(2) inactivation of maternal X-chromosome
(3) inactivation of both X-chromosomes
(4) inactivation of either the paternal or maternal X-chromosome
Ans: (4)
123. The polytene chromosomes were discovered for the first time in
(1) Drosophila
(2) Chironomus
(3) Musca nebulo
(4) Musca domestica
Ans: (2)
124. Barr body in mammals represents
(1) all the heterochromatin in female cells
(2) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male
(3) all heterochromatin in male and female cells
(4) one of the two X-chromosomes in somatic cells of females
Ans: (4)
125. Sex is determined in human beings
(1) by ovum
(2) at time of fertilization
(3) 40 days after fertilization
(4) seventh to eight week when genitals differentiate in foetus
Ans: (2)
126. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female traits is
(1) heterozygous
(2) gynandromorph
(3) hemizygous
(4) gynander
Ans: (2)
127. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is :
(1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome
(2) Turner’s Syndrome
(3) Sickel Cell Anemia
(4) Down’s Syndrome
Ans: (4)
128. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis.
Select the correct statement :
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
(3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis
Ans: (2)
129. Pick out the correct statements :
(1) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
(2) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(3) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
(4) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked recessive gene disorder
(1) (1) and (4) are correct
(2) (2) and (4) are correct
(3) (1), (3) and (4) are correct
(4) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
Ans: (4)
130. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?
(1) Recessive gene disorder
(2) X – linked recessive gene disorder
(3) Chromosomal disorder
(4) Dominant gene disorder
Ans: (2)
131. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to :
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the mother
(2) fusion of two ova and one sperm
(3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum
(4) formation of abnormal sperms in the father
Ans: (1)
132. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal sight who has no history of colour blindness in her family.
What is the probability of their grandson being colour blind ?
(1) 1
(2) Nil
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.5
Ans: (3)
133. A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colour blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind?
(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%
Ans: (3)
134. A pleiotropic gene:
(1) is a gene evolved during Pliocene.
(2) controls a trait only in combination with another gene
(3) controls multiple traits in an individual.
(4) is expressed only in primitive plants
Ans: (3)
135. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 100%
(4) no chance
Ans: (2)
136. A human female with Turner’s syndrome:
(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(2) has one additional X chromosome.
(3) exhibits male characters.
(4) is able to produce children with normal husband.
Ans: (1)
137. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?
(1) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait
(2) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information
(3) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive
(4) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome
Ans: (2)
138. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :
(1) It is a recessive disease
(2) It is a dominant disease
(3) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
(4) It is a sex-linked disease
Ans: (2)
139. A normal- visioned man whose father was colour. blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter. what are the chance that this child would be colour blind ?
(1) 100%
(2) zero percent
(3) 25%
(4) 50 %
Ans: (2)
140. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to
(1) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
(2) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
(3) Three copies of chromosome 21
(4) Monosomy
Ans: (3)
141. Mutations can be induced with :
(1) infra red radiations
(2) I AA
(3) ethylene
(4) gamma radiations
Ans: (4)
142. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?
(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations.
(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.
(3) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens.
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.
Ans: (4)
143. Sickle cell anaemia is:
(1) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(2) caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
(3) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(4) an autosomal linked dominant trait
Ans: (2)
144. The genetic defect – Adenosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:
(1) administering adenosine deaminase activators.
(2) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.
(3) enzyme replacement therapy.
(4) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA.
Ans: (2)
145. Point mutation involves:
(1) change in single base pair
(2) duplication
(3) deletion
(4) insertion
Ans: (1)
146. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(1) Galactosemia is an inborn error of metabolism
(2) Small population size results in random genetic drift in a population
(3) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
(4) Linkage is an exception to the principle of independent assortment in heredity
Ans: (3)
147. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because
(1) haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids
(2) mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than diploids
(3) haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids
(4) all mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids
Ans: (4)
148. Which one of the following conditions in humans. is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality/linkage?
(1) Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes + XXY
(2) Colour blindness – Y-linked
(3) Erythroblastosis foetalis – X-linked
(4) Downs syndrome – 44 autosomes + XO
Ans: (1)
149. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the
(1) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(2) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(3) trisomy of 21st chromosome
(4) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
Ans: (1)
150. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man, their sons will be
(1) one-half colour blind and one-half normal
(2) three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth normal
(3) all colour blind
(4) all normal visioned
Ans: (3)
151. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because
(1) it is not a fatal disease
(2) it provides immunity against malaria
(3) it is controlled by dominant genes
(4) it is controlled by recessive genes
Ans: (2)
152. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington’s chorea are
(1) congenital disorders
(2) pollulant-induced disorders
(3) virus-related diseases
(4) bacteria – related diseases
Ans: (1)
153. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
(1) Cystic fibrosis
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Cretinism
Ans: (4)
154. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of:
(1) leucocytes
(2) lymphocytes
(3) platelets
(4) RBCs
Ans: (4)
155. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by:
(1) superfemaleness
(2) triploidy
(3) turner’s syndrome
(4) down’s Syndrome
Ans: (4)
156. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because:
(1) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy
(2) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
(3) this disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
(4) this disease is due to an X-linked dominant mutation
Ans: (3)
157. A normal woman, whose father was colourblind is married to a normal man. The sons would be
(1) 75% colour-blind
(2) 50% color-blind
(3) all normal
(4) all colour-blind
Ans: (2)
158. A man with a certain disease marries a normal woman. They have eight children (3 daughters and 5 sons). All the daughters suffer from their father’s disease but none of the sons are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
(1) Sex-linked recessive
(2) Sex-linked dominant
(3) Autosomal dominant
(4) Sex-limited recessive
Ans: (2)
159. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to the change in
(1) protein structure
(2) DNA replication
(3) protein synthesis pattern
(4) RNA transcription pattern
Ans: (1)
160. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male. During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found in
(1) one-third of the progenies
(2) none of the progenies
(3) all the progenies
(4) fifty percent of the progenies
Ans: (2)
161. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of
(1) sex-determining traits
(2) sex linked traits
(3) sex limited traits
(4) sex influenced traits
Ans: (4)
162. Christmas disease is another name for
(1) sleeping sickness
(2) haemophilia
(3) hepatitis B
(4) Down’s syndrome
Ans: (2)
163. Which of the following is correct match?
(1) Down’s syndrome — 21st chromosome
(2) Sickle cell anaemia — X-chromosome
(3) Haemophila — Y-chromosome
(4) Parkinson disease — X & Y chromosome
Ans: (1)
164. Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome number 21. What percentage of offspring produced by an affected mother and a normal father would be affected by this disorder?
(1) 25%
(2) 100%
(3) 75%
(4) 50%
Ans: (4)
165. Which of the following is an example of pleiotropic effect?
(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalassemia
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Colour blindness
Ans: (3)
166. Which of the following is an example of sex linked disease?
(1) AIDS
(2) Colour blindness
(3) Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea
Ans: (2)
167. In humans, male XXY and female XXXX occur due to
(1) aneuploidy
(2) euploidy
(3) autosomal syndrome
(4) none of these
Ans: (2)
168. A diseased man marries a normal woman.
They have three daughters and five sons. All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal. The gene of this disease is
(1) sex-linked dominant
(2) sex-linked recessive
(3) sex-linked character
(4) autosomal dominant
Ans: (1)
169. Mongoloid idiocy in humans is also known as
(1) Tay Sachs disease
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Down’s Syndrome
(4) Turner’s Syndrome
Ans: (3)
170. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by
(1) change of amino acid in -chain of haemoglobin
(2) change of amino acid in -chain of haemoglobin
(3) change of amino acid in both - and -chain of haemoglobin
(4) change of amino acid in either - or -chain of haemoglobin
Ans: (2)
171. One child is haemophilic (sex-linked trait), while its fraternal twin brother is normal.
Which one of the following informations is most appropriate?
(1) The mother must have been heterozygous
(2) The child is a monozygotic twin
(3) The other child is a female and the father is haemophilic
(4) The haemophilic child is a male
Ans: (1)
172. Which of the following is the main category of mutation?
(1) Genetic mutation
(2) Zygotic mutation
(3) Somatic mutation
(4) All of these
Ans: (1)
173. In Down’s syndrome, Karyotyping has shown that the disorder is associated with trisomy of chromosome number-21 usually due to
(1) non-disjunction during egg-cell formation
(2) non-disjunction during sperm-cell formation
(3) non-disjunction during formation of egg-cells and sperm-cells
(4) addition of extra chromosome during mitosis of the zygote
Ans: (3)
174. Red-green colour blindness in humans is governed by a sex-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father was colour blind marries a colour blind man. What proportion of their daughters is expected to be colourblind?
(1) 3/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) All
Ans: (2)
175. The formation of multivalents at meiosis in a diploid organism is due to
(1) inversion
(2) deletion
(3) monosomy
(4) reciprocal translocation
Ans: (4)
176. Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(1) increase in X complement
(2) moderate increase in Y complement
(3) large increase in Y complement
(4) reduction in X complement
Ans: (1)
177. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal recessive mutation. The first child of a couple with normal skin pigmentation was an albino.
What is the probability that their second child will also be an albino?
(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%
Ans: (1)
178. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and a gene for colour blindness on one of the ‘X’ chromosomes marries a normal man. How will the progeny be
(1) haemophilic and colour-blind daughters
(2) 50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
(3) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour-blind daughters
(4) All sons and daughters haemophilic and colour-blind
Ans: (2)
179. Minor changes at gene level are described as
(1) Point mutations
(2) Chromosomal mutations
(3) Reverse mutations
(4) Forward mutations
Ans: (1)
180. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers from
(1) Down’s syndrome
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Gynandromorphism
Ans: (2)
181. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease called
(1) thalassemia
(2) night blindness
(3) down’s syndrome
(4) sickle cell anaemia
Ans: (4)
182. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an additional Y chromosome suffers from a condition called
(1) Down’s syndrome
(2) Superfemale
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Ans: (4)
183. Genes located on Y-chromosome are
(1) mutant genes
(2) sex-linked genes
(3) autosomal genes
(4) holandric genes
Ans: (4)
184. A women with albinic father marries an albinic man. The proportion of her progeny is
(1) 2 normal : 1 albinic
(2) all normal
(3) all albinic
(4) 1 normal : 1 albinic
Ans: (4)
185. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because in haploids
(1) recessive mutations express immediately
(2) dominant mutations express immediately
(3) mutations are readily induced
(4) tissue culture is easy
Ans: (1)
186. A colour blind mother and normal father would have
(1) colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
(2) colour blind sons and daughters
(3) all colour blind
(4) all normal
Ans: (1)
187. Which of the following is suitable for experiment on linkage
(1) aaBB × aaBB
(2) AABB × aabb
(3) AaBb × AaBb
(4) AAbb × AaBB
Ans: (2)
188. Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophilic while half the daughters are carriers. The gene is located on
(1) X-chromosome of father
(2) Y-chromosome of father
(3) one X-chromosome of mother
(4) both the X-chromosomes of mother
Ans: (3)
189. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male child becoming colour blind are
(1) no
(2) possible only when all the four grand parents had normal vision
(3) possible only when father’s mother was colour blind
(4) possible only when mother’s father was colour blind
Ans: (4)
190. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and d allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion of Bd in sperms
(1) Zero
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/8
Ans: (3)
191. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/ XO abnormality causes
(1) Down’s syndrome
(2) Kinefelter’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Edward’s syndrome
Ans: (3)
192. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no crossing over) occurs during
(1) anaphase I
(2) anaphase II
(3) diplotene
(4) metaphase I
Ans: (1)
193. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye colour. A brown eyed man whose mother was blue eyed marries a blue-eyed women.
The children shall be
(1) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1
(2) all brown eyed
(3) all blue eyed
(4) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 : 1
Ans: (1)
194. Down’s syndrome is due to
(1) crossing over
(2) linkage
(3) sex-linked inheritance
(4) nondisjunction of chromosomes
Ans: (4)
195. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be born only when
(1) her mother and maternal grand father were colour blind
(2) her father and maternal grand father were colour blind
(3) her mother is colour blind and father has normal vision
(4) parents have normal vision but grand parents were colour blind.
Ans: (2)
196. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
(1) phenylketonuria
(2) colour blindness
(3) sickle cell anaemia
(4) blood groups
Ans: (4)
197. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a
(1) Recessive character carried by Y-chromosome
(2) Dominant character carried by Y-chromosome
(3) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
(4) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
Ans: (4)
198. Which one is a hereditary disease ?
(1) Cataract
(2) leprosy
(3) Blindness
(4) Phenylketonuria
Ans: (4)
199. A mother in a family of five daughters is expecting her sixth baby. The chance of its being a son is
(1) zero
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%
Ans: (3)
200. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex complement is
(1) XO
(2) XY
(3) XX
(4) XXY
Ans: (2)

25. Human Reproduction

1. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is:
(1) Urethra
(2) Ureter
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Vasa efferentia
Ans: (1)
2. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity insides pouch called scrotum. The purpose served is for
(1) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(2) escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(3) providing more space for the growth of epididymis
(4) providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
Ans: (1)
3. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system gets blocked, the gametes will not be transported from
(1) testes to epididymis
(2) epididymis to vas deferens
(3) ovary to uterus
(4) vagina to uterus
Ans: (1)
4. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(1) testicular lobules to rete testis
(2) rete testis to vas deferens
(3) vas deferens to epididymis
(4) epididymis to urethra
Ans: (2)
5. Sertoli cells are found in
(1) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(2) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(3) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
(4) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
Ans: (3)
6. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
(1) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(2) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
(3) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(4) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
Ans: (4)
7. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in :
(1) fructose and calcium
(2) glucose and calcium
(3) DNA and testosterone
(4) ribose and potassium
Ans: (1)
8. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are
(1) Liver – cholesterol
(2) Ovary – estrogen
(3) Testes – testosterone
(4) Pancreas – glucagon
Ans: (3)
9. Grey crescent is the area
(1) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(2) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
(3) at the animal pole
(4) at the vegetal pole
Ans: (2)
10. Capacitation refers to changes in the :
(1) Ovum before fertilization
(2) Ovum after fertilization
(3) Sperm after fertilization
(4) Sperm before fertilization
Ans: (4)
11. Capacitation occurs in :
(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Female reproductive tract
(4) Rete testis
Ans: (3)
12. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce:
(1) estrogen only
(2) progesterone
(3) human chorionic gonadotropin
(4) relaxin only
Ans: (1)
13. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acellular ?
(1) Theca interna
(2) Stroma
(3) Zona pellucida
(4) Granulosa
Ans: (3)
14. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
(1) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(2) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
(3) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix
(4) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
Ans: (2)
15. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is
(1) isthmus
(2) infundibulum
(3) cervix
(4) ampulla
Ans: (2)
16. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally dipoid?
(1) Spermatid
(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Secondary polar body
(4) Primary polar body
Ans: (2)
17. Select the incorrect statement :
(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
Ans: (3)
18. In human females, meiosis-II is not complete until?
(1) fertilization
(2) uterine implantation
(3) birth
(4) puberty
Ans: (1)
19. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
(1) Full development of Graffin follicle
(2) Release of secondary oocyte
(3) LH surge
(4) Decrease in estradiol
Ans: (4)
20. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :
(1) FSH
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Vasopressin
(4) Progesterone
Ans: (4)
21. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female:
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo.
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.
Ans: (3)
22. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?
(1) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)
(2) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
(3) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
(4) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
Ans: (4)
23. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(1) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
(2) Spermatogonia; spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
(3) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(4) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
Ans: (3)
24. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was
(1) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embyro
(2) High level of circulatting HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(3) High level of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrical thickening
(4) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
Ans: (4)
25. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
(1) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.
(2) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium.
(3) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility.
(4) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension.
Ans: (4)
26. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(1) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(2) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
(3) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(4) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
Ans: (1)
27. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called
(1) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(2) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
(3) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
(4) follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days.
Ans: (3)
28. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
(1) shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the fallopian tube
(2) until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(3) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
(4) in the graafian follicle following the first maturation division
Ans: (2)
29. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally occurs?
(1) 14th day
(2) 20th day
(3) 5th day
(4) 11th day
Ans: (1)
30. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(1) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graffian follicle.
(2) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone.
(3) Menstruation: Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised.
(4) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
Ans: (2)
31. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
(1) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilisation
(2) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(3) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
(4) Acrosome serves no particular function
Ans: (2)
32. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling human female?
(1) maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(2) maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream
(3) retention of well -developed corpus luteum
(4) fertilisation of the ovum
Ans: (4)
33. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testes is:
(1) spermatogonia – spermatocyte – spermatid -sperms
(2) spermatid – spermatocyte – spermatogonia – sperms
(3) spermatogonia – spermatid – spermatocyte – sperms
(4) spermatocyte – spermatogonia – spermatid – sperms
Ans: (1)
34. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?
(1) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
(2) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
(3) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
(4) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
Ans: (2)
35. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
(1) primary spermatocytes
(2) secondary spermatocytes
(3) spermatids
(4) spermatozonia
Ans: (2)
36. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones is the immediate cause of menstruation?
(1) FSH
(2) FSH-RH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen
Ans: (3)
37. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of
(1) combination of FSH and LH
(2) combination of estrogen and progesterone
(3) FSH only
(4) LH only
Ans: (2)
38. After ovulation the collapsed ovarian follicle shrinks and becomes filled with cell to form
(1) corpus luteum
(2) corpus albicans
(3) corpus atresia
(4) corpus adiposum
Ans: (1)
39. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely?
(1) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(2) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(3) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(4) Primary follicle starts developing
Ans: (3)
40. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs on
(1) Day 1
(2) Day 5
(3) Day 14
(4) Day 28
Ans: (3)
41. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(2) Follicle stimulating hormone
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Prolactin
Ans: (3)
42. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of
(1) human males only
(2) human females only
(3) mammalian males other than primates
(4) mammalian females other than primates
Ans: (4)
43. Fertilizins are emitted by
(1) immature eggs
(2) mature eggs
(3) sperms
(4) polar bodies
Ans: (2)
44. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs
(1) after entry of sperm before completion of fertilization
(2) after completion of fertilization
(3) before entry of sperm
(4) without any relation of sperm entry
Ans: (1)
45. At the end of first meiotic division, male sperm differentiates into
(1) secondary spermatocyte
(2) primary spermatocyte
(3) spermatogonium
(4) spermatid
Ans: (1)
46. Freshly released human egg has
(1) one Y-chromosome
(2) one X-chromosome
(3) two X-chromosomes
(4) one X-chromosome & one Y-chromosome
Ans: (2)
47. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
(1) capacitation
(2) release of lysin
(3) influx of Na+
(4) release of fertilizin
Ans: (4)
48. How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
Ans: (3)
49. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses
(1) mitochondria and centriole
(2) mitochondria only
(3) centriole only
(4) nucleus and mitochondria
Ans: (1)
50. Human eggs are
(1) Alecithal
(2) Microlecithal
(3) Mesolecithal
(4) Macrolecithal
Ans: (1)
51. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to
(1) base pairing of their DNA and RNA
(2) formation of hydrogen bonds
(3) mutual attraction
(4) attraction of their protoplasts
Ans: (4)
52. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?
(1) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(2) Release of oxytocin
(3) Release of prolactin
(4) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
Ans: (3)
53. Egg is liberated from ovary in
(1) secondary oocyte stage
(2) primary oocyte stage
(3) oogonial stage
(4) mature ovum stage
Ans: (1)
54. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers release of
(1) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(2) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary
(3) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) from placenta
(4) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from placenta
Ans: (1)
55. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It :
(1) secretes estrogen
(2) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo.
(3) secretes oxytocin during parturition
(4) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embyo
Ans: (3)
56. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(1) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(2) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(3) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(4) Zygote only
Ans: (1)
57. Signals for parturition originate from :
(1) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(3) Placenta only
(4) Fully developed foetus only
Ans: (1)
58. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy?
(1) Fourth month
(2) Fifth month
(3) Sixth month
(4) Third month
Ans: (2)
59. The signals for parturition originate from
(1) placenta only
(2) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(3) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(4) fully developed foetus only
Ans: (2)
60. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(1) release oxytocin from pituitary
(2) fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) differentiation of mammary glands
(4) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Ans: (2)
61. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct?
(1) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(2) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(3) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(4) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
Ans: (1)
62. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?
(1) Chorion
(2) Allantois
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Amnion
Ans: (4)
63. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect
(1) pattern of cleavage
(2) number of blastomeres produced
(3) fertilization
(4) formation of zygote
Ans: (1)
64. Cleavage in mammalian egg is
(1) superficial meroblastic
(2) discoidal meroblastic
(3) unequal holoblastic
(4) equal holoblastic
Ans: (3)
65. During embryonic development, the establishment of polarity along anterior/ posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral axis is called
(1) pattern formation
(2) organizer phenomena
(3) axis formation
(4) anamorphosis
Ans: (2)
66. Gonads develop from embryonic
(1) ectoderm
(2) endoderm
(3) mesoderm
(4) both mesoderm and endoderm
Ans: (3)
67. Extra-embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from
(1) inner cell mass
(2) trophoblast
(3) formative cells
(4) follicle cells
Ans: (2)
68. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(2) It is used for prenatal sex determination
(3) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(4) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
Ans: (4)

38. Environmental Issues

1. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?
(1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(3) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(4) They are harmful to human health
Ans: (2)
2. Soil conservation is
(1) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one
(2) aeration of soil
(3) erosion of soil
(4) protection against loss
Ans: (4)
3. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the:
(1) Trees are very healthy
(2) Trees are heavily infested
(3) Location is highly polluted
(4) Location is not polluted
Ans: (4)
4. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of:
(1) SO3 and CO
(2) CO2 and CO
(3) O3 and dust
(4) SO2 and NO2
Ans: (4)
5. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called:
(1) Ionosphere
(2) Mesosphere
(3) Stratosphere
(4) Troposphere
Ans: (3)
6. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:-
(1) gases like sulphur dioxide
(2) particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above
(3) gases like ozone and methane
(4) particularte matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less
Ans: (1)
7. Which one of the following is not correct as regards to the harmful effects of particulate matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or less?
(1) It can be inhaled into the lungs
(2) It can cause respiratory problems
(3) It can directly enter into our circulatory system
(4) It can cause inflammation and damage to the lungs
Ans: (3)
8. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in :
(1) 1981
(2) 1985
(3) 1990
(4) 1975
Ans: (1)
9. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to human health?
(1) 2.5 or less
(2) 1.5 or less
(3) 1.0 or less
(4) 5.2-2.5
Ans: (1)
10. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the quantitative expression of
(1) the density of bacteria in a medium
(2) a particular pollutant
(3) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
(4) a certain pesticide
Ans: (2)
11. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain
(1) Nitrogen dioxide
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate)
(4) Ozone
Ans: (2)
12. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
(1) NO×
(2) SPM
(3) CO
(4) SO2
Ans: (2)
13. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere the temperature of earth’s surface would be
(1) higher than the present form environmental issues
(2) less than the present
(3) the same
(4) dependent on the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere from environmental issues
Ans: (2)
14. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) CO
(2) CO2
(3) PAN
(4) Aerosol
Ans: (3)
15. The CO2 content in the atmospheric air is about
(1) 0.034%
(2) 0.34%
(3) 3.34%
(4) 6.5%
Ans: (1)
16. How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of oxygen into the body tissues?
(1) By destroying the haemoglobin
(2) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
(3) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with haemoglobin
(4) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
Ans: (2)
17. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is polluted most by
(1) automobile exhausts
(2) pesticide residue
(3) household waste
(4) radio-active fall-out
Ans: (1)
18. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
(1) oxygen
(2) hydrogen
(3) chlorine
(4) sulphur dioxide
Ans: (4)
19. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is
(1) Mercury
(2) Cadmium
(3) Lead
(4) Copper
Ans: (3)
20. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level
(1) Above 30 dB
(2) Above 80 dB
(3) Above 100 dB
(4) Above 120 dB
Ans: (2)
21. Acid rains are produced by
(1) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil fuels
(2) excess production of NH3 by industry and coal gas
(3) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion
(4) excess formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration
Ans: (1)
22. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(1) Hydrocarbons
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (2)
23. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
(1) drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.
(2) increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
(3) an increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
(4) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
Ans: (4)
24. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Methane
(4) Fluorocarbon
Ans: (4)
25. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of fishes is mainly due to nonavailability of :
(1) light
(2) essential minerals
(3) oxygen
(4) food
Ans: (3)
26. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indicates that :
(1) Water is highly polluted
(2) Water is less polluted
(3) Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes
(4) Water is pure
Ans: (1)
27. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD) is a method used for :
(1) estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water.
(2) working out the efficiency of oil driven automobile engines.
(3) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale.
(4) working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen.
Ans: (1)
28. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly because:
(1) birds stopped laying eggs
(2) earthworms in the area got eradicated
(3) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds
(4) many of the birds laid, did not hatch
Ans: (4)
29. Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage?
(1) Laughing gas
(2) Propane
(3) Mustard gas
(4) Marsh gas
Ans: (4)
30. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
(1) physical process
(2) mechanical process
(3) chemical process
(4) biological process
Ans: (4)
31. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water
(1) has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water.
(2) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water.
(3) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water.
(4) remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs.
Ans: (3)
32. Eutrophication is often seen in
(1) deserts
(2) fresh water lakes
(3) ocean
(4) mountains
Ans: (2)
33. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?
(1) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the crops in the vicinity
(2) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
(3) The lake water turned green and stinky
(4) Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis.
Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake?
(1) (2) and (3)
(2) (3) and (4)
(3) (1) and (3)
(4) (1) and (2)
Ans: (3)
34. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is
(1) moderately toxic
(2) non-toxic to aquatic animals
(3) water soluble
(4) lipo soluble
Ans: (4)
35. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
(1) Blood-worms
(2) Stone flies
(3) Sewage fungus
(4) Sludge-worms.
Ans: (2)
36. In which one of the following the BOD
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent
(PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order ?
(1) SE < PE < S < DE
(2) PE < S < SE < DE
(3) S < DE < PE < SE
(4) SE < S < PE < DE.
Ans: (2)
37. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(1) Acidity
(2) Aridity
(3) Salinity
(4) Metal toxicity
Ans: (3)
38. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is
(1) < 10 ppm
(2) < 100 ppm
(3) < 30 ppm
(4) < 3.0 ppm
Ans: (1)
39. More than 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in:
(1) polar ice
(2) glaciers and mountains
(3) antarctica
(4) greenland
Ans: (1)
40. Which of the following is not used for disinfection of drinking water?
(1) Chlorine
(2) Ozone
(3) Chloramine
(4) Phenyl
Ans: (4)
41. The most common indicator organism that represents polluted water is
(1) E. coli
(2) P. typhi
(3) C. vibrio
(4) Entamoeba
Ans: (1)
42. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate
(1) reacted with DDT
(2) reacted with ammonia
(3) reacted with CO2
(4) reacted with water
Ans: (4)
43. Which of the following is absent in polluted water?
(1) Hydrilla
(2) Water hyacinth
(3) Larva of stone fly
(4) Blue green algae
Ans: (1)
44. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with
(1) pollen of aquatic plants
(2) heavy metals
(3) faecal matter
(4) industrial effluents
Ans: (3)
45. Maximum bioconcentration of pesticide residues is usually found in birds that exclusively feed on
(1) fish
(2) seeds
(3) worms
(4) meat
Ans: (1)
46. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because it inhibits
(1) Calmodulin
(2) Calcium ATPase
(3) Magnesium ATPase
(4) Carbonic anhydrase
Ans: (2)
47. D.D.T. is
(1) a non–degradable pollutant
(2) a bio-degradable pollutant
(3) not a pollutant
(4) an antibiotic
Ans: (1)
48. Which of the following organism is likely to have more concentration of D.D.T. in its body?
(1) Herbivores
(2) Carnivores
(3) Top carnivores
(4) Primary producers
Ans: (3)
49. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in
(1) mesotrophic lake
(2) oligotrophic lake
(3) salt lake
(4) eutrophic lake
Ans: (4)
50. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was
(1) Methyl isocyanate
(2) Potassium isothiocyanate
(3) Sodium isothiocyanate
(4) Ethyl isothiocyanate
Ans: (1)
51. Which one of the following organisms is used as indicator of water quality?
(1) Chlorella
(2) Azospirillum
(3) Escherichia
(4) Biggiatoa
Ans: (3)
52. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current reoccurring every 5-8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known as
(1) Gulf Stream
(2) El Nino
(3) Aye Aye
(4) Magnox
Ans: (2)
53. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes because
(1) excessive carbon dioxide is added to water
(2) it gives off a bad smell
(3) it removes the food eaten by fish
(4) it increases competition with fishes for dissolved oxygen
Ans: (4)
54. Phosphate pollution is caused by
(1) phosphate rocks only
(2) agricultural fertilizers only
(3) sewage and phosphate rocks
(4) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
Ans: (4)
55. In Minamata Bay Japan, the animals which remained free from Minamata disease, are
(1) pigs
(2) rabbits
(3) dogs
(4) cats
Ans: (2)
56. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, its B.O.D, will
(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) sharply decrease
(4) remain unchanged
Ans: (1)
57. Disease caused by eating fish found in water contaminated with industrial waste having mercury is
(1) Minamata disease
(2) Bright’s disease
(3) Hashimoto’s disease
(4) Osteosclerosis
Ans: (1)
58. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in
(1) Phytoplankton
(2) Sea Gull/Birds
(3) Crab
(4) Eel
Ans: (2)
59. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to
(1) pathogens
(2) clogging of gills by silt
(3) reduction in oxygen
(4) foul smell
Ans: (3)
60. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is
(1) It becomes ineffective after sometime
(2) It is less effective than others
(3) It is not easily/rapidly degraded in nature
(4) Its high cost
Ans: (3)
61. Water is a resource
(1) nondegradable nonmaintainable
(2) degradable maintainable
(3) renewable
(4) non-renewable
Ans: (3)
62. Largest amount of fresh water is found in
(1) lakes and streams
(2) underground
(3) polar ice and glaciers
(4) rivers
Ans: (3)
63. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?
(1) Methyl lsocyanate gas leakage took place
(2) Thousands of human beings died
(3) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
(4) It took place in the night of December 2/3 1984.
Ans: (3)
64. Rachel Carson’s famous book “Silent Spring” is related to :
(1) Noise pollution
(2) Population explosion
(3) Ecosystem management
(4) Pesticide pollution
Ans: (4)
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
(2) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil
(3) At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
(4) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
Ans: (4)
66. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(1) coal
(2) petroleum
(3) minerals
(4) forest
Ans: (4)
67. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol?
(1) 2.5%
(2) 10 – 15%
(3) 10%
(4) 5%
Ans: (4)
68. Lead concentration in blood is considered alarming if it is
(1) 20 g/100 ml
(2) 30 g/100 ml
(3) 4–6 g/100 ml
(4) 10 g/100 ml
Ans: (2)
69. Which of the following is the use of lichens in case of pollution?
(1) They treat the polluted water
(2) They act as bioindicators of pollution
(3) They promote pollution
(4) Lichens are not related with pollution
Ans: (2)
70. Which of these is a pollution related to occupational health hazard ?
(1) Pneumoconiosis
(2) Asthma
(3) Flurosis
(4) Silicosis
Ans: (4)
71. The worst environmental hazards were created by accidents in nuclear power plant and MIC gas tragedy respectively in
(1) Russia in 1990 & Bhopal in 1986
(2) Ukraine in 1988 & USA in 1984
(3) Bhopal in 1984 & Russia in 1990
(4) Ukraine in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984
Ans: (4)
72. At present, the most significant cause of dwindling biodiversity is probably
(1) the deterioration of ozone layer
(2) the destruction of habitat
(3) biological magnification of DDT
(4) global warming
Ans: (2)
73. Domestic waste constitutes
(1) Nonbiodegradable pollution
(2) Biodegradable pollution
(3) Effluents
(4) Air pollution
Ans: (2)
74. River water deposits
(1) loamy soil
(2) alluvial soil
(3) laterite soil
(4) sandy soil
Ans: (2)
75. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
(1) Nitrous oxide
(2) Ozone
(3) Ammonia
(4) Methane
Ans: (2)
76. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during
(1) 1960 s
(2) 1970 s
(3) 1980 s
(4) 1990 s
Ans: (3)
77. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
(1) Reduced Immune System
(2) Damage to eyes
(3) Increased liver cancer
(4) Increased skin cancer
Ans: (3)
78. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in :
(1) South Africa
(2) Peru
(3) Qatar
(4) Poland
Ans: (1)
79. Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at:
(1) CoP – 5
(2) CoP – 6
(3) CoP – 4
(4) CoP – 3
Ans: (4)
80. The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was held at:
(1) Doha
(2) Lima
(3) Warsaw
(4) Durban
Ans: (1)
81. The second commitment period for Kyoto Protocol was decided at
(1) Cancun
(2) Durban
(3) Bali
(4) Doha
Ans: (4)
82. Global warming can be controlled by:
(1) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
(2) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population.
(3) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage.
(4) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel.
Ans: (4)
83. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?
(1) Most of the forests have been lost in tropical areas.
(2) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harmful to animals.
(3) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon.
(4) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon in freshwater bodies.
Ans: (2)
84. Climate of the world is threatened by
(1) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen
(2) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
(3) Increasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
(4) Decreasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
Ans: (3)
85. Which one of following pairs of gases are the major cause of “Greenhouse effect”?
(1) CO2 and O3
(2) CO2 and CO
(3) CFCs and SO2
(4) CO2 and N2O
Ans: (4)
86. Which one of the following expanded forms of the following acronyms is correct?
(1) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
(2) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
(3) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(4) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Ans: (4)
87. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the greenhouse gases are
(1) CO2 and CH4
(2) CH4 and N2O
(3) CFC5 and N2O
(4) CO2 and N2O
Ans: (1)
88. “Good ozone” is found in the
(1) mesosphere
(2) troposphere
(3) stratosphere
(4) ionosphere
Ans: (3)
89. Montreal protocol aims at
(1) Biodiversity conservation
(2) Control of water pollution
(3) Control of CO2 emission
(4) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
Ans: (4)
90. Global agreement in specific control strategies to reduce the release of ozone depleting substances, was adopted by
(1) The Montreal Protocol
(2) The Kyoto Protocol
(3) The Vienna Convention
(4) Rio de Janeiro Conference
Ans: (1)
91. Which one of the following is the correct percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
green house gases that contribute to the total global warming?
(1) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
(2) CO2, 40%, CFCs 30%
(3) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
(4) Methane 20%, N2O 18%
Ans: (1)
92. Chipko movement was launched for the protection of
(1) forests
(2) livestock
(3) wet lands
(4) grasslands
Ans: (1)
93. Identify the correctly matched pair.
(1) Basal Convention – Biodiversity Conservation
(2) Kyoto Protocol – Climatic change
(3) Montreal Protocol – Global warming
(4) Ramsar – Ground water Convention pollution
Ans: (2)
94. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from human activities was passed in the year
(1) 1987
(2) 1988
(3) 1985
(4) 1986
Ans: (1)
95. A major component of gobar gas is
(1) Ammonia
(2) Methane
(3) Ethane
(4) Butane
Ans: (2)
96. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Fossil fuel burning – release of CO2
(2) Nuclear power – radioactive wastes
(3) Solar energy – green house effect
(4) Biomass burning – release of CO2
Ans: (3)
97. Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to damages caused by
(1) Low temperature
(2) High temperature
(3) Encephalitis
(4) Radiation
Ans: (4)
98. The major contributor of Green House gases to the atmosphere is
(1) Russia
(2) U.S.A.
(3) Germany
(4) Brazil.
Ans: (2)
99. Which important green house gas other than methane is being produced from the agricultural fields?
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Ammonia
(3) Nitrous oxide
(4) Arsine
Ans: (3)
100. Green house effect refers to
(1) cooling of earth
(2) trapping of UV rays
(3) production of cereals
(4) warming of earth
Ans: (4)
101. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over
(1) India
(2) Europe
(3) Antarctica
(4) Africa
Ans: (3)
102. In coming years, skin related disorders will be more common due to
(1) pollutants in air
(2) use of detergents
(3) water pollution
(4) depletion of ozone layer
Ans: (4)
103. Which gas contributes most to green house effect?
(1) CFC
(2) Freon
(3) CO2
(4) CH4
Ans: (3)
104. Which of the following is the main factor of desertification?
(1) Tourism
(2) Irrigated agriculture
(3) Over- grazing
(4) All of these
Ans: (3)
105. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a reaction that produces
(1) Fluorides
(2) Carbon monoxide
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Ozone
Ans: (4)
106. Deforestation does not lead to
(1) quick nutrient cycling
(2) soil erosion
(3) alteration of local weather conditions
(4) destruction of natural habitat of wild animals
Ans: (1)
107. Deforestation will decrease
(1) soil erosion
(2) land slides
(3) soil fertility
(4) rainfall
Ans: (4)
108. Green house effect is warming due to
(1) Infra-red rays reaching earth
(2) Moisture layer in atmosphere
(3) Increase in temperature due to increase in carbon dioxide concentration of atmosphere
(4) Ozone layer of atmosphere
Ans: (3)

35. Organisms and Populations

1. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in:
(1) Tropical Rain Forest
(2) Grassland
(3) Temperate Forest
(4) Tropical Savannah
Ans: (1)
2. Which one of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(1) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(2) Development of adhesive organs
(3) Loss of digestive organs
(4) Loss of reproductive capacity
Ans: (4)
3. Benthic organisms are affected most by
(1) Water-holding capacity of soil
(2) Light reaching the forest floor
(3) Surface turbulence of water
(4) Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
Ans: (4)
4. Consider the following four conditions
(i) – (iv) and select the correct pair of them as adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions :
(i) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(iv) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis Options :
(1) (iii), (iv)
(2) (i)
(3) (iii), (ii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii)
Ans: (2)
5. Large woody vines are more commonly found in :
(1) temperate forest
(2) mangroves
(3) tropical rainforests
(4) alpine forests
Ans: (3)
6. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:
(1) dt/dN=Nr((K-N)/K)
(2) dN/dt=rN((K-N)/K)
(3) dN/dt=rN
(4) dN/dt=rN((N-K)/N)
Ans: (2)
7. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession ?
(1) It begins on a bare rock
(2) It occurs on a deforested site
(3) It follows primary succession
(4) It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
Ans: (2)
8. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
(1) Tundra – permafrost
(2) Savanna – acacia trees
(3) Prairie – epiphytes
(4) Coniferous forest – evergreen trees
Ans: (3)
9. Consider the following four statements
(a-d) about certain desert animals such as kangaroo, rat.
(1) They have dark colour and high rate of reproduction and excrete solid urine
(2) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow rate to conserve water and have their body covered with thick hairs
(3) They feed on dry seeds and do not require drinking water
(4) They excrete very concentrated urine and do not use water to regulate body temperature Which two of the above statements for such animals are true?
(1) 3 and 4
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 1
(4) 1 and 2
Ans: (1)
10. What is a keystone species ?
(1) A species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the community’s organization and survival
(2) A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on the community’s organization
(3) A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
(4) A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species.
Ans: (1)
11. All of the following statements concerning the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia :
(1) Can induce root nodules on many plant species
(2) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state.
(3) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids
(4) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex
Ans: (2)
12. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plants growing in
(1) tropics
(2) alpine region
(3) cold winter regions
(4) temperate climate
Ans: (1)
13. In which one of the following habitats does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?
(1) Shrub land
(2) Forest
(3) Desert
(4) Grassland
Ans: (3)
14. Cause of mimicry is
(1) concealment
(2) attack (offence)
(3) protection (defence)
(4) both (2) and (3)
Ans: (1)
15. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a constituent ?
(1) Pepsin
(2) Idioblast
(3) Bacteriochlorophyll
(4) Invertase
Ans: (2)
16. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis represent examples of tropical
(1) thorn forests
(2) deciduous forests
(3) evergreen forests
(4) grasslands
Ans: (1)
17. Which part of the world has a high density of organisms?
(1) Grasslands
(2) Savannahs
(3) Deciduous forests
(4) Tropical rain forests
Ans: (4)
18. Species occurring in different geographical areas are called as
(1) sibling
(2) sympatric
(3) allopatric
(4) neopatric
Ans: (3)
19. Which of the following communities is more vulnerable to invasion by outside animals and plants ?
(1) Tropical evergreen forests
(2) Oceanic island communities
(3) Mangroves
(4) Temperate forests.
Ans: (2)
20. The high boiling point of water is advantageous to living organisms because
(1) the environment seldom reaches the boiling point of water
(2) organisms can easily boil off enough water to keep themselves cool
(3) it allows organisms to spread heat evenly throughout their bodies
(4) organisms can absorb a great deal of heat before they reach the boiling point from organisms and population
Ans: (2)
21. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
(1) present in maximum number
(2) that are most frequent
(3) attaining a large biomass
(4) contributing to ecosystem properties
Ans: (4)
22. Desert plants are generally
(1) viviparous
(2) succulent
(3) herbaceous
(4) heterophyllus
Ans: (2)
23. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(1) uricotelism – aquatic habitat
(2) parasitism – intra-specific relationship
(3) excessive perspiration – xeric adaptation
(4) stream lined body – aquatic adaptation
Ans: (4)
24. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of salinity are
(1) stenohaline
(2) euryhaline
(3) anadromous
(4) catadromous
Ans: (1)
25. Xeric environment is characterised by
(1) precipitation
(2) low atmospheric humidity
(3) extremes of temperature
(4) high rate of vapourisation
Ans: (2)
26. Soil best suited for plant growth is
(1) clay
(2) loam
(3) sandy
(4) gravel
Ans: (2)
27. Tropical forests occur in India
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Kerala and Assam
(4) The forests do not occur in India
Ans: (3)
28. Soil particles determine its
(1) texture
(2) field capacity
(3) water holding capacity
(4) soil flora
Ans: (1)
29. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep coloured at the surface as compared to soil one metre down. The reason for colour of top soil is
(1) more moisture
(2) rich in organic matter
(3) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
(4) recent formation
Ans: (2)
30. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion of
(1) sand and zinc
(2) gravel and calcium
(3) clay and humus
(4) silt and earthworm
Ans: (3)
31. Homeostasis is
(1) tendency of biological systems to change with change in environment
(2) tendency of biological systems to resist change
(3) disturbance of self regulatory system and natural controls
(4) biotic materials used in homeopathic medicines.
Ans: (2)
32. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents :
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
Ans: (1)
33. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :
(1) K = N
(2) K > N
(3) K < N
(4) The value of ‘r’ approaches zero
Ans: (1)
34. Mycorrhizae are the example of:
(1) Amensalism
(2) Antibiosis
(3) Mutualism
(4) Fungistasis
Ans: (3)
35. Select the mismatch :
(1) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
(2) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
(3) Rhizobium – Alfalfa
(4) Frankia – Alnus
Ans: (1)
36. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1–N/K)
(1) when N/K is exactly one.
(2) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero.
(4) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
Ans: (1)
37. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that :
(1) more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
(2) competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
(3) no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
(4) larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
Ans: (3)
38. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :
(1) Symbiosis
(2) Commensalism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Ectoparasitism
Ans: (2)
39. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected ?
(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Competition
Ans: (4)
40. Cuscuta is an example of
(1) ectoparasitism
(2) brood parasitism
(3) predation
(4) endoparasitism
Ans: (1)
41. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :
(1) 15
(2) 05
(3) zero
(4) 10
Ans: (3)
42. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?
(1) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(2) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
(3) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their progeny
(4) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
Ans: (1)
43. Which one of the following is one of the characteristics of a biological community?
(1) Stratification
(2) Natality
(3) Mortality
(4) Sex ratio
Ans: (1)
44. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(1) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(2) Its population growth curve is of J-type
(3) The population of its predators increases enormously
(4) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
Ans: (2)
45. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
(1) population
(2) landscape
(3) ecosystem
(4) biotic community.
Ans: (1)
46. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
(1) intra specific competition
(2) inter specific competition
(3) predation on one another
(4) mutualism.
Ans: (1)
47. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they
(1) have more than 90 per cent similar genes
(2) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
(3) have same number of chromosomes
(4) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
Ans: (4)
48. The formula for exponential population growth is
(1) dN/rN = dt
(2) rN / dN = dt
(3) dN / dt = rN
(4) dt / dN = rN
Ans: (3)
49. Niche overlap indicates
(1) two different parasites on the same host
(2) sharing of one or more resources between the two species
(3) mutualism between two species
(4) active cooperation between two species
Ans: (2)
50. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude
(1) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive
(2) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
(3) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
(4) people get pollution – free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
Ans: (1)
51. Praying mantis is a good example of
(1) warning colouration
(2) social insects
(3) camouflage
(4) mullerian mimicry
Ans: (3)
52. The maximum growth rate occurs in
(1) stationary phase
(2) senescent phase
(3) lag phase
(4) exponential phase
Ans: (4)
53. Which of the following is not true for a species?
(1) Members of a species can interbreed.
(2) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species.
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species.
(4) Variations occur among members of a species.
Ans: (2)
54. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing it is called
(1) environmental resistance
(2) morbidity
(3) fecundity
(4) biotic potential
Ans: (1)
55. Certain characteristic demographic features of developing countries are
(1) high fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid population growth and a very young age distribution
(2) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate and a very young age distribution
(3) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven population growth and a very young age distribution
(4) high mortality, high density, uneven population growth and a very old age distribution
Ans: (1)
56. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria
(1) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(2) Lag, log, stationary phase
(3) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
(4) Decline, lag, log phase
Ans: (1)
57. In a population unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as
(1) biotic potential
(2) fertility
(3) carrying capacity
(4) birth rate
Ans: (1)
58. Which of the following is a correct pair?
(1) Cuscuta – parasite
(2) Dischidia – insectivorous
(3) Opuntia – predator
(4) Capsella – hydrophyte
Ans: (1)
59. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is plotted against time. What will be the shape of graph?
(1) Sigmoid
(2) Hyperbolic
(3) Ascending straight line
(4) Descending straight line
Ans: (3)
60. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent
(1) mutualism
(2) commensalism
(3) cooperation
(4) co-evolution
Ans: (1)
61. Choose the correct match
(1) Trapa, Dionaea, Drosera
(2) Nepenthes ,Utricularia, Vanda
(3) Utricularia, Drosera , Dionaea
(4) Dionaea, Trapa, Vanda
Ans: (3)
62. A pair of insectivorous plants is
(1) Drosera and Rafflesia
(2) Nepenthes and Bladderwort
(3) Dionaea and Viscum
(4) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia
Ans: (2)
63. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic feature of
(1) tissue culture cells
(2) multicellular organisms
(3) unicellular organisms
(4) embryo
Ans: (1)
64. In increasing order of organizational complexity, which one of the following is the correct sequence?
(1) Population, species, community, ecosystem
(2) Population, variety, species, ecosystem
(3) Population, ecosystem, species, community
(4) Species, variety, ecosystem, community
Ans: (1)
65. An interesting modification of flower shape for insect pollination occurs in some orchids in which a male insect mistakes the pattern on the orchid flower for the female of his species and tries to copulate with it, thereby pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is called
(1) mimicry
(2) pseudopollination
(3) pseudocopulation
(4) pseudoparthenocarpy
Ans: (1)
66. The present population of the world is about
(1) 500 million
(2) 100 billion
(3) 6 billion
(4) 15 billion
Ans: (3)
67. What is the most important factor for the success of animal population?
(1) Natality
(2) Unlimited food
(3) Adaptability
(4) Inter-species activity
Ans: (3)
68. The concept that population tends to increase geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically was put forward by
(1) Stuart Mill
(2) Adam Smith
(3) Charles Darwin
(4) Thomas Malthus
Ans: (4)
69. Human population growth in India
(1) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case of many other animal species
(2) tends to reach a zero population growth as in case of some animal species
(3) can be reduced by permitting natural calamities and enforcing birth control measures
(4) can be regulated by following the national programme of family planning
Ans: (4)
70. The sum total of the populations of the same kind of organisms constitute
(1) colony
(2) genus
(3) community
(4) species
Ans: (4)
71. In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age groups as a result of
(1) short life span of many individuals and low birth rate
(2) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate
(3) short life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(4) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate
Ans: (3)
72. Which one is true?
(1) Commensalism when none of the interacting populations affect each other
(2) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations
(3) Symbiosis when neither populations affects each other
(4) Commensalism when the interaction is useful to both the populations
Ans: (2)
73. Association of animals when both partners are benefitted
(1) colony
(2) mutualism
(3) commensalism
(4) amensalism
Ans: (2)
74. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe between
(1) closely related organism growing in different niches
(2) closely related organisms growing in the same area/niche
(3) distantly related organisms growing in the same habitat
(4) distantly related organisms growing in different niches
Ans: (2)
75. Vivipary is characteristic of
(1) mesophytes
(2) xerophytes
(3) hygrophytes
(4) halophytes
Ans: (4)

32. Microbes in Human Welfare

1. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?
(1) Secondary treatment
(2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment
(4) Tertiary treatment
Ans: (2)
2. In crop improvement programme, haploids are important because they
(1) require one half of nutrients
(2) are helpful in study of meiosis
(3) grow better under adverse conditions
(4) form perfect homozygous
Ans: (4)
3. The guts of cow and buffalo possess:
(1) Chlorella spp.
(2) Methanogens
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Fucus spp.
Ans: (2)
4. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?
(1) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(2) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(3) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(4) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
Ans: (3)
5. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :
(1) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
(2) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur dioxide
(3) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
(4) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
Ans: (4)
6. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?
(1) Methane and CO2 only
(2) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
(3) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2
(4) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
Ans: (2)
7. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of :
(1) ethanol
(2) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels.
(3) citric acid
(4) blood cholesterol lowering statins
Ans: (4)
8. A good producer of citric acid is :
(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Clostridium
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Aspergillus
Ans: (4)
9. Yeast is used in the production of
(1) Citric acid and lactic acid
(2) Lipase and pectinase
(3) Bread and beer
(4) Cheese and butter
Ans: (3)
10. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given :
(1) Penicillin
(2) Streptokinase
(3) Cyclosporin-A
(4) Statins
Ans: (2)
11. The domestic sewage in large cities
(1) has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
(2) is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs).
(3) when treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen.
(4) has very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts.
Ans: (2)
12. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/ diseases using microbes ?
(1) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant pathogens
(2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust in Brassica
(3) Bt – cotton to increase cotton yield
(4) Lady bird beetle against aphids in mustard
Ans: (1)
13. Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct ?
(1) Yeast – statins
(2) Acetobacter aceti – acid
(3) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid
(4) Aspergillus niger – citric acid
Ans: (3)
14. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B):
“A drug used for ——– (A) ——– patients is obtained from a species of the organism —– — (B) ——–.” The one correct option for the two blanks is Blank – A Blank – B
(1) Heart Penicillium
(2) Organ-transplant Trichoderma
(3) Swine flu Monascus
(4) AIDS Pseudomonas
Ans: (2)
15. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) Alcohol – nitrogenase
(2) Fruit juice – pectinase
(3) Textile – amylase
(4) Detergents – lipase
Ans: (1)
16. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of :
(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Clostridium
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Aspergillus
Ans: (1)
17. Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of:
(1) Acidophiles
(2) Alkaliphiles
(3) Thermoacidophiles
(4) Thermophiles
Ans: (2)
18. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for
(1) bioremediation of contaminated soils
(2) reclamation of wastelands
(3) gene transfer in higher plants
(4) biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens
Ans: (4)
19. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
(1) Yeast – ethanol
(2) Streptomycetes – antibiotic
(3) Coliforms – vinegar
(4) Methanogens – gobar gas.
Ans: (3)
20. Probiotics are
(1) cancer inducing microbes
(2) new kind of food allergens
(3) live microbial food supplement
(4) safe antibiotics
Ans: (3)
21. Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of
(1) absorption of carbon dioxide from atmosphehre
(2) fermentation
(3) cohesion
(4) osmosis
Ans: (2)
22. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(1) Streptomyces – Antibiotic
(2) Serratia – Drug addiction
(3) Spirulina – Single cell protein
(4) Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
Ans: (2)
23. During the formation of bread it becomes porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
(1) Yeast
(2) Bacteria
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoans
Ans: (1)
24. The term antibiotic was first used by
(1) Flemming
(2) Pasteur
(3) Waksman
(4) Lister
Ans: (3)
25. Which one of the following micro-organisms is used for production of citric acid in industries?
(1) Penicillium citrinum
(2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Rhizopus nigricans
(4) Lactobacillus bulgaris
Ans: (2)
26. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by
(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Lactobacillus
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Penicillium
Ans: (1)
27. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics?
(1) The term “antibiotic” was coined by Selman Waksman in 1942
(2) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Flemming
(3) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ
(4) Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic
Ans: (3)
28. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the industrial production of
(1) citric acid
(2) tetracycline
(3) ethanol
(4) butanol
Ans: (3)
29. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the
(1) Halophiles
(2) Thermoacidiophiles
(3) Methanogens
(4) Eubacteria
Ans: (3)
30. The organism, used for alcoholic fermentation, is
(1) Pseudomonas
(2) Penicillium
(3) Aspergillus
(4) Saccharomyces Topics 2: Microbes in production of Biogas/as Bio-control Agents/as Biofertilisers
Ans: (4)
31. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly caterpillars is
(1) Trichoderma sp.
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Streptococcus sp.
Ans: (3)
32. Match the following list of microbes and their importance:
(A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(i) Production of immunosuppressive agents
(B) Monascus Purpureus
(ii) Ripening of Swiss cheese
(C) Trichoderma polysporum
(iii) Commercial production of ethanol
(D) Propionibacterium sharamanii
(iv) Production of blood cholestrol lowering agents
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Ans: (4)
33. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is :
(1) Spirulina
(2) Anabaena
(3) Frankia
(4) Tolypothrix
Ans: (2)
34. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Aspergillus
(3) Glomus
(4) Trichoderma
Ans: (3)
35. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crops is
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Azospirillum
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Nostoc
Ans: (3)
36. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of
(1) butane
(2) methane
(3) propane
(4) carbon dioxide
Ans: (2)
37. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(1) Agrobacterium
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Nostoc
(4) Mycorrhiza
Ans: (1)
38. Which one of the following help in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(1) Glomus
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Frankia
(4) Anabaena
Ans: (1)
39. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Azospirillum
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) Frankia
Ans: (2)
40. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is
(1) Baculovirus
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Glomus
(4) Trichoderma
Ans: (4)
41. Select the correct statement from the following?
(1) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(2) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(3) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure methane
(4) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic bacteria
Ans: (4)
42. Which one of the following is not used in organic farming?
(1) Glomus
(2) Earthworm
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) Snail
Ans: (4)
43. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is
(1) Methophilic bacteria
(2) Butyric acid bacteria
(3) Helicobactor pylori
(4) Streptococcus lactin
Ans: (2)
44. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide?
(1) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(2) Downy mildew of grapes
(3) Loose smut of wheat
(4) Black rust of wheat
Ans: (2)
45. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent biofertiliser is
(1) Azolla
(2) Salvinia
(3) Marsilia
(4) Pteridium
Ans: (1)
46. Which of the following is pair of biofertilizers?
(1) Azolla and BGA
(2) Nostoc and legumes
(3) Rhizobium and grasses
(4) Salmonella and E. coli
Ans: (1)
47. Which one of the following is non-symbiotic biofertilizer?
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Anabaena
(3) Rhizobium
(4) VAM.
Ans: (1)
48. Due to which of the following organisms, yield of rice has been increased ?
(1) Anabaena
(2) Bacillus popilliae
(3) Sesbania
(4) Bacillus polymexa
Ans: (1)
49. Which of the following is likely to be achieved in the coming two decades?
(1) A complete understanding of the brainmind interaction
(2) Control of cancer
(3) Correction of genetic basis of diabetes mellitus
(4) Production of biodegradable plastic rather than cellulose by higher plants
Ans: (2)
50. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using the biofertilizer
(1) Azolla pinnata
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(4) Mycorrhiza
Ans: (1)
51. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the examples of
(1) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(2) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(3) ammonifying bacteria
(4) disease-causing bacteria
Ans: (2)
52. Gobar gas contains mainly
(1) CH4 + CO2
(2) CH4 + O2
(3) CO2 + H2
(4) CO2 + SO2
Ans: (1)
53. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing soil bacterium is
(1) Rhizobium
(2) Clostridium
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Klebsiella
Ans: (3)
54. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers are
(1) Azotobacter
(2) Pseudomonas
(3) soil fungi
(4) blue-green algae
Ans: (1)
55. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :
(1) Vector
(2) Plasmid
(3) Structural gene
(4) Selectable marker
Ans: (4)

37. Biodiversity and its Conservation

1. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:
(1) Laws of limiting factor
(2) Species area relationships
(3) Population Growth equation
(4) Ecological Biodiversity
Ans: (2)
2. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way passage
(1) free energy
(2) carbon
(3) nitrogen
(4) potassium
Ans: (1)
3. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as :
(1) Alien
(2) Endemic
(3) Rare
(4) Keystone
Ans: (2)
4. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
(1) Over – exploitation
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Co-extinctions
Ans: (3)
5. The organization which publishes the Red List of species is:
(1) ICFRE
(2) IUCN
(3) UNEP
(4) WWF
Ans: (2)
6. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called:
(1) Vulnerable
(2) Endemic
(3) Critically endangered
(4) Extinct
Ans: (3)
7. Which organization publishes the Red Data Book?
(1) GEF
(2) IUCN
(3) UNEP
(4) WWF
Ans: (2)
8. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
(1) Lichens
(2) Fungi
(3) Mosses and Ferns
(4) Algae
Ans: (2)
9. The highest number of species in the world is represented by
(1) Fungi
(2) Mosses
(3) Algae
(4) Lichens
Ans: (1)
10. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group.
(1) Fungi
(2) Animalia
(3) Monera
(4) Plantae
Ans: (3)
11. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents
(1) endangered species found in the region.
(2) the diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(3) genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.
(4) species endemic to the region.
Ans: (2)
12. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Groundnut
(2) Rice
(3) Maize
(4) Mango
Ans: (2)
13. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the following national park?
(1) Sunderbans
(2) Gir
(3) Jim Corbett
(4) Ranthambhor
Ans: (2)
14. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Mango
(2) Wheat
(3) Tea
(4) Teak
Ans: (2)
15. Which one of the following is the correct matched pair of an endangered animal and National Park ?
(1) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga National Park
(2) Wild ass – Dudhwa National Park
(3) Great Indian – Keoladeo National Park bustard
(4) Lion – Corbett National Park
Ans: (1)
16. Quercus species are the dominant component in
(1) Temperate deciduous forests
(2) Alpine forests
(3) Scrub forests
(4) Tropical rain forests
Ans: (1)
17. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the parliament in the year
(1) 1992
(2) 1996
(3) 2000
(4) 2002
Ans: (4)
18. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial radiation?
(1) 22 1 2 ° North and South
(2) 40° North and South
(3) 42 1 2 º North and South
(4) 66° North and South
Ans: (2)
19. Wildlife is destroyed most when
(1) there is lack of proper care
(2) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
(3) its natural habitat is destroyed
(4) natural calamity
Ans: (3)
20. In which one of the following pairs is the specific characteristic of a soil not correctly matched?
(1) Laterite – Contains aluminium compound
(2) Terra rossa – Most suitable for roses
(3) Chernozems – Richest soil in the world
(4) Black soil – Rich in calcium carbonate
Ans: (4)
21. During adverse season, therophytes survive by
(1) bulbs
(2) corms
(3) rhizomes
(4) seeds
Ans: (4)
22. Reason of diversity in living beings is due to
(1) mutation
(2) long term evolutionary change
(3) gradual change
(4) short term evolutionary change
Ans: (2)
23. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is most likely to happen on a long term basis ?
(1) Tribals living in these areas will starve to death
(2) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die due to lack of fodder
(3) Large areas will become deserts
(4) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to a reduced availability of variety of germplasm
Ans: (3)
24. Flamingoes breed in
(1) rann of Kutch
(2) chilka lake
(3) sambhar lake
(4) mansarover Lake
Ans: (2)
25. Which animal has become extinct from India?
(1) Snow Leopard
(2) Hippopotamus
(3) Wolf
(4) Cheetah
Ans: (4)
26. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis takes place in
(1) tropical rain forests
(2) tropical rain forest and crop plants
(3) crop plants
(4) oceans
Ans: (4)
27. American water plant that has become a troublesome water weed in India is
(1) Cyperus rotundus
(2) Eichhornia crassipes
(3) Trapa latifolia
(4) Trapa bispinosa
Ans: (2)
28. Species diversity increases as one proceeds from
(1) high altitude to low altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(2) low altitude to high altitude and high latitude to low latitude
(3) low altitude to high altitude and low latitude to high latitude
(4) high altitude to low altitude and low latitude to high latitude.
Ans: (1)
29. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
(1) retain nutrients
(2) hold organic materials
(3) hold water
(4) support life
Ans: (4)
30. A non-renewable resource is
(1) non-renewable non-conventional energy source
(2) non-renewable conventional energy source
(3) renewable non-conventional energy source
(4) renewable conventional energy source
Ans: (2)
31. Minerals and metals are
(1) biodegradable resources
(2) renewable
(3) non-renewable
(4) renewable and non-renewable resources
Ans: (4)
32. Petroleum is a
(1) synthetic product
(2) renewable resource
(3) non-renewable resource
(4) inconvenient resource
Ans: (3)
33. Renewable source of energy is
(1) Biomass
(2) Coal
(3) Petroleum
(4) Kerosene
Ans: (1)
34. Soil fertility is reduced by
(1) crop rotation
(2) nitrogen fixing bacteria
(3) decaying organic matter
(4) intensive agriculture
Ans: (4)
35. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as:
(1) Buffer zone
(2) Transition zone
(3) Restoration zone
(4) Core zone
Ans: (4)
36. Which one of the following is related to Exsitu conservation of threatened animals and plants ?
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Wildlife safari parks
Ans: (4)
37. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:-
(1) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
(2) In situ conservation by sacred groves
(3) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
(4) In situ conservation of biodiversity
Ans: (1)
38. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
(1) Gangetic shark
(2) River dolphin
(3) Blue whale
(4) Sea-horse
Ans: (2)
39. An example of ex situ conservation is:
(1) National Park
(2) Seed Bank
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary
(4) Sacred Grove
Ans: (2)
40. In which of the following both pairs have correct combination:
(1) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary
(2) In situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex situ conservation : National Park
(3) In situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves
(4) In situ conservation : National Park Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
Ans: (4)
41. The largest tiger reserve in India is
(1) Nagarhole
(2) Valmiki
(3) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(4) Periyar
Ans: (3)
42. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to:
(1) Western Ghat
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Corbett National Park
(4) Keoladeo National Park
Ans: (4)
43. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(1) Eastern Ghats
(2) Gangetic Plain
(3) Sunderbans
(4)Western Ghats
Ans: (4)
44. Which one of the following is not used for ex-situ plant conservation ?
(1) Seed banks
(2) Shifting cultivation
(3) Botanical Gardens
(4) Field gene banks
Ans: (2)
45. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
(1) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
(2) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
(3) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.
(4) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals.
Ans: (2)
46. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(1) preventing soil erosion.
(2) year-round flow of water in rivers.
(3) generating environmental awareness.
(4) conserving rare and threatened species.
Ans: (4)
47. Consider the following statements (A)-(D)
each with one or two blanks.
(A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to __(2)__ cold weather
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents __(3)__ human population
(C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of __(4)___
(D) An area with high levels of species richness is known as __(5)___ Which one of the following options give the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements
(1) (2) – stable (4) commensalism, (5) marsh
(2) (1) – aestivation, (5) – escape, (3) – stable, (4) – mutualism
(3) (3) – expanding, (4) – commensalism, (5) biodiversity park
(4) (1)- hibernation, (2) – escape, (3) – expanding, (5) hot spot
Ans: (4)
48. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called
(1) herbarium
(2) germplasm
(3) gene library
(4) genome
Ans: (3)
49. Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?
(1) Endemism
(2) Accelerated species loss
(3) Lesser inter-specific competition
(4) Species richness
Ans: (2)
50. Which one of the following is an example of Exsitu conservation?
(1) Wildlife sanctuary
(2) Seed bank
(3) Sacred groves
(4) National park
Ans: (2)
51. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of
(1) Ocimum
(2) Garlic
(3) Nepenthes
(4) Podophyllum
Ans: (4)
52. World Summit on Sustainable Development
(2002) was held in
(1) Brazil
(2) Sweden
(3) Argentina
(4) South Africa
Ans: (4)
53. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
(1) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(2) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
(3) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(4) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
Ans: (1)
54. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.
(1) Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger
(2) Periyar – Elephant
(3) Rann of kutch – Wild Ass
(4) Dachigam – Snow Leopard. National park
Ans: (4)
55. Which of the following is considered a hotspot of biodiversity in India ?
(1) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(2) Eastern Ghats
(3) Aravalli Hills
(4) Western Ghats
Ans: (4)
56. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation ?
(1) Botanical garden
(2) Biosphere reserve
(3) National park
(4) Sanctuary
Ans: (1)
57. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)?
(1) Critically endangered species
(2) Vulnerable species
(3) Extinct species
(4) Endangered species
Ans: (4)
58. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India?
(1) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
(2) Cinchona and leopard
(3) Banyan and black buck
(4) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
Ans: (4)
59. In your opinion, which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?
(1) By tissue culture method
(2) By creating biosphere reserve
(3) By creating botanical garden
(4) By developing seed bank
Ans: (4)
60. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that
(1) they provide a beautiful area for recreation
(2) one can observe tropical plants there
(3) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(4) they provide the natural habitat for wildlife
Ans: (3)
61. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is found in
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) Madagascar
(3) Mauritius
(4) India
Ans: (2)
62. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species ?
(1) Birds
(2) Mammals
(3) Fishes
(4) Reptiles
Ans: (2)
63. Which animal has gone extinct in recent times in India?
(1) Panthera leo
(2) Acinonyx jubatus
(3) Antilope cervicapra
(4) Rhinoceros unicornis
Ans: (1)
64. An institution where valuable plant material likely to become irretrievably lost in the wild or in cultivation is preserved in a viable condition is known as
(1) Genome
(2) Herbarium
(3) Gene library
(4) Gene bank
Ans: (4)
65. MAB stands for
(1) Man and Biology Programme
(2) Man and Biosphere Programme
(3) Mammals and Biosphere Programme
(4) Mammals and Biology Programme
Ans: (2)
66. A high density of a protected animal in a National Park can result into
(1) mutualism
(2) intraspecific competition
(3) emigration
(4) predation
Ans: (2)
67. Which of the following is the correct matching pair of a sanctuary and its main protected wild animal?
(1) Gir-Lion
(2) Sariska-Tiger
(3) Sunderban- Rhino
(4) Kaziranga-Musk deer
Ans: (1)
68. A number of natural reserves have been created to conserve specific wild life species.
Identify the correct combination from the following
(1) Gir forest – Tiger
(2) Kaziranga – Elephants
(3) Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass
(4) Manas wild life Sanctuary – Musk deer
Ans: (3)
69. National Park associated with Rhinoceros is
(1) Kaziranga
(2) Ranthambore
(3) Corbett
(4) Valley of Flowers
Ans: (1)
70. Ranthambore National Park is situated in
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Gujarat
(4) U.P.
Ans: (2)

36. Ecosystem

1. The term ecosystem was coined by
(1) E.P. Odum
(2) A.G. Tansley
(3) E.Haeckel
(4) E. Warming
Ans: (2)
2. A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of both partners is
(1) mutualism/symbiosis
(2) commensalism
(3) amensalism
(4) both A and B
Ans: (1)
3. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as:
(1) Stratification
(2) Zonation
(3) Pyramid
(4) Divergence
Ans: (1)
4. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are:
(1) secondary consumers
(2) tertiary consumers
(3) detritivores
(4) primary consumers
Ans: (3)
5. In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as:
(1) Gross primary productivity
(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Net productivity
(4) Net primary productivity
Ans: (1)
6. The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called :
(1) Standing state
(2) Net primary productivity
(3) Standing crop
(4) Gross primary productivity
Ans: (3)
7. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by
(1) Parasite
(2) Consumer
(3) Decomposer
(4) Producer
Ans: (2)
8. Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?
(1) Humification-Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at every fast rate
(2) Catabolism-Last step decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
(3) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(4) Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
Ans: (4)
9. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(1) humification
(2) fragmentation
(3) mineralisation
(4) catabolism
Ans: (2)
10. The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called
(1) net productivity
(2) secondary productivity
(3) net primary productivity
(4) gross primary productivity
Ans: (2)
11. The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called:
(1) net primary productivity
(2) secondary productivity
(3) standing crop
(4) gross primary productivity
Ans: (1)
12. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is :
(1) about 70%
(2) about 60%
(3) less than 50%
(4) more than 80%
Ans: (3)
13. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their
(1) low moisture content
(2) poor nitrogen content
(3) anaerobic environment around them
(4) low cellulose content
Ans: (1)
14. About 70% of total global carbon is found in
(1) grasslands
(2) agroecosystems
(3) oceans
(4) forests
Ans: (3)
15. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem?
(1) Secondary Production
(2) Tertiary Production
(3) Gross Production (GP)
(4) Net Production (NP)
Ans: (3)
16. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
(1) tropical deciduous forest
(2) temperate evergreen forest
(3) temperate deciduous forest
(4) tropical rain forest.
Ans: (4)
17. The rate at which light energy is converted to the chemical energy of organic molecules is the ecosystem’s
(1) net primary productivity
(2) gross primary productivity
(3) net secondary productivity
(4) gross secondary productivity
Ans: (2)
18. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the oceans is that of
(1) sea grasses and slime moulds
(2) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and nanoplankton
(3) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and daphnids
(4) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
Ans: (2)
19. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to its
(1) function at its place of occurrence
(2) place of its occurrence
(3) competitive ability
(4) centre of origin
Ans: (1)
20. Which of the following ecosystems has highest rate of gross primary production?
(1) Grasslands
(2) Mangroves
(3) Coral reefs
(4) Equatorial rain forest
Ans: (4)
21. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because
(1) energy flow will be blocked
(2) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(3) mineral movement will be blocked
(4) rate of decomposition will be very high
Ans: (3)
22. Which of the following does not have stomata?
(1) hydrophytes
(2) mesophytes
(3) xerophytes
(4) submerged hydrophytes
Ans: (4)
23. In a biotic community, the most important factor for survival of an animal is
(1) day length
(2) soil moisture
(3) green food
(4) predators
Ans: (3)
24. Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
(1) Forest
(2) Desert
(3) Mountain
(4) Ocean
Ans: (4)
25. Decomposers are organisms that
(1) elaborate chemical substances, causing death of tissues
(2) operate in living body and simplifying organic substances of cells step by step
(3) attack and kill plants as well as animals
(4) operate in relay terms, simplifying step by step the organic constituents of dead body
Ans: (4)
26. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in
(1) Crop plants
(2) Oceans
(3) Tropical rain forests
(4) Temperature forests
Ans: (2)
27. Pedology is science of
(1) earth
(2) soil
(3) diseases
(4) pollution
Ans: (2)
28. Study of inter-relationships between organisms and their environment is
(1) ecology
(2) ecosystem
(3) phytogeography
(4) ethology
Ans: (1)
29. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
(1) plankton
(2) nekton
(3) plankton and nekton
(4) benthos
Ans: (1)
30. Greatest producers of organic matter are
(1) crop plants
(2) forests
(3) plants of the land area
(4) phytoplankton of oceans
Ans: (4)
31. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
(1) Absence of soil organisms
(2) Least genetic diversity
(3) Absence of weeds
(4) Ecological succession
Ans: (2)
32. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
(1) Grassland ecosystem
(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Lake ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem
Ans: (4)
33. Secondary Succession takes place on/in :
(1) Degraded forest
(2) Newly created pond
(3) Newly cooled lava
(4) Bare rock
Ans: 34 (1)
34. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
(1) Lichens
(2) Liverworts
(3) Mosses
(4) Green algae
Ans: (1)
35. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels is known as :
(1) Biodeterioration
(2) Biotransformation
(3) Biogeochemical
(4) Biomagnification
Ans: (4)
36. During ecological succession:
(1) the establishment of a new biotic community is very fast in its primary phase.
(2) the numbers and types of animals remain constant.
(3) the changes lead to a community that is in near equilibrium with the environment and is called pioneer community.
(4) the gradual and predictable change in species composition occurs in a given area.
Ans: (4)
37. An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is:
(1) Biotic community
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Population
(4) Ecological niche
Ans: (1)
38. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning is prevented by :
(1) Xanthophyll
(2) Carotene
(3) Cytochrome
(4) Leghemoglobin
Ans: (4)
39. Which one of the following is a primary consumer in maize field ecosystem?
(1) Lion
(2) Grasshopper
(3) Wolf
(4) Phytoplankton
Ans: (2)
40. Match the following and select the correct option:
(A) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
(B) Succession (ii) Detritivore
(C) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
(D) Population growth (iv) Pollination
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: (4)
41. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from :
(1) sugarcane roots
(2) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter.
(3) soil insects
(4) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc.
Ans: (2)
42. When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which have eaten small plants, the producer in the chain is
(1) Zooplankton
(2) Small plants
(3) Fish
(4) Man
Ans: (2)
43. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels ?
(1) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is “small insectivorous birds”.
(2) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “Whale” on top level TC
(3) Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level SC is “sheep”.
(4) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”.
Ans: (1)
44. Identify the possible link “A” in the following food chain : Plant → insect – frog → “A” → Eagle
(1) Rabbit
(2) WoIf
(3) Cobra
(4) Parrot
Ans: (3)
45. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(1) Pond
(2) Forest
(3) Lake
(4) Grassland
Ans: (2)
46. Which one of the following is not a function of an ecosystem?
(1) Energy flow
(2) Decomposition
(3) Productivity
(4) Stratification
Ans: (4)
47. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
(1) standing crop
(2) deteritus
(3) humus
(4) standing state
Ans: (1)
48. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like
(1) Azolla
(2) Typha
(3) Salix
(4) Vallisneria
Ans: (4)
49. Which one of the following animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at the same time?
(1) Sparrow
(2) Lion
(3) Goat
(4) Frog
Ans: (1)
50. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct ?
(1) Its base is broad
(2) It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms
(3) It is inverted in shape
(4) It is upright in shape
Ans: (3)
51. Study the four statements (a–d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
(i) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers
(ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates
(iii) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species
(iv) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders The two correct statements are:
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)
Ans: (4)
52. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to:
(1) medium water conditions
(2) xeric conditions
(3) highly dry conditions
(4) excessive wet conditions
Ans: (1)
53. Which one of the following types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?
(1) Fish
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Frog
(4) Phytoplankton
Ans: (1)
54. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere is:
(1) Volvox →Hydrilla →Pistia →Scirpus Lantana →Oak
(2) Pistia →Volvox →Scirpus →Hydrilla →Oak →Lantana
(3) Oak→Lantana →Volvox →Hydrilla →Pistia →Scirpus
(4) Oak →Lantana →Scirpus →Pistia →Hydrilla →Volvox
Ans: (1)
55. Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(1) Number of individuals
(2) Rate of energy flow
(3) Fresh weight
(4) Dry weight
Ans: (3)
56. Consider the following statements concerning food chains
(1) removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
(2) removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers
(3) the length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss
(4) the length of food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels Which two of the above statements are correct?
(1) (2) and (3)
(2) (3) and (4)
(3) (1) and (4)
(4) (1) and (2)
Ans: (1)
57. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then what will be the trophic level of it?
(1) First trophic level (T1)
(2) Second trophic level (T2)
(3) Third trophic level (T3)
(4) Fourth trophic level (T4)
Ans: (1)
58. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having
(1) low stability and high resilience
(2) high stability and low resilience
(3) low stability and low resilience
(4) high stability and high resilience
Ans: (1)
59. In a food chain, the largest population is that of
(1) decomposers
(2) producers
(3) primary consumers
(4) tertiary consumers
Ans: (2)
60. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed by the 2nd law of thermodynamics. The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is
(1) 5%
(2) 10%
(3) 25%
(4) 50%
Ans: (2)
61. In a biotic community, the primary consumers are
(1) carnivores
(2) omnivores
(3) detritivores
(4) herbivores
Ans: (4)
62. The primary succession refers to the development of communities on a
(1) fleshly cleared crop field
(2) forest clearing after devastating fire
(3) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry phase
(4) newly-exposed habitat with no record of earlier vegetation
Ans: (4)
63. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be
(1) 100 kg
(2) 10 kg
(3) 200 kg
(4) 1 kg
Ans: (2)
64. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a stable ecosystem is that of
(1) Biomass
(2) Number
(3) Energy
(4) All the above
Ans: (3)
65. In a food chain, the largest population is that of
(1) producers
(2) decomposers
(3) secondary consumers
(4) primary consumers
Ans: (4)
66. Second most important trophic level in a lake is
(1) Zooplankton
(2) Phytoplankton
(3) Benthos
(4) Neuston
Ans: (1)
67. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is
(1) irregular
(2) inverted
(3) upright
(4) spindle shaped
Ans: (3)
68. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of
(1) species in an area
(2) individuals in a community
(3) individuals in a tropic-level
(4) subspecies in a community
Ans: (3)
69. Pick up the correct food chain
(1) Grass → Chamelion → Insect → Bird
(2) Grass → Fox → Rabbit → Bird
(3) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
(4) Fallen leaves → Bacteria → Insect larvae
Ans: (3)
70. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers is
(1) parasitic food chain
(2) detritus food chain
(3) consumer food chain
(4) predator food chain
Ans: (2)
71. What is true of ecosystem?
(1) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(2) Primary consumers out-number producers
(3) Producers are more than primary consumers
(4) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful
Ans: (3)
72. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true ecosystem is
(1) always inverted
(2) always upright
(3) both A and B
(4) spindle-shaped
Ans: (2)
73. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ?
(1) Sulphur cycle
(2) Phosphorus cycle
(3) Nitrogen cycle
(4) Carbon cycle
Ans: (2)
74. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :
(1) Animal bones
(2) Rock
(3) Fossils
(4) Sea water
Ans: (2)
75. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are inactivated, then there will be no
(1) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(2) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(3) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
(4) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
Ans: (1)
76. Barophilic prokaryotes:
(1) grow and multiply in very deep marine sediments
(2) occur in water containing high concentrations of barium hydroxide
(3) readily grow and divide in sea water enriched in any soluble salt of barium
(4) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen lakes at high altitudes
Ans: (1)
77. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle?
(1) oxygen and nitrogen
(2) phosphorus and sulphur
(3) phosphorus and nitrogen
(4) phosphorus and carbon dioxide
Ans: (2)
78. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves
(1) photosynthesis
(2) chemosynthesis
(3) digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
(4) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
Ans: (3)
1998)

29. Evolution

1. Which of the following represents order of Horse’?
(1) Perissodactyla
(2) Caballus
(3) Ferus
(4) Equidae
Ans: (1)
2. Analogous structures are a result of
(1) Divergent evolution
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Shared ancestry
(4) Stabilizing selection
Ans: (2)
3. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life
(1) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(2) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(1) (1) is correct but
(2) is false.
(2)
(2) is correct but (1) is false.
Ans: (3)
4. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.
(2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man.
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
(4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
Ans: (2)
5. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of: (1) Analogous organs
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Convergent evolution
Ans: (3)
6. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called :
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Non-random evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Natural selection
Ans: (1)
7. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of:
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution.
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution.
Ans: (2)
8. According to Darwin, The organic evolution is due to:
(1) Interspecific competition
(2) Competition within closely related species
(3) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species
(4) Intraspecific competition
Ans: (4)
9. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural section. The is referred to as:
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Random mating
(3) Genetic load
(4) Genetic flow
Ans: (1)
10. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources.
Which of the following is not a finch food?
(1) Seeds
(2) Carrion
(3) Insects
(4) Tree buds
Ans: (2)
11. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as
(1) Mutation
(2) Migration
(3) Natural selection
(4) Genetic drift
Ans: (4)
12. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
(1) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum.
(2) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose.
(3) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population.
(4) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage.
Ans: (2)
13. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as:
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Natural selection
(3) Migration
(4) Divergent evolution
Ans: (1)
14. Peripatus is a connecting link between:
(1) Mollusca and Echinodermata
(2) Annelida and Arthropoda
(3) Coelenterata and Porifera
(4) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
Ans: (2)
15. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
(1) Industrial melanism
(2) Connecting link
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Convergent evolution
Ans: (3)
16. Darwinism finches are an excellent example of
(1) adaptive radiation
(2) seasonal migration
(3) brood parasitism
(4) connecting links
Ans: (1)
17. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(1) Weismann – Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(2) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters
(3) De Vries – Natural selection
(4) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis
Ans: (1)
18. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
(1) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita – Analogous organs
(2) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye – Vestigial organs
(3) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of Cockroach – Excretory organs
(4) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow – Homologous organs
Ans: (3)
19. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita are example of
(1) analogous organs
(2) homologous organs
(3) vestigial organs
(4) retrogressive evolution
Ans: (2)
20. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
(1) microevolution
(2) co-evolution
(3) convergent evolution
(4) divergent evolution
Ans: (3)
21. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic origin of life?
(1) They were able to reproduce
(2) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
(3) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
(4) They could maintain an internal environment
Ans: (2)
22. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
(1) interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
(2) effect of solar radiation on chemicals
(3) possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
(4) crystallization of chemicals.
Ans: (3)
23. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(1) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(2) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
(3) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(4) Stem cells are specialize cells.
Ans: (3)
24. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
(1) Toothless jaws
(2) Functional post-end tail
(3) Ovoparity
(4) Homeothermy
Ans: (4)
25. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
(1) evolution due to mutation
(2) retrogressive evolution
(3) biogeographical evolution
(4) special creation.
Ans: (3)
26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that
(1) the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(2) the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
(3) melanism is a pollution-generated feature
(4) the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
Ans: (4)
27. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
(1) Thick subcutaneous fat
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Homoiothermy
(4) Seasonal migration.
Ans: (2)
28. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is
(1) preventing speciation
(2) speciation through reproductive isolation
(3) random creation of new species
(4) no change in the isolated fauna.
Ans: (2)
29. Adaptive radiation refers to
(1) evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(2) migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
(3) power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(4) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
Ans: (1)
30. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as
(1) Ancestry
(2) Paleontology
(3) Ontogeny
(4) Phylogeny
Ans: (4)
31. Which one of the following amino-acid was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?
(1) Aspartic acid
(2) Glutamic acid
(3) Alanine
(4) Glycine
Ans: (2)
32. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example.
(1) Colour change in Chameleon
(2) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
(3) Poison fangs in snakes
(4) Melanism in moths
Ans: (3)
33. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
(1) Analogous and vestigial organs
(2) Homologous organs only
(3) Homologous and analogous organs
(4) Homologous and vestigial organs
Ans: (4)
34. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(1) Development of transgenic animals
(2) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by cloning
(3) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(4) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
Ans: (3)
35. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from nonliving matter?
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter.
(2) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
(4) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel.
Ans: (4)
36. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on:
(1) Pisum sativum
(2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Oenothera lamarckiana
(4) Althea rosea
Ans: (3)
37. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used
(1) on plates with and without streptomycin
(2) on plates with minimal medium
(3) only on plates with streptomycin
(4) only on plates without streptomycin
Ans: (3)
38. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
(1) study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils
(2) study of the conditions of fossilization
(3) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA
(4) study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
Ans: (3)
39. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(1) fishes were amphibious in the past
(2) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
(3) frogs will have gills in future
(4) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
Ans: (4)
40. Diversification in plant life appeared
(1) due to long periods of evolutionary changes
(2) due to abrupt mutations
(3) suddenly on earth
(4) by seed dispersal
Ans: (1)
41. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth
(1) Methane
(2) Oxygen
(3) Hydrogen
(4) Water vapour
Ans: (2)
42. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
(1) Variations, natural selection, overproduction, constancy of population size
(2) Overproduction, variations, constancy of population size, natural selection
(3) Variations, constancy of population size, overproduction, natural selection
(4) Overproduction, constancy of population size, variations, natural selection
Ans: (2)
43. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because
(1) they can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
(2) they are small, and therefore, easy to study
(3) they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(4) their structure is known in greater detail
Ans: (3)
44. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?
(1) Migration
(2) Mutations
(3) Random drift
(4) Selection
Ans: (3)
45. Industrial melanism is an example of
(1) defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
(2) drug resistance
(3) darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(4) protective resemblance with the surroundings
Ans: (4)
46. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures ?
(1) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
(2) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(3) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(4) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
Ans: (2)
47. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
(1) dogfish and whale
(2) rat and dog
(3) bacterium and protozoan
(4) starfish and cuttle fish
Ans: (1)
48. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from
(1) large population size
(2) highly genetically variable individuals
(3) interbreeding within this population
(4) constant low mutation rate
Ans: (3)
49. Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection Theory’ did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution ?
(1) Discontinuous variations
(2) Parasites and predators as natural enemies
(3) Survival of the fittest
(4) Struggle for existence
Ans: (1)
50. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
(1) O2
(2) water
(3) light
(4) temperature
Ans: (2)
51. Which of the following are homologous organs?
(1) Wings of birds and locust
(2) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins of fish
(3) Wings of bat and butterfly
(4) Legs of frog and cockroach
Ans: (2)
52. Two different species can not live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(1) Allen’s law
(2) Gause’s hypothesis
(3) Dollo’s rule
(4) Weisman’s theory
Ans: (2)
53. Sequence of which of the followings is used to know the phylogeny?
(1) mRNA
(2) rRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) DNA
Ans: (2)
54. In which condition the gene ratio remains constant for any species?
(1) Sexual selection
(2) Random mating
(3) Mutation
(4) Gene flow
Ans: (2)
55. Which of the following is most important for speciation ?
(1) Seasonal isolation
(2) Reproductive isolation
(3) Behavioural isolation
(4) Tropical isolation
Ans: (2)
56. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to
(1) natural selection
(2) Induced mutation
(3) reproductive isolation
(4) genetic drift
Ans: (1)
57. Genetic drift operates only in
(1) smaller Populations
(2) larger Populations
(3) mendelian Populations
(4) island Populations
Ans: (1)
58. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?
(1) Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival
(2) Size of organs increase with ageing
(3) Development of organs is due to will power
(4) There should be come physical basis of inheritance
Ans: (4)
59. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates
(1) Microevolution
(2) Macroevolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Divergent evolution
Ans: (3)
60. Half life period of C is about
(1) 500 years
(2) 5000 years
(3) 50 years
(4) 5 × 104 years
Ans: (2)
61. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
(1) These species have been extinct from other regions
(2) Continental separation
(3) There is no terrestial route to these places
(4) Retrogressive evolution
Ans: (2)
62. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than their parental generation due to
(1) natural selection
(2) mutation
(3) genetic drift
(4) adaptation
Ans: (2)
63. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population may change due to
(1) genetic Drift
(2) gene flow
(3) mutation
(4) natural selection
Ans: (1)
64. During organ differentiation in Drosophila an organ is often modified to another organ such as wings could be replaced by legs.
Genes responsible for such metamorphosis are called
(1) Homeotic genes
(2) Plastid genes
(3) Double dominant genes
(4) Complimentary genes
Ans: (1)
65. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
(1) Segmental muscles of abdomen
(2) Finger nails
(3) Third molar
(4) Coccyx
Ans: (2)
66. Homologous organs are
(1) Wings of insects and Bat
(2) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit
(3) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of Horse
(4) Wings of Grosshopper and Crow
Ans: (3)
67. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of
(1) Biogeography
(2) Anatomy
(3) Embryology
(4) Palaentology
Ans: (1)
68. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of
(1) a very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(2) very low atmospheric temperature
(3) absence of raw materials
(4) high degree of environmental pollution
Ans: (1)
69. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates
(1) natural selection
(2) induced mutation
(3) geographical isolation
(4) reproductive islolation
Ans: (1)
70. Which one of the following includes all homologous organs?
(1) The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, wing (patagia) of bat
(2) The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and fore limb of rabbit
(3) The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit
(4) The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing of “flying” lizard
Ans: (2)
71. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(1) Intraspecific variations
(2) Intraspecific competition
(3) Interspecific competition
(4) Origin of Species by natural selection
Ans: (4)
72. Identify the correct sequence in which the following substances have appeared during the course of evolution of life on earth
(1) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins
(2) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids
(3) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids, enzymes
(4) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates, nucleic acids
Ans: (2)
73. The kind of evolution in which two species of different geneology come to resemble one another closely, is termed as
(1) progressive evolution
(2) convergent evolution
(3) parallel evolution
(4) retrogressive evolution
Ans: (2)
74. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively shorter in animals living in cooler regions as compared to those inhabiting warmer zones.
This is
(1) Bergman’s Rule
(2) Jordan’s Rule
(3) Gloger’s Rule
(4) Allen’s Rule
Ans: (4)
75. Which one of the following sets includes only the vestigial structures in man?
(1) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx, patella
(2) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx, patella
(3) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform appendix, ear muscles
(4) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, vermiform appendix
Ans: (3)
76. The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
(1) size
(2) origin
(3) function
(4) appearance
Ans: (2)
77. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(1) biogenesis
(2) recapitulation
(3) metamorphosis
(4) organic evolution
Ans: (2)
78. The change of the light-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to
(1) mutation
(2) regeneration
(3) genetic isolation
(4) temporal isolation
Ans: (1)
79. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated as
(1) clines
(2) demes
(3) clones
(4) sibling species
Ans: (4)
80. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
(2) Absence of limbs in snakes
(3) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(4) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in industrial areas.
Ans: (4)
81. Frequency of a character increases when it is
(1) recessive
(2) dominant
(3) inheritable
(4) adaptable
Ans: (4)
82. Golden era/age of reptiles is
(1) palaeozoic
(2) mesozoic
(3) recent
(4) proterozoic
Ans: (2)
83. Two geographical regions separated by high mountains are
(1) Oriental and Australian
(2) Palaearctic and Oriental
(3) Nearctic and Palaearctic
(4) Neotropical and Ethiopian
Ans: (2)
84. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
(1) Darwin was correct
(2) Tail is an essential organ
(3) Mutation theory is wrong
(4) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters.
Ans: (4)
85. Evolutionary convergence is development of
(1) common set of characters in group of different ancestry
(2) dissimilar characters in closely related groups
(3) common set of characters in closely related groups
(4) random mating.
Ans: (1)
86. Genetic drift is change of
(1) gene frequency in same generation
(2) appearance of recessive genes
(3) gene frequency from one generation to next
(4) none of the above
Ans: (3)
87. Q
(1) role of environment in evolution
(2) natural selection acting on favourable variations
(3) changes in gene complex resulting in heritable variations
(4) none of these
Ans: (3)
1993)
88. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
(1) NH3
(2) H2
(3) O2
(4) CH4
Ans: (3)
89. The first organisms were
(1) Chemoautotrophs
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Autotrophs
(4) Eucaryotes
Ans: (2)
90. Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by
(1) Van Baer
(2) Weismann
(3) Haeckel
(4) Morgan
Ans: (1)
91. Parallelism is
(1) adaptive divergence
(2) adaptive divergence of widely separated species
(3) adaptive convergence of widely different species
(4) adaptive convergence of closely related groups
Ans: (4)
92. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given by
(1) de Vries
(2) Weismann
(3) Darwin
(4) Lamarck
Ans: (2)
93. Evolution is
(1) progressive development of a race
(2) history and development of a race alongwith variations
(3) history of a race
(4) development of a race
Ans: (2)
94. ‘Origin’ of species’ was written by
(1) Oparin
(2) Weismann
(3) Lamarck
(4) Darwin
Ans: (4)
95. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
(1) Wallace
(2) Lamarck
(3) Darwin
(4) De Vries
Ans: (2)
96. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others for escaping from enemies is
(1) Adaptation
(2) Mimicry
(3) Homology
(4) Analogy
Ans: (2)
97. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Homology
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Parallel evolution
Ans: (3)
98. A population will not exist in Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium if :
(1) There are no mutations
(2) There is no migration
(3) The population is large
(4) Individuals mate selectively
Ans: (4)
99. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
(1) Homo sapiens
(2) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Homo erectus
Ans: (3)
100. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?
(1) Devonion
(2) Coenozoic
(3) Jurassic
(4) Mesozoic
Ans: (4)
101. Industrial melanism is an example of :
(1) Natural selection
(2) Mutation
(3) Neo Lamarckism
(4) Neo Darwinism
Ans: (1)
102. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
(1) Upright posture
(2) Shortening of jaws
(3) Binocular vision
(4) lncreasing brain capacity
Ans: (4)
103. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Neanderthal human
(3) Cro-magnan humans
(4) Ramapithecus
Ans: (2)
104. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?
(1) Scales on their hind limbs
(2) Four-chambered heart
(3) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
(4) Eggs with a calcareous shell
Ans: (a & d)
105. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia)
the black – coloured form became dominant over the light- coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of:
(1) appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
(2) protective mimicry
(3) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
(4) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
Ans: (4)
106. Select the correct statement from the following?
(1) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature
(2) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
(3) Mutations are random and directional
(4) Darwinian variations are small and directionless.
Ans: (1)
107. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more that 1000 cc in
(1) Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Homo neanderthalensis
Ans: (4)
108. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
(1) Sphenodon
(2) Archaeopteryx
(3) Peripatus
(4) King crab
Ans: (2)
109. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by
(1) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
(2) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appeared
(3) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appeared
(4) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and first birds appeared
Ans: (4)
110. There are two opposing views about origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested African origin of modern man.
What kind of observation on DNA, variation could suggest this?
(1) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(2) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(3) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
(4) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
Ans: (1)
111. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils?
(1) Radio-carbon method
(2) Potassium-argon method
(3) Electron-spin resonance method
(4) Uranium-lead method
Ans: (3)
112. In which era reptiles were dominant?
(1) Coenozoic era
(2) Mesozoic era
(3) Palaeozoic era
(4) Archaeozoic era
Ans: (2)
113. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes?
(1) Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes only
(2) Comparison of chromosomes morphology only
(3) Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
(4) Evidence from DNA extracted from sex chromosomes, autosomes and mitochondria
Ans: (4)
114. Which of following is closest relative of man?
(1) Chimpanzee
(2) Gorilla
(3) Orangutan
(4) Gibbon
Ans: (1)
115. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man was started from
(1) France
(2) Java
(3) Africa
(4) China
Ans: (3)
116. Homo sapiens evolved during
(1) Pleistocene
(2) Oligocene
(3) Pliocene
(4) Miocene
Ans: (3)
117. Which of the following is correct order of evolutionary history of man?
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
(2) Peking, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, Cromagnon
(3) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
(4) Peking man, Neanderthel, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
Ans: (3)
118. Which one of the following features is closely related with the evolution of humans?
(1) Loss of tail
(2) Shortening of jaws
(3) Binocular vision
(4) Flat nails
Ans: (1)
119. Which of the following primate is the closest relative of humans?
(1) Rhesus monkey
(2) Orangutan
(3) Gorilla
(4) Gibbon
Ans: (3)
120. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is
(1) 5 × 106 years back
(2) 25 × 106 years back
(3) 50 × 106 years back
(4) 75 × 106 years back
Ans: (2)
121. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish-like heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
(1) Hardy-Weinberg Law
(2) Lamarck’s Principle
(3) Biogenetic Law
(4) Mendelian Principles
Ans: (3)
122. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by
(1) Banding pattern in chromosomes number 3 and 6
(2) Cranial capacity
(3) Binocular vision
(4) Dental formula
Ans: (1)
123. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
(2) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(3) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
Ans: (2)
124. In the evolution of man, several changes occured in the ancestral characters. Which one of the following changes is irrelevant in this context?
(1) Loss of tail from body
(2) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour
(3) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts and roots to softer food
(4) Perfection in the structure and working of hand for tool-making
Ans: (3)
125. Which one of the following statements about fossil human species is correct?
(1) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have been found recently in South America
(2) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon man did exist for sometime together
(3) Australopithecus fossils have been found in Australia
(4) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo habilis
Ans: (3)
126. ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs’/Age of reptiles was
(1) Mesozoic
(2) Coenozoic
(3) Palaeozoic
(4) Psychozoic
Ans: (1)
127. Which one of the following is regarded as the direct ancestor of modern man ?
(1) Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus
(3) Homo habilis
(4) Australopithecus
Ans: (1)
128. Correct order is
(1) Palaeozoic →Archaeozoic →Coenozoic
(2) Archaeozoic →Palaeozoic →Proterozoic
(3) Palaeozoic →Mesozoic →Coenozoic
(4) Mesozoic →Archaeozoic →Proterozoic
Ans: (3)
129. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of Horse is
(1) Merychippus
(2) Mesohippus
(3) Eohippus
(4) Equus.
Ans: (3)
130. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon:
(1) mucosa and submucosa of colon only
(2) food in intestine
(3) blood only
(4) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
Ans: (4)

34. Biotechnology and Its Applications

1. The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/ tolerant to :
(1) Bacteria
(2) Insects
(3) Herbicides
(4) Fungi
Ans: (3)
2. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic engineering is
(1) plasmid
(2) mitochondrion
(3) golgi apparatus
(4) lomasome
Ans: (1)
3. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of :
(1) Vitamin C
(2) Omega 3
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin B
Ans: (3)
4. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to:
(1) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(2) Action of gut micro-organisms
(3) Presence of conversion factors in insect gut
(4) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
Ans: (4)
5. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?
(1) Cotton
(2) Brinjal
(3) Soyabean
(4) Maize
Ans: (1)
6. Pollen tablets are available in the market for:
(1) In vitro fertilization
(2) Breeding programmes
(3) Supplementing food
(4) Ex situ conservation
Ans: (3)
7. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?
(1) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(2) Canolla
(3) Golden rice
(4) Bt-Brinjal
Ans: (3)
8. RNA interference involves
(1) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
(2) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase
(3) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
(4) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
Ans: (3)
9. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
(1) corn meal
(2) soya meal
(3) ground gram
(4) molasses
Ans: (4)
10. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells)
(1) both sense and anti-sense RNA
(2) a particular hormone
(3) an antifeedant
(4) a toxic protein
Ans: (1)
11. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to:
(1) bollworms
(2) nematodes
(3) white rusts
(4) bacterial blights
Ans: (2)
12. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
(1) nematodes
(2) fungi
(3) viruses
(4) insects
Ans: (1)
13. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein.
(1) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it
(2) is coded by several genes including the gene cry
(3) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest.
(4) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin
Ans: (1)
14. Consider the following statements (A-D)
about organic farming:
(A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like Bt cotton
(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like compost
(C) Does not use pesticides and urea
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and minerals Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) (B), (C) and (D)
(2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (C) only
(4) (A) and (B) only
Ans: (3)
15. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are:
(1) long fibre and resistance to aphids
(2) medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
(3) high yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(4) high yield and resistance to bollworms
Ans: (4)
16. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has been developed for:
(1) insect-resistance
(2) enhancing shelf life
(3) enhancing mineral content
(4) drought-resistance
Ans: (1)
17. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in contemporary biology as
(1) insecticide
(2) agent for production of dairy products
(3) source of industrial enzyme
(4) indicator of water pollution
Ans: (1)
18. What is true about Bt toxin?
(1) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
(2) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its multiplication.
(3) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(4) The inactive protoxin gets converted into active form in the insect gut.
Ans: (4)
19. Cry endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis are effective against
(1) mosquitoes
(2) flies
(3) nematodes
(4) boll worms
Ans: (4)
20. Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to
(1) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(2) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(3) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(4) reduce herbicide accumulation in food articles for health safety
Ans: (4)
21. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel :
(1) Biofertilizers
(2) Bio-metallurgical techniques
(3) Bio-mineralization processes
(4) Bioinsecticidal plants
Ans: (4)
22. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with :
(1) white revolution
(2) green revolution
(3) yellow revolution
(4) blue revolution
Ans: (2)
23. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is:
(1) Insulin
(2) Estrogen
(3) Thyroxin
(4) Progesterone
Ans: (1)
24. One of the most important reasons why wild plants should thrive is that they are good sources of
(1) highly nutritive animal feed
(2) unsaturated edible oils
(3) genes for resistance to disease and pests
(4) very rare and highly sought after fruits of medical importance
Ans: (3)
25. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating
(1) chicken pox
(2) diabetes mellitus
(3) rheumatoid arthritis
(4) adenosine deaminase deficiency
Ans: (4)
26. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?
(1) Ti plasmid
(2) Adenovirus
(3) Cosmid
(4) Ri plasmid
Ans: (2)
27. Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies?
1. During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine
2. Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography
3. Computerised axial tomography (CAT)
shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body
4. X-ray provides clear and detailed images of organs like prostate glands and lungs Which two of the above statements are correct?
(1) 2 and 4
(2) 3 and 4
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 1 and 2
Ans: (3)
28. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to:
(1) produce methane
(2) obtain antibiotics
(3) purify enzymes
(4) degrade sewage
Ans: (3)
29. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of
(1) edible proteins
(2) insulin
(3) interferons
(4) vaccines
Ans: (4)
30. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?
(1) 15 – 30 MHZ
(2) 1 – 15 MHZ
(2) 45 – 70 MHZ
(4) 30 – 45 MHZ.
Ans: (2)
31. Genetically engineered bacteria have been successfully used in the commercial production of
(1) human insulin
(2) testosterone
(3) thyroxine
(4) melatonin
Ans: (1)
32. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?
(1) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
(2) These antibodies obtained from parent and for two antigen
(3) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for many antigen
(4) These antibodies obtained from many parents and for many antigens
Ans: (1)
33. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of :
(1) fish
(2) mice
(3) cow
(4) pig
Ans: (2)
34. Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
(4) Bio-safety committee
Ans: (2)
35. Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing:
(1) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(2) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(3) transgenic cow – rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(4) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power
Ans: (1)
36. Read the following four statements (A-D)
about certain mistakes in two of them
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alphalactal albumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes?
(1) Statement (B) and (C)
(2) Statement (C) and (D)
(3) Statement (A) and (C)
(4) Statement (A) and (B)
Ans: (4)
37. A transgenic food crop’which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(1) Flavr Savr tomatoes
(2) Starlink maize
(3) Bt Soybean
(4) Golden rice
Ans: (4)
38. Transgenic plants are the ones:
(1) generated by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.
(2) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial medium.
(3) grown in artificial medium after hybridization in the field.
(4) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial medium.
Ans: (1)
39. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are
(1) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(2) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(3) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
(4) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ans: (4)
40. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait :
(1) insect resistance
(2) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
(3) high protein content
(4) high vitamin-A content
Ans: (4)
41. Most animals are tree dwellers in a:
(1) Thorn woodland
(2) Temperate deciduous forest
(3) Tropical rain forest
(4) Coniferous forest
Ans: (3)