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Section-4 Previous year MCQs

Q1. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to
(a) the Hindu Code Bill
(b) the PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
(d) the Dowry Prohibition Bill
Ans: (b)
Q2. The Chief Minister of a State in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

(a) he himself is a candidate
(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of theState legislature
(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) he is a caretaker Chief Minister
Ans: (c)
Q3. The abolition of the I.A.S. and the I.P.S. has been recommended by the

(a) Dhebar Commission
(b) Kalekar Commission
(c) Kher Commission
(d) Rajamannar Commission
Ans: (d)
Q4. Among the four pairs given below which one consists of a correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice-Presidents after having held diplomatic posts like Ambassadors and High Commissioners?

(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S. Pathak
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V. Giri
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R. Narayanan
(d) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan
Ans: (c)
Q5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Neither the Finance Commission nor the Planning Commission is aconstitutional body
(b) The scope of the Finance Commission is limited to a review of therevenue segment of the budget while the Planning Commission takesan overall review embracing both capital and revenue requirements ofthe States
(c) No one can be a member of both the Finance Commission and thePlanning Commission at the same time
(d) There is no overlapping of work and responsibility of the FinanceCommission and those of the Planning Commission.
Ans: (b)
Q6. The Swaran Singh Committee considered the question of

(a) more autonomy to Punjab on the model of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) the suitability of the Presidential form of government for India
(c) the precedence of the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
Ans: (b)
Q7. Which one of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

(a) A single citizenship
(b) Three lists in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
(d) A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q8. Which one of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?

(a) Population control and family planning
(b) Public health and sanitation
(c) Capitation taxes
(d) Treasure trove
Ans: (a)
Q9. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?

(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election buthas to become a member of the House within six months from the dateof his election.
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of itsnormal tenure
(d) If he intends to resign the letter of his resignation is to be addressed tothe Deputy Speaker
Ans: (d)
Q10. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?

(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) Disputes between the States inter se
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q11. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in

(a) Kerala
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) West Bengal
Ans: (c)
Q12. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in respect of Parliamentary control over the Budget?

(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the budget
(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on theConsolidated Fund
(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’srecommendation
(d) Parliament has no power to increase a tax without the President’srecommendation
Ans: (b)
Q13. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List-I List-II (Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)

A. Fundamental Rights – 1. U.K.
B. Parliamentary system of government – 2. U.S.A.
3. Ireland
C. Emergency provisions – 4. German Reich
D. Directive Principles of State Policy – 5. Canada Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 1
(b) 5 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (c)
Q14. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?

1. It was not based on adult franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q1. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q2. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State LegislativeAssemblies
(b) As the Vice-president is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha,only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of theVice-president
(c) A point of difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha isthat while a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State inIndia, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident ofthe State from where he is contesting
(d) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of anominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a minister
Ans: (c)
Q3. Freedom of the press in India

(a) is specially provided in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
(b) is implied in the wider freedom of expression guaranteed by Article19(1)(a) of the constitution
(c) is guaranteed under the provisions of Article 361A of the Constitution
(d) emanates from the operation of the Rule of Law in the country
Ans: (b)
Q4. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’?

(a) Centre’s control of the State in legislative sphere
(b) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters
(c) Centre’s control of the State in the administrative sector
(d) Centre’s control of the State in the planning process
Ans: (d)
Q5. Which one of the following statements regarding ‘Exit Poll’ is correct?

(a) ‘Exit Poll’ is a term used to denote a post-election survey of votersregarding the candidate in whose favour they had exercised theirfranchise
(b) ‘Exit Poll’ and ‘Opinion Poll’ are one and the same
(c) ‘Exit Poll’ is device through which results of voting can be mostexactly predicted
(d) ‘Exit Poll’ is an administrative device made recently by the ChiefElection Commissioner to prevent impersonation
Ans: (a)
Q6. Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India without being earlier the Chief Minister of a State?

1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. V.P. Singh
4. Chandrashekhar
5. P.V. Narasimha Rao Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2 only
(d) 4 only
Ans: (d)
Q7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): In India, the political parties which formed the governments represented the majority of seats secured in the elections to the House of the People at the Centre and the Legislative Assemblies in the States but not the majority of votes.
Reason (R): The elections based on the majority-vote-system decide the result on the basis of relative majority of votes secured.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
Q8. Which of the following is/are among the functions of the Election Commission of India?

1. Conduct of election for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
2. Conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities
3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of elections Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q9. Which of the following electoral systems have been adopted for various elections in India?

1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage
2. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
3. List system of proportional representation
4. Cumulative system of indirect elections Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q10. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States?

(a) Stamp duties
(b) Passenger and goods tax
(c) Estate duty
(d) Taxes on Newspapers
Ans: (a)
Q11. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
Ans: (d)
Q12. Given below are voting percentages of a political party secured in three successive elections to the Lok Sabha: Years 1984 1989 1991 Percentages of Votes 7.4 11.4 22.4 The party which secured these percentages of votes was

(a) Congress (I)
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Ans: (c)
Q13. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?

1. The Chairman, Finance Commission
2. The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
3. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
Q14. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(a) certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that theycannot be abrogated
(b) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
(c) the Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with theprocedure prescribed in Art. 368
(d) the Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended for it is not partof the Constitution and at the same time represents its real spirit
Ans: (a)
Q

1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north east
(d) the problem of the chakmas
Ans: (b)
Q2. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?

(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the LowerHouse
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demittingoffice simultaneously before the end of their tenure the Speaker of theLower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President.
Ans: (b)
Q3. Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?

(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?

(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not anindependent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission.
Ans: (a)
Q5. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?

1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q6. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that

(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Ans: (d)
Q7. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and thenotification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commissionand the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at theCentre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commissionand the notification for election is issued by the President andGovernors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and thatof issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the ElectionCommission
Ans: (a)
Q8. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?

1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. The Inter-State Council Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
Ans: (a)
Q9. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than onehalf of the States?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q10. Consider the table given below:

Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to getthemselves elected to either House of Parliament within six monthsafter assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in theproceedings of either House of Parliament.
Ans: (c)
Q11. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected Members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Ans: (d)
Q12. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
Ans: (d)
Q13. In the interim government formed in 1946 the Vice-President of the Executive Council was

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans: (a)
Q14. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.

Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither
Ans: (b)
Q15. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under

(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Ans: (d)
Q16. Corporation tax

(a) is levied and appropriated by the States
(b) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States
(c) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
(d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
Ans: (d)
Q17. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State governments by

(a) the Finance Commission
(b) the National Development Council
(c) the Inter-State Council
(d) the Constitution of India
Ans: (d)
Q

1. If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
(a) 21
(b) 14 (c) 7 (d) 62. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between theCentre and the States falls under its
Ans: (d)
Q
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Ans: (c)
Q3. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor General of free India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
Q4. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to

(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Ans: (b)
Q5. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘District Judge’ shall not include

(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Ans: (c)
Q6. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (d)
Q7. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set-up?

(a) Single tier structure of local self-government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self-government at the village and blocklevels
(c) Three tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block anddistrict levels
(d) Four tier system of local self-government at the village, block, districtand state levels
Ans: (c)
Q8. Consider the following statements: No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since

1. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practice and propagation of religion.
3. there is no provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) none is correct
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct?

The prime minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who aremembers of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by thePresident of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve asministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues becauseof the discretionary powers vested with the President of India
Ans: (c)
Q10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The world ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q

1. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the
Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “Population” here means the population as ascertained by the
(a) 1991 Census
(b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1961 Census
Ans: (c)
Q2. Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?

1. The President shall not be a member of either Houses of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: Codes:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 alone
(d) 2 alone
Ans: (b)
Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II (Functionaries) (Oaths or affirmations)

A. President of India – 1. Secrecy of Information
B. Judges of the – 2. Faithful Discharge of Supreme Court Duties
C. Members of – 3. Faith and Allegiance Parliament to the Constitution of India
D. Ministers for the – 4. Upholding the Con- Union stitution and the law Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (b)
Q4. In the following quotation, “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ – do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves thisConstitution”, ‘X’ stands for

(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practiced without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q6. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended

(a) the constitution of state level election commissions
(b) List system of election to the Lok Sabha
(c) governmental funding of parliamentary elections
(d) a ban on the candidature of independent candidates in theparliamentary elections
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”?

(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
Ans: (a)
Q8. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional

Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reservedfor women candidates at all levels
(b) The States will constitute their Finance commissions to allocateresources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to holdtheir offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodiesare superseded or dissolved by the State government
Ans: (c)
Q9. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where

(a) there are no reserved constituencies
(b) a two-party system has developed
(c) the first-past-post system prevails
(d) there is a fusion of Presidential and Parliamentary forms ofgovernment
Ans: (b)
Q10. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

(a) the United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) the United States
Ans: (c)
Q11. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament

(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidencemotion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six monthsafter being sworn in as the Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
Q

1. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (d)
Q2. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Ans: (d)
Q3. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in

(a) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (a)
Q4. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the

(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(d) Ministry of Industries, Govt. of India
Ans: (c)
Q5. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United Front which was in power during 1996-97?

1. Bahujana Samaj Party.
2. Samata Party
3. Haryana Vikas Party
4. Asom Gana Parishad Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)
Q

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the IndianRepublic from the French
(b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankanand Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
(c) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the Chinesein the 1962 Sino-Indian War
(d) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which are transferred to Indiaby lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan respectively.
Ans: (b)
Q2. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to

(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
Ans: (a)
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:

1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q4. The most short-lived of all of Britain’s constitutional experiments in India was the

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Government of India Act of 1919
Ans: (c)
Q5. The Constitution of India recognises

(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Ans: (c)
Q6. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision?

(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, ruraldevelopment, primary education and social forestry among others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a thirdof the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure theirpunctuality and accountability.
Ans: (d)
Q7. Consider the following statements:

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q8. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:

1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q9. Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax is correct?

(a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income taxbetween itself and the states
(b) The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax toitself
(c) The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds aredistributed among the states
(d) Only the surcharge levied on income tax is shared between the Unionand the states
Ans: (a)
Q

1. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
Ans: (d)
Q2. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q3. Consider the following functionaries :

1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Ministers
4. Chief Justice of India Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans: (c)
Q4. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to

(a) distribute revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and StateGovernments
Ans: (a)
Q5. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is

(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
Ans: (d)
Q6. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that

(a) he obtains permission from the Principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the Voters’ List
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Ans: (c)
Q7. Match List I with List Ii and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Local bodies) List-II (States as in 1999)

B. Mandal Praja Parishad – 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils – 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats – 4. Meghalaya Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (a)
Q8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment ofthe Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haweli were under French colonial rule till 1954.
Ans: (d)
Q9. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties

(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans: (d)
Q10. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of the Government of India

Act of 1935?
(a) Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces
(b) A bicameral legislature
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) An All-India Federation
Ans: (a)
Q11. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether aBill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabhaand send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha forreconsideration
Ans: (a)
Q12. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act 1992 refers to the

(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployedmen and women in rural area.
(b) generation of employment for the able bodies adults who are in needand desirous of work during the lean agricultural season.
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutionsin the country.
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality beforelaw and equal protection without discrimination.
Ans: (c)
Q

1. Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350 A
(d) Article 351
Ans: (c)
Q2. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact

(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Ans: (b)
Q3. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund ofIndia
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Fundsand Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and lossaccounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that thepublic revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans: (d)
Q4. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.
Ans: (d)
Q5. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?

(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Ans: (5 a)
Q6. Consider the following statements about the minorities in India:

1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities.
2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians.
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q7. In which one of the following areas does the State Government NOT have control over its local bodies?

(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Ans: (a)
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:

1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only
Ans: (a)
Q9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Amendments to the Constitution) List-II (Contents)

A. The Constitution (sixty-ninth
Amendment) Rent Tribunals – 1. Establishment of state level Act, 1991
B. The Constitution (Seventyfifth
Amendment) Act, 1994
2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth
Amendment) Act, 2000
3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at other local levels
4. Accepting the recommendations of the Tenth Finance Commission
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third
Amendment) Act, 2000
5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 5 1 3 4
(d) 1 5 4 2
Ans: (a)
Q10. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
Ans: (a)
Q11 Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties.
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission.
3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more states.
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election Commission.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Articles of the Constitution) List-II (Content)

A. Article 54 – 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 – 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister And Council of Ministers
C. Article 155 – 3. Appointment of the Governor of a state
D. Article 164 – 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a state
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (a)
Q

1. Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) List-II (Provisions)
A. Article 16(2)
1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29(2)
2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religion or caste
C. Article 30(1)
3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have the fundamental right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31(1)
4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (a)
Q2. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the

(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans: (b)
Q3. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were

(a) nominated by the British Parliament
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League
Ans: (c)
Q4. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish

(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Ans: (d)
Q5. The real intention of the British to include the princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to

(a) exercise more and direct political and administrative control over theprincely states
(b) involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony
(c) finally effect the complete political and administrative take-over of allthe princely states by the British
(d) use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of thenationalist leaders
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

(a) 51
(b) 48 A
(c) 43 A
(d) 41
Ans: (a)
Q7. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies
Ans: (d)
Q8. Match List I (Article of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) List-II (Provisions)

A. Charter Act, 1813
1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company’s affairs in India
B. Regulating
Act – 2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
C. Act of 1858 – 3. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
D. Pitt’s India
Act
4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the British government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
Q9. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
Ans: (a)
Q10. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q11. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the

(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
Ans: (c)
Q12. Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by

(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council
Ans: (d)
Q13. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?

(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Ans: (a)
Q14. With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses ofParliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of theSupreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union FinanceMinister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
Ans: (b)
Q15. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five

Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
Ans: (c)
Q16. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?

(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Ans: (d)
Q17. The term of the Lok Sabha

(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation ofemergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation ofemergency
Ans: (c)
Q18. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is

(a) 5,000 and 2,500
(b) 10,000 and 2,500
(c) 10,000 and 5,000
(d) 15,000 and 7,500
Ans: (c)
Q19. The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the

(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in governmentemployment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently createdStates
Ans: (b)
Q

1. Consider the following statements : In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
3. there were more than 5000 members in the latest election.
Which of these statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 3
Ans: (b)
Q2. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd
Ans: (c)
Q3. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?

(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as theGovernor-General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General inCouncil
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council
Ans: (d)
Q4. Consider the following statements : The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are

1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominatedmembers
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two membersbelonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointedas a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and VicePresidential elections
Ans: (c)
Q6. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with

(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(b) Calcutta
(d) Orissa
Ans: (b)
Q8. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?

(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
Ans: (b)
Q9. Consider the following statements :

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc., set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q10. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q11. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans: (a)
Q12. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by

(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q13. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari
Ans: (b)
Q14. Consider the following statements :

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q15. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
Ans: (c)
Q16. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?

(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355
Ans: (d)
Q17. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are

1. levied and collected by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q18. Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution) List-II (Country from which it was derived)

A. Directive Principles of State Policy – 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights – 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations – 3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union – 4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
A B C D
(a) 5 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 3 5 1 2
Ans: (d)
Q19. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?

(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Ans: (D)
Q

1. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Account of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q2. Consider the following statements: Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor’s provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle of communal representation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q3. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the ProvincialAssemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel weremembers of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held inJanuary, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
Ans: (a)
Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In Lok Sabha, a no – confidence motion has to set out the grounds onwhich it is based
(b) In the case of a no – confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions ofadmissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no – confidence once admitted, has to be taken up withinten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no –confidence
Ans: (a)
Q7. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Unionand the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d)
Q8. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of

(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) the Government of India Act, 1919
(c) the Government of India Act, 1935
(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (b)
Q9. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the

(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (d)
Q10. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Ans: (b)

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q12. Consider the following statements:

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
Q13. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses ofParliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of Indiaexcept under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no anotherBill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which arealready under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation ofthe President
Ans: (c)
Q14. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Ans: (a)
Q15. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) List-II (Provision)

A. Article 14
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
B. Article 15
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
C. Article 16 – 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Article 17
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
Q16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not a correct explanationof A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
Q17. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?

(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans: (a)
Q18. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?

(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Ans: (c)
Q19. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?

(a) K.V.K. Sundaram
(b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Hukum Singh
Ans: (a)
Q20. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Departments : Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of Women and Child Development : Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Language : Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply : Ministry of Water Resources Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q21. Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(b) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(c) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
(d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
Ans: (a)
Q22. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?

(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Membersof Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha –Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha –Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – DeputyChairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q

1. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX–A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243–Q envisages two types of municipalities – a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. Articles 371–A to 371–I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (d)
Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300–A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q5. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Bill is related to:

(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the PopulationCensus 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States.
Ans: (b)
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q7. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (c)
Q8. Consider the following statements : The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for

1. the provincial autonomy
2. the establishment of Federal Court
3. All India Federation at the centre
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q9. Consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q10. Consider the following statements :

1. There are 25 High Courts in India
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (a)
Q

1. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans: (a)
Q2. Consider the following statements :

1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q3. Consider the following statements :

1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q4. Assertion (A): In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.

Reason (R): The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanationof A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
Q5. What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to?

(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain States
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin livingoutside India
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes inprivate educational institutions
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under theCentral Government
Ans: (c)
Q6. Which one among the following Commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946?

(a) Defence
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q8. Consider the following statements :

1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) States Reorganization : Andhra PradeshAct
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomesa State
Ans: (d)
Q10. Consider the following statements :

1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
Q11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Service tax is a/an
(a) direct tax levied by the Central Government.
(b) indirect tax levied by the Central Government.
(c) direct tax levied by the State Government.
(d) indirect tax levied by the State Government.
Ans: (b)
Q12. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?

(a) M. Hidayatullah
(c) A.S. Anand
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
Ans: (d)
Q13. Consider the following statements :

1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q

1. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the Office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
2. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q3. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?

(a) Hukam Singh
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) U.N. Dhebar
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) T.S. Krishna MurthyElection : Former Chief
(b) K.C. Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission ofIndia
(c) A.M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public ServiceCommission
(d) R.C. Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c)
Q5. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?

1. V.P. Singh – 2. R. Venkataraman
3. Y.B. Chavan – 4. Pranab Mukherjee Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q6. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Reason (B): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
Codes :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanationof A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)
Q7. Consider the following statements :

1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2. Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st Class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q8. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q9. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?

(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Ans: (a)
Q10. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India :

1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q11. Consider the following statements :

1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?

(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Ans: (b)
Q

1. What is the number of spokes in the Dharmachakra in the National Flag of India?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 24
Ans: (d)
Q2. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (b)
Q3. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?

2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?

(a) Guntur
(b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore
(d) Warangal
Ans: (b)
Q5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Position)

A. Nagender Singh – 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A.N. Ray – 2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R.K. Trivedi – 3. Chief Justice of India
D. Ashok Desai – 4. Attorney General of India
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)
Q6. Which one of the following is the largest (areawise) Lok Sabha constituency?

(a) Kangra
(c) Kachchh
(d) Bhilwara
Ans: (b)
Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India
2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q8. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Ans: (c)
Q9. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides that

1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he / she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q10. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q11. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?

(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Ans: (b)
Q12. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?

(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ans: (b)
Q13. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?

(a) Police Reforms
(b) Tax Reforms
(c) Reforms in Technical Education
Ans: (d)
Q

1. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
(b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Ans: (c)
Q2. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?

(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Ans: (a)
Q3. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Water Resources
(c) Minister of Environment and Forests
(d) Minister of Science and Technology
Ans: (a)
Q4. During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected?

(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Ans: (c)
Q5. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within

(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Ans: (c)
Q6. Consider the following statements :

1. The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q7. Consider the following statements :

1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q8. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

(a) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Ans: (b)
Q9. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q10. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q11. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?

(a) 90th
(b) 91st
(c) 92nd
(d) 93rd
Ans: (b)
Q12. Consider the following statements :

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q13. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :

1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q14. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :

1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q

1. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q2. Consider the following statements: The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)
Q3. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigativestage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal innature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officersonly and not any other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Ans: (d)
Q4. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans: (b)
Q5. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (a)
Q6. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?

(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans: (b)
Q7. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:

1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q8. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in adistrict if it deems fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goodsor services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided maybe filed with a District Forum by the State Government as arepresentative of the interests of the consumers in general
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?

(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Ans: (b)
Q10. Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are

1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q

1. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q2. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q3. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law?

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q4. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
Q5. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
Ans: (c)
Q6. With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East
Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q7. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again
(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
Q8. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a)
Q9. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructuredevelopment
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the PublicSector Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in thiscontext
Ans: (d)
Q10. Consider the following:

1. Right to education.
3. Right to food.
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q11. Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee

1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q12. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q

1. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (c)
Q2. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled

Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q3. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violentbehaviour on the part of some members
Ans: (a)
Q4. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under
Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A) Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q5. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q7. With reference to consumers’ rights / privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q8. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Q9. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q10. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q11. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of aState
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in theState List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine thepension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and todetermine the number of Election Commissioners
Ans: (b)
Q12. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (a)
Q13. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q14. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency / financial emergency
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q15. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of theParliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within sixmonths
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of theParliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within sixmonths
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q16. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q17. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q18. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q19. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q20. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q

1. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q2. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q3. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q7. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q8. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q9. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q10. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Ans: (c)
Q11. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or notaccepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha forreconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two ormore States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed bythe Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court areappointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for theremoval of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the ChiefMinister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majoritysupport
Ans: (c)
Q13. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent

Assembly from the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Ans: (c)
Q14. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q15. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
Q16. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q17. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans: (d)
Q18. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a) To provide self-governance
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Ans: (c)
Q

1. Consider the following languages:
1. Gujarati
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language/Languages’ by the Government?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q2. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Ans: (b)
Q3. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the StateGovernment
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the CentralGovernment
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Ans: (d)
Q4. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (d)
Q5. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b)
Q6. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council.
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Carbinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q8. Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State
Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q9. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q10. Consider the following statements:

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (a)
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q12. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
Ans: (c)
Q13. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Ans: (b)
Q

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q3. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

(a) the separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) the powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q4. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
Ans: (a)
Q5. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Ans: (d)
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q7. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Ans: (a)
Q8. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q9. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Ans: (d)
Q10. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese
Ans: (a)
Q11. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size that half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q12. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duries
Ans: (d)
Q13. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q14. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (b)
Q15. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q3. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q4. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its totalmembership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its memberspresent and voting
Ans: (d)
Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Amendments & Articles of the Indian Constitution

MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act:

(a) ensured Press freedom
(b) restore the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to consider the constitutional validity of Central or State laws
(c) prescribed serious limitations on the Government’s power to proclaim internal emergency
(d) removed the right to property from the Constitution
Ans: (b)
Q2. The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended:

(a) by the State Legislature alone
(b) the Parliament alone
(c) with the joint approval of the Parliament and State Legislatures
(d) only on ratification of half the States
Ans: (b)
Q3. Which of the following is not of the methods for amending the different categories of provisions in the Constitution?

(a) Certain provisions may be amended by a simple majority in Parliament
(b) Certain other provisions may be amended only by a two-thirds majority
(c) Certain provisions may be amended only by a three-fourths majority
(d) Certain amendments require to be ratified by one-half of the States after being passed in Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q4. Which one of the following amendments has been described as Mini Constitution?

(a) Forty-third
(b) Forty-second
(c) Fifty-second
(d) Thirty-ninth
Ans: (d)
Q5. Which among the following constitutional amendment provided for state reorganisation on linguistic basis?

(a) Third Amendment
(b) Fourth Amendment
(c) Sixth Amendment
(d) Seventh Amendment
Ans: (c)
Q6. Which one of the following may be said to constitute the basic structure of the Constitution?

(a) Federal character of Constitution
(b) Secular nature of polity
(c) Mandate to build a welfare state
(d) all of them
Ans: (d)
Q7. One of the following amendments imposed restrictions on the fundamental rights of the citizens with a view to protect the sovereignty and integrity of India. It was the:

(a) Sixteenth Amendment
(b) Twentieth Amendment
(c) Fifteenth Amendment
(d) Forty-second Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q8. Simple majority in voting is enough to amend provisions relating to:

(a) citizenship
(b) creation and abolition of a State
(c) administration of Scheduled Castes and Schedules Tribes
(d) all the abovetotal number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
Ans: (d)
Q9. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

(a) Article 310
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 312
(d) Article 311
Ans: (d)
Q10. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the setting up of the Consolidated Fund?

(a) Article 278 (1)
(b) Article 283 (1)
(c) Article 267 (1)
(d) Article 301 (1)
Ans: (c)
Q11. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj?

(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 73rd
(d) 86th
Ans: (c) The 73rd Amendment (1992) of Indian constitution provided for constitution of municipalities, reservation of seats in every municipality for the SC and ST women and backward classes.
Q12. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also ?

(a) 81st Amendment
(b) 86th Amendment
(c) 9lst Amendment
(d) 93rd Amendment
Ans: (d) The reservation in educational institutions in the private sector was provided in the 93rd Amendment under the article 15 (5) of the constitution of India.
Q13. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of the

(a) composition of the National Development Council
(b) structure of the Planning Commission of India
(c) functions of the State Finance Commission
(d) functions of the Kaveri Water Authority
Ans: (c) Article 243 (I) of the Indian Constitution prescribes that the Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (73rd Amendment Act, 1992) , and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats.
Q14. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?

(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Ans: (d) 44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74 (1) stated that, “there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions”. However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, “act in accordance with such advice”. The amendment went into effect from 3 January, 1977. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.
Q15. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:

(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
Ans: (b) According to 93rd Amendment every Child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have right to free and compulsory Education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ capitation fee/ charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.
Q16. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?

(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd
Ans: (c) 7th Amendment Act 1956 provides for composition of the House of the People and re-adjustment after every census. 31st amendment act 1973 provides for raising the upper limit for the representation of states in the Lok Sabha from 500 to 525 and reducing the upper limit for the representation of UTs from 25 to 20.
Q17. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:

(a) empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.
Ans: (b) The Constitution 98th Amendment Bill, 2003, seeks to constitute a National Judicial Commission (NJC) by including Chapter IV-A in Part V of the Constitution which will be in charge of appointing judges to the higher judiciary and for transferring High Court Judges.
Q18. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the

(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Ans: (a) The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
Q19. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament”

(a) Article 101 to Article 104
(b) Article 101 to Articles 105
(c) Article 102 to Article 106
(d) Article 106 to Article 110
Ans: (a)
Q20. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha ?

(a) Article 330
(b) Article 332
(c) Article 333
(d) Article 334
Ans: (a)
Q21. Which Constitutional Article deals with Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community’ with House of the People ?

(a) Article 334
(b) Article 331
(c) Article 332
(d) Article 333
Ans: (b)
Q22. Which of the following is correct about the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1950

(a) provides new grounds of restrictions to the right to freedom of speech and expression
(b) Provides new grounds of restrictions to the right to practice any profession or to carry on any trade or business
(c) Inserted two new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to give protection from challenge to land reform laws
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)
Q23. The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act,1956

(a) Articles 269 and 286 were amended regarding taxes in the course of interstate trade and commerce
(b) 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) Inserted two new Articles 31A and 31B and the Ninth Schedule to give protection from challenge to land reform laws
Ans: (c)
Q24. The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956

(a) Giving effect to the recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission
(b) Two fold classification of States and Union Territories
(c) (a) and (b)
(d) Act 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule
Ans: (c)
Q25. The Constitution (Eighth Amendment) Act, 1960

(a) Article 31(2) of Constitution was amended to provide state power of compulsory acquisition of private property
(b) Extenstion of reservations to SC and ST and Anglo Indians
(c) Substituted entry 33 of Concurrent List of 7th Schedule
(d) Act 92A was added to the Union List of Seventh Schedule
Ans: (b)
Q26. Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution imposed certain restrictions on the right to property?

(a) The Constitution ( Thirty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1975
(b) The Constitution ( Thirty-eighth Amendment) Act, 1975
(c) The Constitution ( Forty-First Amendment) Act, 1976
(d) The Constitution ( Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976
Ans: (d)
Q27. Which of the following is true about the Constitution (Twenty Furth Amendment) Act, 1971

(a) Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution including fundamental rights
(b) The President is bound to assent Constitution amendment bill
(c) Education was transferred to the Concurrent List
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)
Q28. Which of the following amendment of the Constitution increased the elective strength of Lok Sabha from 525 to 545?

(a) 31st amendment
(b) 30th amendment
(c) 25th amendment
(d) 21st amendment
Ans: (a)
Q29. Which of the following amendment was passed during the period of emergency?

(a) 45th amendment
(b) 50th amendment
(c) 42nd amendment
(d) 47th amendment
Ans: (c)
Q30. Which of the following is true about the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976?

(a) Precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties are included
(c) Constitutional Amendment should not be questioned in any court
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)
Q31. In which of the following amendments the term of Lok Sabha is increased from 5 to 6 years?

(a) 40th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 44th amendment
(d) 46th amendment
Ans: (b)
Q32. Which of the following Amendment Act of the constitution deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights?

(a) The Constitution ( Thirty-seventh Amendment) Act, 1975
(b) The Constitution ( Thirty-eighth Amendment) Act, 1975
(c) The Constitution ( Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
(d) The Constitution ( Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976Statement Based MCQ
Ans: (c)
MCQs Difficulty Level-2
Q1. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states to effect amendment?

1. The manner of election of the President of India.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (a) Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State Legislatures . This comprises of Constitutional Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in articles relating to:• The Election of the President.• The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and the States.• The Supreme Court and the High Courts.• Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.• The representation of States in Parliament.• The provisions of Article 368 itself.
Q2. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annuel the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them.

They include
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new states)
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states)
3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Representation of states in the Parliament does require a constitutional amendment only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states. Other given options require the same.
Q3. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in the Parliament
3. Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council in a State
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by either House of Parliament under article 368. It does not require the President’s recommendation.
Q4. Consider the following statements:

An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature 4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b) Statement 3 is incorrect as a candidate shall not be allowed to contest from more than two constituencies, it also adds options 1 and 2.
Q5. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996:

1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of Indian shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) An amendment to the constitution of India is introduced as a bill in the Parliament. It then must be approved by both the houses of Parliament. The amendments must then be ratified by the legislatures of at least one half of the states (not all the states) . Once all these stages are complete the amendment is bound to receive the assent of the President of India.
Q7. Consider the following provisions-

1. Free & compulsory education to all children below 14 years of age.
2. Right to elementary Education.
3. Ban on employment of children below the age of 14 in hazardous industries & factories.
Which provision comes under Article 24?
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 & 3
(c) only 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q8. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

(1) Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
(2) Provision of Grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1)
(3) Powers & functions of gram sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (a)
Q9. Which of the following is correct statement?

1. The universal Adult franchise is guaranteed under the Constitution.
2. The 61st Amendment brought the age for voting to 18 years.
(a) (1) only
(b) (2) only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q10. Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National emergency on the fundamental right which of the following statements are correct with regard to article 358 & 359.

1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency & not in the case of internal emergency.
2. Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends FR under Article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire coutry whereas Article 359 may extend to entire country or part of it.
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 1, 2 & 3 only
(c) 2, 3 & 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4Matching Based MCQ
Ans: (d)
Q11. Match the following columns

List-I List-II
A. Reorganisation of 1. Seventh Amendment
States
B. Sikkim became 2. Thirty-sixth Amendment
22nd State of Indian
Union
C. Ninth Schedule 3. First Amendment added
D. Abolition of Titles 4. Twenty-sixth Amendment of Princes
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which of the following articles are correctly matched:

1. Election Commission – Article 338.
2. Finance Commission – Article 280.
3. National Commission for SCs – Article. 324
4. CAG – Article 148.
5. Attorney General of India – Article 76.
(a) All except 1 & 5.
(b) All except 1 & 3.
(c) All except 2 & 5.
(d) None of the above options are correct.
Ans: (a) Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States) Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done through constitution amendment bill.
Q13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II (Amendments to the Constitution)
A. The Constitution 1. Establishment of state
(Sixty-ninth level Rent Tribunals Amendment)
Act, 1991
B. The Constitution 2. No reservations for
(Seventy-fifth Scheduled Castes in
Amendment) Panchayats in
C. The Constitution 3. Constitution of
(Eighteenth Panchayats in Villages
Amendment) or at other local level
Act, 2000
D. The Constitution 4. Accepting the
(Eighty-third recommendations of
Amendment) the Tenth Finance
Act, 2000 Commission
5. According the status of National Capital Territory to Delhi
Codes:
(a) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
Ans: (a)

Section-3 Laxmikant Polity Based MCQs

Q1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the suability of the State of India?
(a) Article 100
(b) Article 200
(c) Article 300
(d) Article 330
Ans: (c)
Q2. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?

(a) Committee on Public Undertakings
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Delegated Legislation
Ans: (c)
Q3. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?

(a) Question Hour
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Half-an-hour discussion
(d) Short duration discussion
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:

(a) Committee on Assurances
(b) Committee on Delegated Legislation
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Estimates Committee
Ans: (d)
Q5. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Short duration discussion
Ans: (b)
Q6. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:

(a) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Ans: (d)
Q7. The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:

(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Pubjab
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (d)
Q8. The institution of Lokayukta was created first in Maharashtra in:

(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1971
Ans: (d)
Q9. The correct statements about zero hour includes:

1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the houses of Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the houses of Parliament.
3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior notice.
4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour in both the houses of Parliament.
5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q10. The correct statements about calling attention notice are:

1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q11. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?

1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans: (b)
Q13. In parliamentary countries, like India, the legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted in effectiveness due to which of the following reasons?

1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3. The large size of the legislature.
4. The members of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q14. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of:

(a) 80 Members
(b) 140 Members
(c) 160 Members
(d) 50 Members
Ans: (d)
Q15. Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?

1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q16. In which of the following stated years, the Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the Parliament?

(a) 1968
(b) 1971
(c) 1978
(d) 1985Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Ans: (c)
Q17. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same.

Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q18. Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.

Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular sovereignty.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using the codes givenbelow the lists.
Ans: (a)
Q19. List-I List-II

A. Short duration discussion – 1. 1964
B. Calling attention notice – 2. 1962
C. Zero Hour – 3. 1953
D. Committee on Public Undertakings – 4. 1954 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q20. List-I (Writs) List-II (Literal meanings)

A. Mandamus – 1. ‘By what warrant or authority’
B. Habeas Corpus – 2. ‘We command’
C. Quo warranto – 3. ‘To be certified’
D. Certiorari – 4. ‘You may have the body’ or ‘To have the body of’ Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (d)
Q21. List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)

A. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court – 1. Article 13
B. Suits against government – 2. Article 226
C. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court – 3. Article 300
D. Source of the power of judicial review – 4. Article 32
5. Article 166 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 5 4 3 2
Ans: (c)
Q22. The final work of UPSC in recruitment process is:

(a) Selection
(b) Appointment
(c) Certification
(d) Placement
Ans: (c)
Q23. The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined by:

(a) President of India
(b) Constitution of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (c)
Q24. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

(a) Art. 310
(b) Art. 315
(c) Art. 312
(d) Art. 311
Ans: (d)
Q25. Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.

Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the following codes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q26. Assertion: A member of All-India Service can appeal against the order of a State Government to the President of India.

Reason: Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil servant cannot be removed or dismissed by any authority which is subordinate to the authority by which he was appointed.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the following codes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q27. The Vote on Account is passed:

(a) After the voting of demands
(b) Before the general discussion
(c) After the general discussion
(d) Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion.
Ans: (c)
Q28. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:

1. General discussion
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Finance Bill
4. Voting of the demands for grant
5. Presentation to legislature
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans: (b)
Q29. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?

1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget
2. A summary of demands for grants
3. An Appropriation Bill
4. A Finance Bill
5. The economic survey
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q30. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund ofIndia.
(c) It should relate to more than one demand.
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.
Ans: (c)
Q31. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with:

(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) National Development Council
Ans: (c)
Q32. The number of demands in the General Budget for civil expenditures is:

(a) 109
(b) 106
(c) 103
(d) 102
Ans: (c)
Q33. The word ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

(a) Art. 266
(b) Art. 112
(c) Art. 265
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q34. The budget was formally introduced in India in:

(a) 1860
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1868
Ans: (a)
Q35. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.
4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 5
(d) only 1
Ans: (c)
Q36. Which of the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Allowances of the Chairman of Lok Sabha.
2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt.
3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.
4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any arbitration tribunal.
5. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q37. The correct statements about Public Account of India are:

1. The public account is the fund to which all public moneys received by or on behalf of the government are credited.
2. No legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
3. Legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
4. All public moneys, other than those credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, which are received by or on behalf of the government are credited to the Public Account of India.
5. It is operated by executive action.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q38. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.
3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q39.

List-I List-II
A. Token Cut Motion
1. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount.”
B. Economy Cut Motion – 2. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 1.”
C. Policy Cut Motion – 3. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 100.”
4. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 1.”
5. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 100.” Codes: A B C
(a) 5 1 2
(b) 5 3 1
(c) 3 1 4
(d) 3 5 2
Ans: (c)
Q40.

List-I (Principles) List-II (Provided by)
A. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. – 1. Article 117
B. No bill imposing tax can be introduced in the Parliament except on the
2. Article 113
C. No expenditure can be incurred except with the sanction of the legislature.
3. Article 265
D. No Demand for grant of any money for expenditure can be made except on the recommendation of the President.
4. Article 112
5. Article 266 Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q41.

List-I (Terms) List-II (Defined by)
A. Consolidated Fund of India – 1. Article 110
B. Money Bill – 2. Article 267
C. Annual Financial Statement – 3. Article 266
D. Contingency Fund of India – 4. Article 265
5. Article 112 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 2
(d) 3 1 5 2
Ans: (d)
Q42. Assertion: Budget is a secret document and should not be leaked out before being presented to the Parliament.

Reason: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q43. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q44. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament.

Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q45. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.

Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q46. Assertion: The budget is placed in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) at the end of the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech in the Lok Sabha.

Reason: The budget is presented to the Lok Sabha on the last working day of February.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q47. Assertion: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q48. Assertion: The Constitution of India has authorised the parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India.

Reason: The Contingency Fund enables the government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q49. Assertion: Audit in India is equally concerned with the legal and technical as well as the propriety aspects of expenditure.

Reason: The provision under which the audit is performed by CAG says that he has “to ascertain whether the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the purpose to which they had been applied and whether the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.”
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q50. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:

(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and thestates.
(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid tothe states out of the consolidated Fund of India.
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Accountof India.
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interestof sound finance.
Ans: (c)
Q51. The National Development Council consists of:

(a) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states and themembers of the NITI Aayog.
(b) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, the CentralCabinet Ministers and the Members of the NITI Aayog.
(c) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, SelectedCentral Cabinet Ministers, Administrators of union territories and themembers of the NITI Aayog.
(d) The Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of allthe states, Administrators of union territories and the members of the NITIAayog.
Ans: (d)
Q52. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.
(b) Laid down in Article 123.
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of theParliament.
(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Ans: (d)
Q53. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:

1. All India Federation
2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q54. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as prescribed by:

(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.
(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.
(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.
(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India
Ans: (d)
Q55. The erstwhile Planning Commission was described as the “Economic Cabinet” by:

(a) P.P. Agarwal
(b) Ashok Chanda
(d) Santhanam
Ans: (b)
Q56. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919
Ans: (b)
Q57. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission
2. NITI Aayog
3. Zonal Councils
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans: (b)
Q58. The features of Indian federal system are:

1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written Constitution
(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q59. Which of the following is not a department under the Ministry of Home

Affairs?
(a) Department of Internal Security
(b) Department of Home
(c) Department of States
(d) Department of Law and Order
Ans: (d)
Q60. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.
(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre andstates.
(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.
(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.
Ans: (d)
Q61. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election
(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
(c) 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states
(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government
Ans: (d)
Q62. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as:

(a) Chairman of the UPSC
(b) Supreme Court Judge
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q63. Statutory grants are given to states by the Centre on the recommendation of:

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Development Council
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (d)
Q64. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882
Ans: (c)
Q65. Dyarchy was introduced by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(b) Government of India Act of 1919
(c) Government of India Act of 1935
(d) Independence Act of 1947
Ans: (b)
Q66. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

(a) Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) All-India Federation
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) Dyarchy in the provinces
Ans: (d)
Q67. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council of ministers?

(a) 24th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 44th amendment
(d) 54th amendment
Ans: (b)
Q68. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:

(a) Switzerland
(b) USA
(c) Russia
Ans: (d)
Q69. Who said the “Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”

(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jennings
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) K.C. Wheare
Ans: (d)
Q70. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.
2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.
4. He can be removed by the President on his own.
5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q71. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI

Aayog?
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.
3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.
4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.
5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q72. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.
4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q73. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India by:

(a) Government of India Act of 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Ans: (d)
Q74. Which is incorrectly matched?

(a) Prohibition of Discrimination—Article 15
(b) Right to Association—Article 19.
(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies—Article 32.
Ans: (c)
Q75. Who characterises Indian Union as “a federation with a centralising tendency?”

(a) B.R. Ambedker
(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Ivor Jennings
(d) Granville Austin
Ans: (c)
Q76. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Ans: (c)
Q77. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q78. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:

(a) 41st amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 42nd amendment
Ans: (d)
Q79. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General
Ans: (b)
Q80. Which of the following are not the departments of Finance Ministry?

1. Department of Expenditure
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Department of Banking
4. Department of Revenue
5. Department of Budget
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q81. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.
2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.
4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q82. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?

1. Supremacy of Constitution
2. All-India services
3. Single citizenship
4. Independent judiciary
5. Bicameral legislature
6. Integrated judiciary
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 5 and 6
(c) 2, 3 and 6
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q83. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:

1. Independent judiciary.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
3. A written Constitution.
4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q84. Which is correctly matched?

(a) Amendment procedure – Article 268
(b) Duties of Prime Minister – Article 74
(c) President’s rule – Article 365
(d) Inter-State Council – Article 264
Ans: (c)
Q85. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures
(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures
(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and stateLegislative Assemblies
Ans: (c)
Q86. The ex-officio members of the erstwhile Planning Commission were:

1. Home Minister
2. Finance Minister
3. Defence Minister
4. Human Resources Minister
5. Planning Minister
6. Agriculture Minister
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q87. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?

(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Pitts India Act of 1784
Ans: (b)
Q88. Erstwhile Planning Commission was set up on the recom-mendation of:

(a) National Planning Committee
(b) Gorwala Report
(d) Constituent AssemblyMatching PatternMatch List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes givenbelow the lists.
Ans: (c)
Q89.

List-I List-II
A. Board of Control – 1. Regulating Act of 1773
B. Central Administration – 2. Government of India Act of 1858
C. Governor-General of India – 3. Pitts India Act of 1784
D. Secretary of state for India – 4. Charter Act of 1833 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
Q90.

List-I List-II
A. Bicameral system – 1. Government of India Act of 1935
B. Legislative devolution – 2. Indian Councils Act of 1861
C. Separate electorate – 3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Provincial autonomy – 4. Indian Councils Act of 1892
5. Minto-Morely Reforms.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 5 1
(c) 3 2 5 1
(d) 5 4 3 1
Ans: (c)
Q91.

List-I List-II
A. Equality in Public employment – 1. Article 29
B. Minorities rights – 2. Article 21
C. Right to personal liberty – 3. Article 23
D. Right against exploitation – 4. Article 16
5. Article 25 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
Q92.

List-I List-II
A. Withholding of assent – 1. Qualified veto
B. Overriden by an ordinary majority – 2. Pocket veto
C. Taking no action on the bill – 3. Absolute veto
D. Overriden by a higher majority – 4. Suspensive veto
5. Majority veto Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q93.

List-I List-II
A. Third Schedule – 1. Allocation of seats in Upper House
B. Ninth Schedule – 2. Disqualification on Grounds of defection
C. Fourth Schedule – 3. Validation of certain acts
D. Tenth Schedule – 4. Languages
5. Forms of affirmations Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 5 3 1 2
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (b)
Q94. Assertion: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.

Reason: The President is the titular head of the state while the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q95. Assertion: Article 149 of the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions with regard to the appointment and service conditions of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

Reason: He cannot function independently unless he enjoys the constitutional protection.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q96. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office.

Reason: No person shall be eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the House of People.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q97. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.

Reason: Parliament may, by law, regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or a Vice-President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q98. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

Reason: The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q99. A new All-India Service can be created by:

(a) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(b) An act of Parliament
(c) An order of the President
(d) A resolution of the UPSC
Ans: (b)
Q100. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals with:

(a) Recruitment matters
(b) Promotion matters
(c) Disciplinary matters
(d) Recruitment and all service matters
Ans: (d)
Q101. Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public Service Commission?

(a) President of India
(b) Parliament of India
(c) UPSC
(d) State Governors
Ans: (b)
Q102. The origins of UPSC can be traced to:

(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1919 Act
(c) 1930 Act
(d) 1947 Act
Ans: (b)
Q103. The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of Personnel
(d) Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q104. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?

1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Executive rules and orders
4. Conventions
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q105. The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:

(a) President of India
(b) Central Ministry of Personnel
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
Q106. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:

(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
Ans: (d)
Q107. Who is regarded as the “Father of All-India Services?”

(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (d)
Q108. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:

(a) An order of the President
(b) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An act of Parliament
(d) A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
Ans: (c)
Q109. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state atleast for five years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q110. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the prohibition as to the holding of offices by members of Public Service Commissions on ceasing to be such members?

1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
2. The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
3. A member other than Chairman of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman of the UPSC or as Chairman of a SPSC, but not for any other employment, either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
4. A member other than Chairman of the SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of that or any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q111. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?

1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.
3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.
4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as Central Services and Central Government posts.
5. It was setup in 1985.
(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q112. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration.

Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q113. Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.

Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q114. Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS.

Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of federalism and ministerial responsibility at the state level.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q115. Assertion: The UPSC makes recruitment to Group A and Group B services.

Reason: The Staff Selection Commission makes recruitment to Group C services.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q116. Assertion: The members of All-India Services can give independent and impartial advise to political executives in the states.

Reason: They enjoy constitutional safeguards with regard to security of service.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q117. Assertion: The salaries and allowances of members of the UPSC are charged on the consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on the Commission by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q118. Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure.

Reason: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q119. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC.

Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q120.

List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)
A. Tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a state. – 1. Article 315
B. Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the states. – 2. Article 310
C. Recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a state.
3. Article 312
D. Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a state.
4. Article 309
5. Article 311 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 4 5 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 5
(d) 2 1 5 4
Ans: (c)
Q121. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?

1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q122. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:

1. Creation of a two-tier system
2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions
4. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
5. If superceded, elections must be held within one year
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q123. District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The State Public Service Commission
(c) The Chief Minister of state
(d) The Governor of state
Ans: (d)
Q124. Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation of:

(a) Speaker
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Governor
Ans: (d)
Q125. According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be:

(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad
(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
Ans: (d)
Q126. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:

(a) Democratic-decentralisation
(b) Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development
(d) Community development programme
Ans: (d)
Q127. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the order):

(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
Ans: (c)
Q128. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:

(a) District Collector
(b) Governor of the state
(c) Law Minister of the state
(d) High Court of the state
Ans: (d)
Q129. Which of the following is a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans: (d)
Q130. “The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q131. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:

1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365
(a) only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)
Q132. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?

(a) 4th Amendment
(b) 7th Amendment
(c) 11th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q133. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates includes:

(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister
(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister
(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
(d) Only the Cabinet Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q134. In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the President can:

1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including the High Court.
2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Governor.
3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court.
4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q135. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:

1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q136. Panchayati Raj is a system of:

(a) Local government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Rural local self-government
Ans: (d)
Q137. The correct statements about cantonment boards are:

1. This system of municipal administration is a British legacy in our country.
2. They are set up under the resolutions passed by the Ministry of Defence.
3. The Ministry of Defence exercises direct administrative control over them.
4. It consists of elected members only.
5. The executive officer of the board is appointed by the President of the board.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q138. Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?

1. reservation of seats for scs and sts in proportion of their population (to the total population) in municipal Area.
2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.
3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided by the State Governor.
4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban area.
5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q139. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q140. Assertion: Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local government.

Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ‘father of local self-government in India.’
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q141. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the Constitution gives a constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.

Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of the Gram Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q142. Assertion: The Governor of a state is a nominal (titular) executive head.

Reason: The Constitution has provided for a parliamentary government in the states.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q143. Assertion: No person shall be eligible for appointment as a Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty years.

Reason: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q144. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason: The Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q145. Assertion: The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Reason: Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the states in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q146. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far he is by or under the Constitution, required to exercise his functions, or any of them in his discretion.

Reason: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q147.

List-I List-II
A. Governor – 1. Article 167
B. Counil of ministers – 2. Article 169
C. Duties of Chief Minister – 3. Article 155
D. Legislative Council – 4. Article 163 Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
Q148.

List-I List-II
A. Deliberative organisation – 1. Commissioner
B. Formal head – 2. Standing Committee
C. Management – 3. Mayor
D. Executive body – 4. Council Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q149.

List-I (States) List-II (Governor’s special responsibilities)
B. Gujarat – 2. Administration of tribal areas
C. Nagaland – 3. Development of backward areas
D. Assam – 4. Minister for Tribal Welfare
5. Hill Areas Committee working Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
Ans: (c)
Q150.

List I List II
A. Article 156 – 1. Executive authority of Governor
B. Article 154 – 2. Tenure of Governor
C. Article 153 – 3. Appointment of Governor
D. Article 155 – 4. Office of Governor
5. Discretionary power of Governor.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q151.

List I (Committees) List II (Setup on)
A. G.V.K. Rao Committee – 1. Panchayati Raj institutions
B. Balvantray Mehta Committee – 2. Revitalisation of PRIs for democracy and development
C. L.M. Singhvi Committee
3. Existing administrative arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes.
D. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. Community Development Programme and National Extension Service.
5. Panchayati Raj elections Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
Q152. The Governor of a state:

1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.
2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.
3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.
4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q153. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality means:

(a) Pleasure of the President
(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister
(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister
(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (d)
Q154. The main objective of the National Development Council is:

(a) To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
(b) To strengthen and mobilise the efforts and resources of the nation insupport of the plan.
(c) To ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
(d) To secure cooperation of states in execution of the plan.
Ans: (d)
Q155. Which of the following factors have led to the decline of Indian Parliament?

1. Growth of delegated legislation.
2. Low level of attendance in the Parliament.
3. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.
4. Frequent amendment of the Constitution.
5. Setback in Parliamentary behaviour and ethics.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (a)
Q156. The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 352
(d) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q157. Which of the following statements with regard to the erstwhile Planning Commission are correct?

1. It was constituted on 15th March, 1950.
2. It had representation from the state governments.
3. It acted as a kind of a bridge between Union Government, National Development Council and state governments.
4. It was a collegiate body.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q158. Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?

1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.
2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
4. He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q159. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between a censure motion and a no-confidence motion?

1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.
2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
3. The Government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed, whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q160. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:

1. President of India
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
4. Chief Justice of the State High Court
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q161. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a) 1971
(b) 1967
(c) 1968
(d) 1972
Ans: (c)
Q162. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

(a) Constitutional provision
(b) Act of the Parliament
(c) Resolution of the Santhanam Committee
(d) Executive resolution
Ans: (d)
Q163. The functions of Estimates Committee include:

1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration.
2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q164. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:

1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.
2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.
4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q165. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(b) Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.
(c) Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.
(d) Proroagation means end of a session of the Assembly.
Ans: (b)
Q166. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd

Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
2. Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.
3. Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in Panchayats.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q167. Consider the following statements about municipal corporations:

1. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures.
2. They are established in the union territories by an order of the Chief
3. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.
4. Their deliberative functions are separated from the executive functions.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q168. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.
(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.
(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population inthe cantonment area.
(d) It is a statutory body.
Ans: (a)
Q169. Consider the following statements with regard to All-India Services:

1. Article 312 of the Constitution specifies the procedure for their creation.
2. The All-India Services Act was enacted in 1950.
3. Indian Forest Service is managed by the Ministry of Forests and Environment.
4. A new All-India Service can be created by the Rajya Sabha.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q170. Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?

1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of President
5. With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q171. Assertion: A minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the Prime Minister.

Reason: A minister is appointed by President only on the advice of Prime Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q172. Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system.

Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the Union Government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q173. Assertion: The duty of CAG is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety.

Reason: He has to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q174. Assertion: The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India.

Reason: It is an independent constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q176. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-forgrants.

Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below.
Ans: (b)
Q177.

List-I (Meaning of writs) List-II (Name of writs)
A. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties. – 1. Injunction
B. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court when the latter exceeds its jurisdiction. – 2. Mandamus
C. It is issued by the courts to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. – 3. Certiorari
D. It is issued by the court asking a person to do a thing or refrain from doing a thing.
4. Prohibition
5. Quowarranto Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 5 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 5 1
(d) 4 5 2 3
Ans: (c)
Q178.

List-I (Committees) List-II (Function)
A. Public
Accounts Committee
1. Examines whether the promises made by the ministers on the floor of the house have been fulfilled.
B.
Committee on Subordinate Legislation
2. Examines the CAG’s report on the appropriation accounts and ascertains whether the funds voted by Parliament are spent within the scope of the demand.
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Examines whether the powers to make rules and regulations delegated by the Parliament are properly exercised by the executive.
D.
Committee on Government
Assurances.
4. Examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings and finds out whether their affairs are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practices.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)
Q179.

List-I List-II
A. Token grant
1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand whose details cannot be stated.
B.
Exceptional grant
2. It is voted by the Lok Sabha before the end of the financial year.
C. Vote of credit
3. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the end of the financial year.
D. Excess grant – 4. It forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
5. It is granted when funds to meet proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 5 3 1 4
Ans: (b)
Q180.

List-I (Schedules in the Constitution) List-II (Provisions)
A. Sixth Schedule – 1. Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
B. Second Schedule – 2. Administration of tribal areas in states of Assam, Meghalya, Tripura and Mizoram.
C. Twelfth Schedule – 3. Provisions as to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of state Legislative Assemblies.
D. Fifth Schedule – 4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities.
5. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1
Ans: (c)
Q181.

List-I List-II
A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.
1. Surcharges on taxes and duties
B. Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the states. – 2. Taxes on services.
C. Taxes levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states.
3. Stamp duties on bills of exchange.
D. Taxes and duties for purposes of the Union. – 4. Income tax
5. Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 3 1 4
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 3 5 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q182. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 153 — Office of the Governor
(b) Article 156 — Term of the Governor
(c) Article 154 — Executive authority of Governor
(d) Article 155 — Removal of Governor
Ans: (d)
Q183. The most important Legislative power of the Governor is:

(a) Nominating members to the state legislature.
(b) Issuing ordinances
(c) Assenting bills passed by the state legislature
(d) Dissolving the state legislative Assembly
Ans: (b)
Q184. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the Governor and the council of ministers.

Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q185. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Balwantray Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
2. Ashok Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1977.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee submitted its report in 1986.
4. L.M. Singhvi Committee submitted its report in 1987.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q186. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd

Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Making provision for reservation to the backward classes.
2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.
3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas.
4. Conferring financial powers on Panchayats with regard to taxes, fees and so on.
5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to the Panchayats.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q187. Assertion: The UPSC’s function is not to decide but to advise.

Reason: UPSC is a constitutional body Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q188. Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?

1. It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the Constitution.
2. It was set up by an order of the President of India.
3. It was set up in 1985.
4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q189. Which of the following audit is discretionary and not obligatory on the part of CAG?

(a) Audit of Accountancy
(b) Audit of Authority
(c) Audit of Appropriation
(d) Audit of Propriety
Ans: (d)
Q190. “The state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice—social, economic and political—shall inform all the institutions of the national life.” This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Article 39
(b) Article 46
(c) Article 38
(d) Article 37
Ans: (c)
Q191. Which of the following will be the consequences of the proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President?

1. The President can give directions to the states to observe the principles of financial propriety.
2. The President can reduce the salaries and allowances of government employees excluding the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
3. All money bills and other financial bills passed by a state legislature can be reserved for the consideration of the President.
4. The Parliament can authorise the President to sanction expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the state.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q192. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(b) The Governor of the concerned state
(c) The Attorney-General of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (d)
Q193. Which of the following articles of the Constitution broadly govern the relationship between the Prime Minister and the President?

1. Article 75
2. Article 73
3. Article 78
4. Article 76
5. Article 74
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q194. Which of the following distinguishes the audit of the CAG from the audit made by professional auditors?

(a) Audit of Authority
(b) Audit of Appropriation
(c) Audit of Accountancy
(d) Audit of Propriety
Ans: (d)
Q195. Who/which of the following has called the erstwhilePlanning Commission as “The Economic Cabinet, not merely for the Union but also for the states”?

(a) K. Santhanam
(d) Ashok Chanda
Ans: (d)
Q196. Match the following: List-I (Statements on NDC) List- II(Madeby)

A. “Among the advisory bodies to the Planning Commission is included the NDC. This is surely incorrect as is clear from its composition. The NDC is a body obviously superior to the Planning Commission.”
1. K.
Santhanam
B. The NDC was established as a supreme administrative and advisory body on planning . . . since their inception the NDC and its standing Committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.”
2. A. P.
Jain
C. “The NDC infringes upon functions which under the Constitution, are assigned to other bodies and attempts to do what the council of ministers at the central and the states’ levels should do.”
3. M.
Brecher
D. “The position of NDC has come to approximate to that of a Super Cabinet of the entire Indian federation, a Cabinet functioning for the Government of India and the government of all the states.”
4. Ashok Chanda Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 5
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 5 3 4 1
Ans: (c)
Q197. Which of the following were the functions of erstwhile Planning Commission?

1. To formulate development plans of state governments.
2. To secure public cooperation in national development.
3. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
4. To provide secretarial assistance to the NDC.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q198. In which of the following respects, the Finance Commission differed from the erstwhile Planning Commission?

1. Legal status
2. Composition
3. Tenure
4. Form of organisation
5. Functions
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q199. The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings was first visualised by:

(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) Lanka Sundaram
(d) Krishna Menon Committee
Ans: (c)
Q200. Match the following: List-I List-II

A. Executive authority of President – 1. Article 56
B. Tenure of President – 2. Article 55
C. Election of President – 3. Article 61
D. Impeachment of President – 4. Article 53
5. Article 54 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 4 5 2 3
(d) 4 2 5 3
Ans: (b)
Q201. Assertion: Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by the creation of the Contingency Fund of India.

Reason: The Contingency Fund of India is operated by the President of India.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q202. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Vote on account — To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget.
2. Charged items — Not submitted to the Parliament.
3. Vote of credit — Blanck cheque given to the executive.
4. Excess grant — Submitted directly to the Lok Sabha for its approval
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q203. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges
2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q204. Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?

1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.
2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.
3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semiautonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that purpose.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q205. Assertion: The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya Sabha.

Reason: An Adjournment Motion does not result in removing the Government from office.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q206. Which of the following Lokpal Bills had Prime Minister in their jurisdiction?

1. The Lokpal Bill of 1968
2. The Lokpal Bill of 1971
3. The Lokpal Bill of 1977
4. The Lokpal Bill of 1985
5. The Lokpal Bill of 1990
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q207. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up in 1964.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as those of UPSC.
4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to that of the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in UK.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q208. Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct?

1. It derives its functions only from the Constitution.
2. It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.
3. The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview of consultation with UPSC.
4. The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q209. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:

(a) President of the board
(b) Defence Secretary
(c) Chief Secretary of the state
(d) President of India
Ans: (d)
Q210. The correct statements about municipalities include:

1. They are known by various other names in different states.
2. They are controlled by the state governments.
3. Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman.
4. They are statutory bodies.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q211. The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the states of:

1. Nagaland
2. Mizoram
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Meghalaya
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q212. The first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras in:

(a) 1767
(b) 1687
(c) 1667
(d) 1678
Ans: (b)
Q213. Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council.

(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) State Assembly
Ans: (a)
Q214. In which of the following recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee?

1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
2. Official participation of political parties at all levels of Panchayat elections.
3. Zila Parishad as the executive body.
4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila Parishad.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q215. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a state bill for the consideration of the President?

1. If it is ultra vires.
2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under
Article 31A.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q216. Which of the following expenditures are ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of Council of States.
2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor-General.
3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal.
4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q217. The Railway budget has:

(a) 36 demands
(b) 34 demands
(c) 42 demands
(d) 32 demands
Ans: (d)
Q218. Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?

(b) Exceptional grant
(c) Token grant
(d) Excess grant
Ans: (d)
Q219. Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget?

(a) Finance Ministry
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (d)
Q220. According to Administrative Reforms Commission, the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after consultation with the:

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q221. Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the President before their introduction?

1. Bills to reorganise states.
2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested.
3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade.
4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (b)
Q222. The Inter-State Council consists of

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Ministers of all states
3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures
4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers
5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q223. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister?

(a) Political Affairs Committee
(b) Appointments Committee
(c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Economic Affairs Committee
Ans: (c)
Q224. “Since their inception, the NDC and its standing committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.” This statement is associated with:

(a) K. Santhanam
(b) M. Brecher
(c) H.M. Patel
(d) Ashok Chanda
Ans: (b)
Q225. On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President?

1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q226. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of:

(a) Shah Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) Swaran Singh Committee
Ans: (d)
Q227. Which of the following are the provisions of Article 75 of the Constitution?

1. Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister.
2. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.
3. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
4. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q228. The composition of National Development Council includes:

1. Chief Ministers of all the states
2. All Union Cabinet Ministers
3. Prime Minister
5. Selected Union Cabinet Ministers
6. Members of NITI Aayog
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Ans: (b)
Q229. Assertion: The Estimates Committee has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.

Reason: It is a means of legislative control over administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q230. Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution.

Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q231. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.

Reason: The Act has brought the Panchayati Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the the Constitution.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)
Q232. Consider the following statements about the Governor:

1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the state.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the President.
4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q233. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

(a) One-third
(b) One-twelfth
(c) One-eighth
(d) One-sixth
Ans: (d)
Q234. Assertion: A minister at the state level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.

Reason: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q235. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?

1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature to have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of weaker sections.
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) only 2
Ans: (d)
Q236. Which of the following are true of the provisions of the 74th

Amendment Act on municipalities?
1. Wards Committees, for wards with population of two lakhs.
2. The state Governor may authorise them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes.
3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area.
4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional items for the municipalities.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q237. Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the President.

Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q238. Assertion: The members of All-India Services work in the Central Government, state governments and union territories.

Reason: They are selected and recruited on the basis of all-India competitive examinations conducted by the UPSC.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q239. Which of the following are true of the Staff Selection Commission?

1. It was set up in 1976.
2. It enjoys the status of a subordinate office of Ministry of Personnel.
3. It was created by executive resolution.
4. It recruits personnel to non-technical Class III posts in the Secretariat, the attached offices and the subordinate offices in the Central Government.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q240. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Article 266 – No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
2. Article 117 – No tax can be imposed unless asked for by the executive government.
3. Article 113 – No expenditure can be sanctioned unless asked for by the executive government.
4. Article 265 – No expenditure can be incurred except with the authorisation of the legislature.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q241. Which of the following are true of the Contingency Fund of India.

1. It was created under the provisions of Article 267.
2. It was created in 1951.
3. It is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
4. Its amount will be determined by the President.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q242. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse leads to ‘rush of expenditure’ towards the end of a financial year.

Reason: The unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q243. Match the following: List-I (Parliamentary committees) List-II (Created in)

A. Committee on Government Assurances – 1. 1923
B. Committee on Public Undertakings – 2. 1953
C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation – 3. 1921
D. Public Accounts Committee – 4. 1953
5. 1964 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 2 5 4 3
Ans: (d)
Q244. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.
2. It does not exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI.
3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
4. It consists of a chairman and three members.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q245. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national emergency by the President?

1. The President can issue directives to the state executives.
2. The President can extend the normal tenure of the Lok Sabha.
3. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
4. The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources between Centre and states.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q246. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) 1861 Act – Portfolio system
(c) 1935 Act – Bicameralism
(d) 1853 Act – Governor-General of India
Ans: (b)
Q247. Which of the following are true of the President’s ordinance making power?

1. It is laid down in Article 123.
2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament.
3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in session.
4. It is a discretionary power of the President.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (c)
Q248. Assertion: The Prime Minister’s Office influences the formulation of plans.

Reason: The PM is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q249. Match the following: List-I List-II

A. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.
1.
Article 74
2.
B. Duties of the Prime Minister towards the President. Article 77
C. Council of ministers to aid and advise the President.
3.
Article 76
D. All executive action of the Government of India shall be taken in the name of the President.
4.
Article 75
5.
Article 78 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 5 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
Q250. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Judicial Review
3. Federalism
4. Written Constitution
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q251. Assertion: Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Residuary powers were vested in the Central Legislature.

Reason: The Government of India Act of 1935 divided the subjects into three lists viz. the federal, provincial and concurrent.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q252. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. Rigid Constitution
2. Bicameral legislature
3. Office of the CAG
4. Collective responsibility
5. Office of the Governor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q253. “The position of pre-eminance, accorded to Planning Commission, is inconsistent with the conception of a Cabinet form of Government.” The above state-ment is associated with:

(a) Ashok Chanda
(b) K. Santhanam
(c) Estimates Committee
Ans: (a)
Q254. Which of the following are the objectives of the National Development Council?

1. To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the Plan.
3. To review the working of the Plan from time to time.
4. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting develo-pment.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q255. Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson.

Reason: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q256. The correct statements about Finance Commission are:

1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism
2. It consists of a chairman and three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President.
4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q257. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:

1. Pocket veto
2. Absolute veto
3. Suspensive veto
4. Qualified veto
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q258. The functions of National Development Council includes:

1. To consider the national plan as formulated by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the plan.
3. To review the working of the plan from time to time.
4. To consider questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q259. The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is governed by the provisions of:

(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 48th Amendment Act
(c) 54th Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
Ans: (d)
Q260. The Zonal Councils have been established by:

(a) Article 263 of the Constitution
(b) States reorganisation Act
(c) Zonal Councils Act
(d) An order of the President of India
Ans: (b)
Q261. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Parliament can increase a tax.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
3. Parliament can abolish a tax.
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q262. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament.
2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q263. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q264. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of a Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?

1. It is laid down in Article 200.
2. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.
3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the position of High Court.
4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q265. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Central Bureau of Investigation—1963
(b) Special Police Establishment—1942
(c) Prevention of Corruption Act—1947
(d) Central Vigilance Commission—1964
Ans: (b)
Q266. The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:

1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.
2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.
4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.
5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q267. Which of the following civil services find mention in the Constitution?

2. Indian Forest Service
3. Indian Police Service
4. All-India Judicial Service
5. Indian Foreign Service
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q268. In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?

1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q269. Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?

1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
4. Disciplinary matters
5. Talent hunting
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the respective lists.
Ans: (c)
Q270.

List-I List-II
A. Tax belonging to the state exclusively. – 1. Excise duties on medicinal preparations
B. Duties levied as well as collected by the Union, but assigned to the states. – 2. Surcharge on taxes
C. Tax belonging to the Centre exclusively.
3. Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter-state trade.
D. Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.
4. Taxes on non-agricultural income
5. Sales Tax.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 4 3 5 2
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans: (c)
Q271.

List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861. – 1. Introduced Dyarchy
B. Government of India
Act of 1919
2. Placed Indian affairs under the direct control of the British Government.
C. Indian Councils Act of 1892 – 3. Introduced representative institutions.
D. Pitts India Act of 1784 – 4. Introduced provincial autonomy.
5. Introduced the principle of election.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 1 3 2
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 5
(d) 3 1 5 2
Ans: (d)
Q272. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body.

Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q273. Assertion: The Constitution of India in quasi-federal.

Reason: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the state governments.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q274. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of state government.

Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q275. Which of the following are correct with regard to the functions of the UPSC?

1. To conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.
2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required.
3. To advise the Union and state governments on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
4. To present, annually, to the President a report as to the work done by it.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q276. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quowarranto
(d) Injunction
Ans: (d)

Section- 1 Basic PracticePractice MCQs Difficulty Level -1

Q1. Which among the following are correct about the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1858?
(a) It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors
(b) It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal
(c) It reconstituted the Council of the Governor-General
(d) The number of additional member in the Provincial Legislative Councils was also increased
Ans: (a)
Q2. Which among the following Act marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India?

(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1935 Act
(c) 1858 Act
(d) 1919 Act
Ans: (b)
Q3. Which among the following are true about Cabinet Mission Plan Proposal?

(a) Rejection of Pakistan
(b) It ended the British rule in India
(c) Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council
(d) The Princely states could not be persuaded to accede to the federation
Ans: (a)
Q4. Which among the following proposal is made under August Offer?

(a) Expansion of Viceroy’s executive council
(b) It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858.
(c) One important development during the period was the evolution of the office of the Speaker
(d) It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels
Ans: (a)
Q5. Who among the following gave the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India in the year 1934?

(a) M.N.Roy
(b) B.R.Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) H.C. Mukherjee
Ans: (a)
Q6. Who among the following members were present in the drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?

(a) N Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
(b) B. Kripalani
(c) H.C. Mukherjee
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (a)
Q7. Which among the following amendment has added Right to Education as a fundamental duty of every parent to send their children to School 0-6 years of age?

(a) 94th Amendment act
(b) 73rd Amendment act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 97th Amendment Act
Ans: (c)
Q8. What is the Objective of the 98th Amendment Act which has been passed and came into force on 2nd January 2013 in the Constitution of India?

(a) the Amendment is to empower the Governor of Karnataka to take steps to develop the Hyderabad-Karnataka Region
(b) Added the words “or co-operative societies” after the word “or unions” in Article 19(l) (c) and insertion ofarticle 43B i.e., Promotion of Co-operative Societies and added Part-IXB i.e., The Co-operative Societies.
(c) To insert Article 371J in the Constitution 2 January2013
(d) The amendment objective is to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India
Ans: (a)
Q9. The objective of this Amendment is to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India. The amendment referred to is

(a) 73rd Amendment Act
(b) 86th Amendment Act
(c) 97th Amendment Act
(d) 94th Amendment Act
Ans: (c)
Q10. In which year was the Keshavananda Bharati Case implemented in the basic structure of the Constitution?

(a) 1973
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1980
Ans: (a)
Q11. Who among the following stood for total revolution in the country?

(a) Jai Prakash Narayan
(b) Jyotiva Phule
(c) Anne Besant
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which of the following is true about statutory bodies?

(a) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes whichParliament and State Legislatures can pass
(b) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes of theconstitution
(c) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes whichParliament and State Legislatures cannot pass
(d) Statutory bodies must exist even if Parliament isunhappy with.
Ans: (a)
Q13. The University Grants Commission (UGC) of India is a

(a) Constitutional Body
(b) Quasi-Statutory Body
(c) Neither statutory nor Constitutional
(d) Statutory body set up by the Union government in1956
Ans: (d)
Q14. Securities and Exchange Board of India is a

(a) Quasi Judicial body
(b) Regulatory body
(d) Constitutional body
Ans: (b)
Q15. The Election Commission of India has a

(a) Quasi Judicial Power
(c) Constitutional power
(d) Regulatory power
Ans: (a)
Q16. The quasi judicial power of the Central Information Commission means

(a) The Commission can order inquiry into any matterif there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
(b) The Commission does not have the power to securecompliance of its decisions from the public authority.
(c) The Commission does not submit an annual reportto the Central Government on the implementation ofthe provisions of this Act.
(d) Is a high-powered independent body which inter alialooks into the complaints made to it and decides notto appeal
Ans: (a)
Q17. The Constitution of India has made elaborate arrangement regarding the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the States. Which one is correct among the following?

1. Certain taxes are imposed by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States.
2. Certain taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre but are assigned to the States.
3. The state may give grants-in-aid to the Centre
4. Certain taxes like the progressive tax are levied and collected by the Centre Select the correct code:
(a) Both 3 & 4
(b) Both 1 & 3
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Both 1 & 4
Ans: (c)
Q18. In which year the S.R. Bommai vs Union of India were news in the centre in determing Centre-State relations?

(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2004
Ans: (a)
Q19. Which one of the following matters stands excluded from the jurisdiction of Inter-state Council in India?

(a) Enquiring into and advise upon disputes which mayhave arisen between the States.
(b) Adjudication of any dispute or compliant withrespect to the use, distribution or control of water,or in any inter-state river or river-valley.
(c) Investigation and discussion of subjects in whichsome or all of the States or the Union and one ormore States, have common interest
(d) Recommendation on any such subject and, inparticular, recommendation for a better coordinationof policy and action with respect to that subject.
Ans: (b)
Q20. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct in the American federal system?

(a) the powers of states are undefined but they are notunlimited.
(b) all states possess equal rights and equal representationin the Senate.
(c) the federal government can change the name andterritory of any constituent state.
(d) the residuary powers are vested in the states.
Ans: (c)
Q21. The Canadian Federal model provides

(a) two lists of Legislative powers, one for the Centreand the other for the Provinces and the residuarypowers are vested in the Centre.
(b) one list of Legislative powers for the provinces andthe residuary powers vested in the Centre.
(c) two lists of legislative powers, one for the Centre,the other for the Provinces and the residuary powersare vested in the Provinces.
(d) two lists equal number of Legislative powers, onefor Centre and the other for Provinces.
Ans: (a)
Q22. Which of the following are included in Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, defining the duties of Prime Minister ?

1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs.
2. To take prior Presidential sanction for the budget before submitting it in the Parliament.
3. To furnish the information called for by the President regarding administration of affairs of the Union.
4. If the President so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers a matter on which a Minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for consideration by the Council beforehand.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q23. The Governor recommends the imposition of the President’s rule in a state

(a) On the recommendation of the state legislature
(b) On the recommendation of the Chief Minister
(c) On the recommendation of the council of minister
(d) If he is satisfied that the government of the statecannot be carried in accordance with the provisionsof the Constitution of India
Ans: (d)
Q24. Which one of the following immunities of the Governor of the state has been wrongly listed?

(a) He is not answerable before any court for anythingdone in the exercise of his official duties
(b) No criminal proceedings can be launched againstGovernor during his term of office
(c) No legal proceeding can be instituted against theGovernor during the last year of his term
(d) The Governor is entitled to rent-free officialresidence.
Ans: (c)
Q25. The salary of the Governor is charged under

(a) The Consolidated Fund of India
(b) The Consolidated Fund of the state
(c) The Consolidated Fund of India and consolidatedfund of the state on 50: 50 sharing
(d) The Contingency Fund of the state
Ans: (b)
Q26. The Indian National Congress, which is regarded as the first organised political party of India was founded in the year

(a) 1883
(b) 1885
(c) 1887
(d) 1888
Ans: (b)
Q27. Read the following statements regarding Prime Minister’s Jan Dhan Yojana and select which among the following is not True.

1. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is the ambitious scheme for comprehensive financial inclusion by providing bank accounts to every households in India.
2. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana was launched on 28 August 2014
3. People can open zero balance accounts only in public sector banks under PMJDY.
4. RuPay debit card will be available for those who open accounts under PMJDY.
Select the correct code.
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 2 & 3
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 4
Ans: (c)
Q28. Which one of the following Committee contains representatives of both the House viz. Lok Sabha and Rajya Shabha

(b) The Rules Committee
(c) The Public Accounts Committee
(d) The Committee on Public Undertakings.
Ans: (c)
Q29. The Presiding officer of which House is not a member of that house?

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) All
Ans: (b)
Q30. The government resigns if a no-confidence motion is passed in

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(d) Joint session of Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q31. In case of disagreement on a bill, other than money bill, the only means of resolving the deadlock is

(a) Put off the bill indefinitely
(b) Pass it arbitrarily
(c) Pass it by a joint session of the two Houses
(d) President’s discretionary power used
Ans: (c)
Q32. Who is authorised to decide a dispute regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament?

(a) The President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) President in consultation with Election Commission
Ans: (d)
Q33. At least how many members are require for introduction of No-Confidence motion in the Lok Sabha.

(a) 50 members
(b) 75 members
(c) 100 members
(d) 200 members
Ans: (a)
Q34. In India Money bill is certified by

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Chairman of the Upper House
Ans: (c)
Q35. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is

(a) 550
(b) 470
(c) 475
(d) 552
Ans: (d)
Q36. Which of the following Articles empowers the President of India to call for joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?

(a) Art 101
(b) Art 102
(c) Art 108
(d) Art 110
Ans: (c)
Q37. The amendment procedure of the Indian constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of

(a) South Africa
(c) USA
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (a)
Q38. Which of the following articles deals with the amendment procedure of the constitution?

(a) Article 368
(b) Article 358
(c) Article 367
(d) all the these
Ans: (a)
Q39. Which of the following constitutional amendments has been described as a “mini-revision of the Constitution.”?

(a) The 42nd Amendment
(b) The 44th Amendment
(c) The 52nd Amendment
(d) The 39th Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q40. The 25th Amendment which affirmed the right of parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, was necessitated an account of the SC judgment in

(b) The Minerva Bills Case
(c) The Golak Nath Case
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (c)
Q41. The Preamble was for the first time amended by the

(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q42. Which of the following constitutes part of the basic structure?

(a) Legislative procedure
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Parliamentary democracy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q43. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India were adopted under inspiration from

(a) the French Revolution
(b) the Russian Revolution
(c) the American Declaration of Independence
(d) the UN Charter.
Ans: (a)
Q44. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not a part of the Constitution?

(a) Berubari case
(b) Golak Nath case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q45. In which case the Supreme Court gave a ruling that the Preamble was a part of the Constitution?

(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Berubari case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
(d) All the above cases
Ans: (c)
Q46. Which one of the following has been described as the soul of the Indian Constitution?

(a) the chapter on Fundamental Rights
(b) the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Preamble
(d) the provisions regarding Judicial Review
Ans: (c)
Q47. Which among the following is the nodal agency for the government’s recently launched Digital India Week programme?

(a) The Department of Electronics & IT
(b) Telecom ministry
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) TRAI
Ans: (b)
Q48. The Constitution describes the Indian Union as

(a) India, i.e., Bharat
(b) India, i.e., Bharatvarsha
(c) India, i.e., Hindustan
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (a)
Q49. How many types of political units existed in India at the time of independence?

(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) only one
Ans: (a)
Q50. The two persons who played a vital role in the integration of princely states were:

(a) Sardar Patel and Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel and V.P. Menon
(c) Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Patel and K M Munshi
Ans: (b)
Q51. The power to form new states or change the boundaries of existing states rests with

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Election Commission
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q52. At present, India consists of

(a) 25 states and 9 union territories
(b) 24 states and 7 union territories
(c) 28 states and 7 union territories
(d) 21 states and 11 union territories
Ans: (c)
Q53. The states were reorganised on linguistic basis in

(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1956
(d) 1966
Ans: (c)
Q54. The first commission appointed by the Government in

1948 to examine the case for the reorganisation of states on linguistic basis was headed by
(a) Justice Wanchoo
(b) Justice M C Mahajan
(c) Justice S K Dhar
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q55. The famous JVP Committee consisting of Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, was appointed in December 1948 to

(a) examine the case of establishment of secular polityin the country
(b) examine the issue of reorganisation of states on linguisticbasis
(c) determine the compensation to be paid to the rulersof Indian states consequent to the merger of theirstates with India
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q56. Which of the following formed the State Reorga-nisation Commission group (1953)?

(a) Fazl Ali and Kanzru
(b) Kanzru and Katju
(c) Katju and Fazl Ali
(d) Pannikar and Katju
Ans: (a)
Q57. The States Reorganisation Commission, set up in 1953 to consider the demand for linguistic states, was headed by

(a) Fazl Ali
(b) K M Pannikkar
(c) H N Kunzru
(d) M C Mahajan
Ans: (a)
Q58. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, divided the entire country into

(a) 22 states and 9 union territories
(b) 14 states and 6 union territories
(c) 17 states and 7 union territories
(d) four categories of states
Ans: (b)
Q59. The correct chronological order in which the following states of India were created is

3. Punjab 4. Nagaland
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans: (a)
Q60. The Punjab Reorganisation Act, which created the states of Punjab and Haryana in 1966, was enacted on the basis of the recommendations of the

(a) Dhar Commission
(b) Dass Commission
(c) Shah Commission
(d) Mahajan Commission
Ans: (c)
Q61. Which of the following states were initially given the status of autonomous state and subsequently made fullfledged states?

(a) Meghalaya and Sikkim
(b) Assam and Bihar
(c) Meghalaya and Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Nagaland and Assam
Ans: (a)
Q62. The day-to-day administration of a union territory is looked after by

(a) the Union Home Minister
(b) the Lt. Governor
(c) the President
(d) a state minister of home affairs
Ans: (c)
Q63. The structure of administration in various union territories

(a) has been prescribed in the Constitution
(b) is determined by the Union Home Minister
(c) is determined by the Parliament
(d) is determined by the President
Ans: (c)
Q64. The administrators of Union Territories are designated as

(a) Lieutenant Governor
(b) Chief Commissioners
(d) all these
Ans: (d)
Q65. The following states were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation.

1. Haryana 2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans: (d)
Q66. The reference to the National Capital Territory of Delhi is found in

(a) Article 239A
(b) Article 239AA
(c) Article 239B
(d) Article 239BB
Ans: (b)
Q67. Which one of the following was inserted as per Bihar Reorganisation Act (2008)?

(a) Uttaranchal (now renamed Uttrakhand)
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q68. Which one of the following was a Union Territory before it was accorded the status of a full-fledged state?

(b) Tripura
(c) Manipur
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q69. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a Union Territory?

(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Tripura
(d) none of these
Ans: (c)
Q70. The Constitution of India

(a) provides single citizenship
(b) provides double citizenship
(c) contains no provision regarding citizenship
(d) provides multiple citizenship
Ans: (a)
Q71. The detailed provisions regarding acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship are contained in

(a) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) the orders issued by the Provisional Government in1946
(c) an act passed by the Indian Parliament in 1955
(d) Part VII of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q72. Which of the following has been wrongly listed as a condition for becoming a citizen of India?

(a) citizenship by birth
(b) citizenship by descent
(c) citizenship through acquisition of property
(d) citizenship by naturalisation
Ans: (c)
Q73. Who is competent to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship?

(a) Election Commission
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Parliament and state legislatures jointly.
Ans: (b)
Q74. What is the minimum duration of stay essential before a person can apply for Indian citizenship?

(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 10 years
Ans: (b)
Q75. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens are contained in

(a) Part III of the Constitution
(b) Part IV of the Constitution
(c) the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q76. The original Constitution classified the Fundamental Rights into seven categories but now there are only

(a) three categories
(b) four categories
(c) five categories
(d) six categories.
Ans: (d)
Q77. Which one of the following has been added to the list of original Fundamental Rights?

(a) right to property
(b) right to Constitutional Remedies
(c) right to Freedom of Religion
(d) right to elementary education
Ans: (d)
Q78. Consider the following statement regarding Armed Forces Special Powers Act(AFPSA).

1. AFPSA was passed in Parliament in 1956.
2. Recently AFPSA was revoked in Nagaland after 18 years.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) only 2
(b) only 1
(c) either 1 nor 2
(d) either 1 or 2
Ans: (b)
Q79. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

(a) right to property
(b) right against exploitation
(c) right to equality
(d) right to freedom of religion
Ans: (a)
Q80. The scope of life and personal liberty (Article 21) includes

(a) right to bonus
(b) right to good health
(c) right to housing
(d) right to work
Ans: (b)
Q81. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been subject of maximum litigation since the inauguration of the Constitution?

(a) right to freedom of speech
(b) right to constitutional remedies
(c) right to property
(d) right against exploitation
Ans: (c)
Q82. Right to private property was dropped from the list of Fundamental Rights by the

(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 52nd Amendment
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q83. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens were

(a) incorporated in the original Constitution
(b) outlined in an Act of Parliament passed in 1952
(c) incorporated by the 42nd Amendment
(d) incorporated by the 44th Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q84. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution.’

(a) right to equality
(b) right to religion
(c) right to constitutional remedies
(d) all the above
Ans: (c)
Q85. The right to equality

(a) prevents the state from making special provision forwomen, children and backward classes
(b) permits the state to make discrimination on groundof residence
(c) permits the state to make special provisions forwomen, children and backward classes
(d) permits the state to nationalise all means of productionand distribution
Ans: (c)
Q86. Right to freedom can be restricted

(a) in the interest of security of the state
(b) in the interest of friendly relations with foreignstates
(c) in the interest of public order
(d) on all the above grounds
Ans: (d)
Q87. Which one of the following freedoms enshrined in Article

19 of the Constitution has since been abolished?
(a) freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(b) freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
Ans: (b)
Q88. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the recently launched AMRUT scheme?

A. Prime minister Narendra Modi has recently opened the AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme.
B. The AMRUT scheme has replaced the 10-yr old UPA’s flagship programme Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM).
C. The renewed version of JNNURM, AMRUT will be a 10-year programme with total investment of about
D. AMRUT scheme will focus on digitization and wi-fi zones in cities to improve urban governance.
Select the correct code
(a) A & B
(d) B & C(c) B, C & D
Ans: (d)
Q89. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens

(a) can be suspended by the President during nationalemergency
(b) can be suspended by the President during all typesof emergencies
(c) can be suspended by the President with the priorapproval of the Supreme Court at any time
(d) cannot be suspended under any condition
Ans: (a)
Q90. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens have been criticised on the ground that

(a) they are hemmed in by too many restrictions
(b) they are couched in language beyond thecomprehension of ordinary citizens
(c) they are absolute
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: (d)
Q91. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is restrained by the Preventive Detention Act?

(a) right to religion
(b) right to constitutional remedies
(c) right to freedom
(d) right to equality
Ans: (c)
Q92. The power to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens rests with

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the Parliament
(c) the President
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q93. Who has been vested with the power to decide whether the restrictions imposed on the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizen are reasonable or not?

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the courts
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q94. The Government of India instituted Bharat Ratna and Padma Shri awards under

(a) Article 14 of the Constitution
(b) Article 18 of the Constitution
(c) Article 25 of the Constitution
(d) none of the above Articles
Ans: (b)
Q95. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution is also available to non-citizens?

(a) freedom of speech, assembly and association
(b) freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of theterritoryof India
(d) right to freedom of religion
Ans: (d)
Q96. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a special feature of Fundamental Rights in India?

(a) Fundamental Rights are more sacrosanct than rightsgranted by ordinary laws
(b) Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonablerestrictions
(c) Fundamental Rights are justicable and can beenforced through the Supreme Court
(d) none of these
Ans: (d)
Q97. Consider the following statements with regard to compulsory singing of national anthem

1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the freedom of conscience and practice and propagation of religion.
3. There is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the national anthem Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: (c)
Q98. Under the provisions of which Article of the Constitution the government abolished the practice of untouchability?

(a) Article 16
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 18
(d) Article 20
Ans: (b)
Q99. In 1996, the Supreme Court upheld the validity of civilian awards, but recommended that the total awards to be given each year in all categories should be restricted to

(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 75
Ans: (b)
Q100. The Sikhs in India are permitted to carry Kirpan. Under which one of the following Fundamental Rights are they permitted to do so?

(a) right to freedom
(b) right to freedom of religion
(c) right to life and liberty
(d) none of the above.
Ans: (b)
Q101. Freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable restrictions on the grounds of protection of

(a) sovereignty and integrity of the country
(b) the dignity of the office of the Prime Minister
(c) the dignity of the council of ministers
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q102. At present, right to property is a

(a) Natural Right
(b) Human Right
(c) Fundamental Right
(d) Legal Right
Ans: (d)
Q103. The main objective of the cultural and educational rights granted to the citizens is

(a) to preserve the rich cultural heritage of India
(b) to evolve a single integrated Indian culture
(c) to help the minorities to conserve their culture
(d) all the above
Ans: (c)
Q104. Under the Indian Constitution, the responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights rests with

(a) the High Courts
(b) all the courts
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Q105. A person can move the Supreme Court directly in the event of violation of Fundamental Rights under

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 32
(c) Article 34
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q106. The Fundamental Rights of a citizen can be suspended

(a) by the Parliament through a law enacted bytwo-thirds majority
(b) by the President during a national emergency
(c) by the Supreme Court
(d) none of the above.
Ans: (b)
Q107. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the courts can issue

(a) a decree
(b) an ordinance
(c) a writ
Ans: (c)
Q108. Which Fundamental Right guaranteed that the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings?

(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to freedom
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (b)
Q109. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 14: Equality before law
(b) Article 16: Equal opportunities
(c) Article 17: Abolition of titles
(d) Article 18: Permission of military titles
Ans: (c)
Q110. Right to information is a

(a) fundamental right
(b) social right
(c) cultural right
(d) legal right
Ans: (d)
Q111. Which authority can a citizen approach for securing right of personal freedom?

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) Supreme Court alone
(d) both Supreme Court and High Courts
Ans: (d)
Q112. Which one of the following rights is available only to the citizens within the territory of India?

1. freedom of speech
2. right to form associations or unions
3. equality before law
4. freedom to assemble peacefully without arms Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q113. The Constitution grants right against exploitation to

1. Children 2. Women
3. Tribals 4. Dalits Select the correct answer using the following codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q114. For how many years, Hyderabad is envisaged as the common capital for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana as per Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 2014?

(a) 5 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 12 years
Ans: (c)
Q115. Which one of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b)
Q116. Who of the following can amend the Fundamental Rights granted by the Constitution?

(a) the President
(b) the Supreme Court
(c) the Parliament
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q117. The main objective of the Fundamental Rights is to

(a) ensure independence of judiciary
(b) promote a socialist pattern of society
(c) ensure individual liberty
(d) ensure all the above
Ans: (c)
Q118. Under the Indian Constitution, a citizen

(a) cannot be deprived of his life and personal libertyunder any condition
(b) can be deprived of life and personal liberty by thePresident during emergency
(c) can be deprived of life and personal liberty only inaccordance with the procedure established by law
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q119. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued

(a) by a superior court to the lower court directing it totransferthe record of proceedings in a case for itsreview
(b) in the form of an order calling upon a person whohas detained another person to bring that personbefore court and show authority for such detention
(c) by a superior court to a subordinate court to dosomething in the nature of its allotted duty
(d) in the form of an order to stop proceedings in acertain case
Ans: (b)
Q120. The writ of Quo Warranto is an order from a superior court

(a) whereby it can call upon a person to show underwhat authorityhe is holding the office
(b) directing to produce a person detained by an officialbefore the nearest court within 24 hours
(c) to an inferior court to stop proceedings in a particularcase
(d) to the lower court to transfer a case pending beforeit to the superior court for trial.
Ans: (a)
Q121. The writ of Mandamus is issued by a superior court

(a) to command a person or public authority to dosomething in the nature of public duty
(b) to produce an illegally detained person before acourt within 24 hours
(c) to command a person or public authority to stopproceedings in a case in national interest
(d) in all the above cases
Ans: (a)
Q122. The writ of Certiorari is issued by a superior court

(a) to an inferior court to stop further proceedings in aparticularcase
(b) to an inferior court to transfer the record ofproceedings in a case for its review
(c) to an officer to show his right to hold a particularoffice
(d) to a public authority to produce a person detainedby it before the court within 24 hours
Ans: (b)
Q123. Which of the following states are first to get Plastic Photo Identity Card?

(a) Assam and Tripura
(b) Assam and Nagaland
(c) Nagaland and Mizoram
(d) Mizoram and Sikkim
Ans: (b)
Q124. A writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court

(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal fromexceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to therules of natural justice
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial orquasi-judicial functions to transfer the record ofproceedings in a case for its review
(c) whereby it can call upon a person to show underwhat authorityhe is holding the office
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detainedperson before the court for trial
Ans: (a)
Q125. Which one of the following writs literally means ‘what is your authority’?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (c)
Q126. Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens were

(a) enshrined in the original Constitution
(b) added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
(c) added to the Constitution by the 44th Amendment
(d) added to the Constitution in the wake of the SupremeCourt judgment in Keshavananda Bharati case, withthe consent of all the political parties
Ans: (b)
Q127. The Fundamental Duties of citizens

(a) lie scattered throughout the Constitution
(b) are contained in Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) are contained in Schedule IX of the Constitution
(d) are contained in the Presidential Order issued in1979
Ans: (b)
Q128. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a duty of Indian citizens

(a) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity andintegrity of the country
(b) to promote harmony and the spirit of commonbrotherhood among the people of India
(c) to practice family planning and control population
(d) to protect and preserve the natural environment
Ans: (c)
Q129. Consider the following

1. Fundamental Rights are justiciable
2. Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable
(a) Both are false
(b) Both are true
(c) Only 1 is true
(d) Only 2 is true.
Ans: (b)
Q130. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution to

(a) prevent misuse of Fundamental Rights
(b) curb subversive and unconstitutional activities
(c) curb the growing power of the executive
(d) make the Fundamental Rights more meaningful
Ans: (b)
Q131. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?

(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balram Jakhar Committee
(d) Sarkaria Commission
Ans: (a)
Q132. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in

(a) Part III of the Constitution
(b) Part IV of the Constitution
(c) Schedule VII of the Constitution
(d) in all the above parts
Ans: (b)
Q133. The Directive Principles aim at

(a) ensuring individual liberty
(b) ensuring strengthening of the country’s independence
(c) providing a social and economic base for a genuinedemocracy in the country
(d) achieving all the above objectives
Ans: (c)
Q134. The Directive Principles are

(a) positive instructions to the government to work forthe attainment of set objectives
(b) negative injunctions to the government to refrainfrom encroachingon the freedom of the people
(c) directives to the state to enhance the internationalprestige of the country
(d) directives to the government to pursue a policy ofnon-alignment
Ans: (a)
Q135. Which one of the following amendments accorded precedence to the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans: (c)
Q136. In which part of the Constitution does the concept of welfare state find elaboration?

(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) all the above
Ans: (c)
Q137. The Directive Principles of State Policy are

(a) justiciable
(b) non-justiciable
(c) only some Directive Principles are justiciable
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q138. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of State Policy are like a ‘cheque on a bank payable at the convenience of the bank’?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) K T Shah
(c) B R Ambedkar
(d) K M Munshi
Ans: (b)
Q139. Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, the state is expected to provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of

(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 16 years
Ans: (a)
Q140. Which one of the following is a Directive Principle of State Policy?

(a) The state shall not deny to any person equalitybefore law.
(b) The state shall not discriminate against any personon grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place ofbirth.
(c) Untouchability is abolished and its practice in anyform shall be punishable by law.
(d) The state shall endeavour to protect and improve theenvironment.
Ans: (d)
Q141. How many Directive Principles were added to Part IV of the constitution by the 42nd amendment?

(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q142. Article 40 of the Constitution of India states that “The State shall take steps to organise X and endow them with such powers and authority, as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government.” In this statement ‘X’ stands for

(c) Inter-State Council (d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q143. The Directive Principles of State Policy seek

(a) to establish the supremacy of the Constitution
(b) to curb the authoritarian rule
(c) to strengthen judiciary
(d) to make the Constitution an instrument of socialchange.
Ans: (d)
Q144. The enforcement of the Directive Principles of State Policy depends on

(a) the resources available with the government
(b) the will of the government in power
(c) the judiciary
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q145. Which one of the following wanted the Directive Principles of State Policy to be the basis of all future legislation?

(a) B R Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) K M Munshi
(d) B N Rau
Ans: (a)
Q146. In the event of non-enforcement of the Directive Principles of State Policy by the government, the citizen can approach

(a) the High Court
(b) the Supreme Court
(c) any court of his choice
(d) none of these
Ans: (d)
Q147. Two statements, one labelled the ‘Assertion’ (A) and the other labelled the ‘Reason’ (R), are given below. Examine these statements carefully and decide if the Assertion

(A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution aim at providing the social and economic base of a genuine democracy.
Reason (R): The Directive Principles are merely directives which the government has to keep in mind while framing policy and are not enforceable through courts.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
4. to work for the development of weaker or backward section of the society
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q148. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy.

1. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the Directive Principles from the Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The Directive Principles aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
3. The Directive Principles have to be kept in mind by the government while formulating policy and framing laws.
4. The Directive Principles are justiciable.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2, and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: (c)
Q149. Which amendment of the Constitution provided that no law passed to give effect to Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Articles 39 (b) and (c) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it abridges the rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19?

(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 25th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q150. Which amendment of the Constitution accorded precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?

(a) 39th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) none of the above.
Ans: (b)
Q151. In which case did the Supreme Court strike down the provisions of the Constitution that accorded primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?

(a) Sajjan Singh case
(b) Golak Nath case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (d)
Q152. Which one of the following courts can a citizen move for the enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the High Court
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the courts
Ans: (d)
Q153. Which one of the following factors has been responsible for the slow implementation of the Directive Principles?

(a) Lack of resources with the government
(b) Lack of political will
(c) vastness of the country
(d) all the above factors
Ans: (d)
Q154. Which of the following Directive Principles of state policy are based on Gandhian ideology?

1. organisation of village panchayats
2. compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 years
3. prohibition on use of intoxicating drinks except for medicinal purposes as ‘International Day of Yoga’. This resolution was adopted under the agenda of ‘Global Health and Foreign Policy’.
3. 21st June was selected because it represents one of the two solstices and it is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere which has special significance in many parts of the world.
Codes:
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) All of the above.
Ans: (c)
Q155. Which one of the following Directive Principles reflects socialist ideology?

(a) to provide adequate means of livelihood to all
(b) to prevent concentration of wealth and means ofproduction and to ensure equitable distribution ofwealth and material resources
(c) to ensure a decent standard of living and leisure forall workers
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q156. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle based on ‘liberal principles’?

(a) separation of judiciary and executive
(b) provision of a uniform civil code for the country
(c) protection of monuments and places of artistic orhistorical importance
(d) promotion of cottage/small industries
Ans: (d)
Q157. Which one of the following Directive Principles did not form part of the original Constitution and was added subsequently through constitutional amendments?

(a) to minimise inequality in income, status, facilitiesand opportunities amongst individuals and groups
(b) to protect and improve the environment and tosafeguard forests and wild life
(c) right of the workers to participate in the managementof industries
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q158. Which one of the following distinctions between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy has been wrongly listed?

(a) Directive Principles are positive instructions togovernment, while Fundamental Rights are negativeinjunctions to the governmentto refrain from doingcertain things
(b) Directive Principles are non-justiciable, whileFundamental Rights are justiciable
(c) Both the Directive Principles and FundamentalRights, are justiciable
(d) none of the above
Ans: (d)
Q159. In which case did the Supreme Court take the view that the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary to each other and there was no need to sacrifice one for the other?

(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Keshavananda Bharati case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) all the above cases
Ans: (c)
Q160. Consider the following statements and select which among the following is/are correct.

1. The first International Yoga Day (IYD) was celebrated across the world on 21 June 2015.
2. In December 2014, UNGA had unanimously adopted India-led resolution to observe 21st June
Ans: (d)
Q161. The President of India is

(a) the head of the state
(b) the head of the government
(c) the head of the state as well as government
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q162. The President of India is

(a) directly elected by the people
(b) elected by the two houses of Parliament at a jointsitting
(c) elected through an electoral college consisting of theelectedmembers of Parliament and state legislativeassemblies
(d) elected by the elected members of Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q163. Which one of the following does not take part in the election of the President?

(a) elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) elected members of Rajya Sabha
(c) members of the legislative councils
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q164. The name of the candidate for the office of the President of India has to be proposed by

(a) any 50 citizens
(b) any five members of the Electoral College
(c) any five members of Parliament
(d) any 50 members of the Electoral College
Ans: (d)
Q165. The election to the office of the President is conducted by

(a) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) the Prime Minister’s Office
(c) the Election Commission of India
(d) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (c)
Q166. To be eligible for election as President, a candidate must be

(a) over 35 years of age
(b) over 60 years of age
(c) over 55 years of age
(d) there is no age limit prescribed by the Constitution
Ans: (a)
Q167. The President holds office for a term of five years

(a) from the date on which he is elected
(b) from the date on which he enters office
(c) from the date determined by the Parliament
(d) from the date notified by the Election Commission
Ans: (b)
Q168. Which one of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?

(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a)
Q169. The following is the pardoning power of the President

(a) in matters relating to court martial
(b) in matters relating to rejection of mercy appeal
(c) in matters relating to President’s executive power
(d) in matters where there is death sentence
Ans: (b)
Q170. Who decides the disputes regarding election of the President?

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the Election Commission
(c) the Parliament
(d) both Supreme Court and High Courts
Ans: (a)
Q171. If the President wishes to tender his resignation before the expiry of his normal term, he has to address the same to

(a) the Vice-President of India
(b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Election Commission
Ans: (a)
Q172. Who among the following got the Bharat Ratna Award before becoming the President of India?

(c) V V Giri (d) S Radhakrishnan
Ans: (a)
Q173. What is the maximum age for election to the office of the President?

(a) 65
(b) 70
(c) 75
(d) no limit
Ans: (d)
Q174. Impeachment proceedings against the President of India can be initiated

(a) by the Supreme Court
(b) only in the Lok Sabha
(c) in either House of Parliament
(d) only in a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q175. In the event of the death or resignation of the President, the Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of President

(a) for the rest of the term
(b) for a maximum period of one year
(c) for a maximum period of six months
(d) for a maximum period of four months
Ans: (c)
Q176. Which one of the following official discharges the duties of the office of the President, if both the President and Vice-President are not available?

(a) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(d) the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q177. If the office of the President falls vacant, the same must be filled within

(a) six months
(b) three months
(c) one year
(d) 18 months
Ans: (a)
Q178. Which of the following policy initiatives to ensure security of women in the country under the Nirbhaya funds was proposed by the union ministry of Home Affairs in March

2015?
(a) Initiative to prevent and monitor obscene onlinecontent.
(b) Central victim compensation fund (CVCF)
(c) Investigative units on crime against women(IU-CAW)
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q179. Which one of the following Chief Justice of India enjoys the distinction of having acted as President of India?

(a) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
(b) Justice M Hidyatullah
(c) Justice P N Bhagwati
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q180. Who is legally competent to declare war or conclude peace?

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Council of Ministers
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q181. The final authority to make a proclamation of emergency rests with

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q182. How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President to the Parliament?

(a) 2
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) unspecified number, which is decided by the Councilof Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q183. How many members of the Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President from amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc.

(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) none
Ans: (c)
Q184. After a bill is passed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his consideration, he can

(a) refuse to sign it
(b) sleep over it
(c) change certain clauses of the bill
(d) send back the bill to Parliament for reconsideration
Ans: (d)
Q185. The President can make laws through ordinances

(a) during the recess of the Parliament
(b) on certain subjects even when Parliament is insession
(c) only on subjects contained in the concurrent list
(d) under no circumstances
Ans: (a)
Q186. The President can grant pardon in

(a) all cases of punishment by Court Martial
(b) all offences against laws in the union and concurrentlist
(c) all cases involving death sentence
(d) all the above cases
Ans: (d)
Q187. Which one of the following financial powers is enjoyed by the President?

(a) money bills can be introduced in the Parliament onlyon the recommendation of the President
(b) the President can advance money out of theContingency Fund of India
(c) the President appoints a Finance Commission torecommend the distribution of taxes between theUnion and the State governments
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q188. Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President on his own?

(a) emergency due to external aggression or armedrebellion
(b) emergency due to failure of the constitutionalmachinery in a state
(c) emergency due to threat to the financial stability orcredit of India
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Q189. In the appointment of which official the President has no say?

(a) judges of the Supreme Court
(b) judges of High Courts
(c) judges of District and Session Courts
(d) Attorney General of India
Ans: (c)
Q190. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution?

(a) only one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Ans: (c)
Q191. Which group of Articles relate to the relationship of the President and the Council of Ministers?

(a) 71, 75 and 78
(b) 72, 75 and 78
(c) 74, 75 and 78
(d) 73, 75 and 78
Ans: (c)
Q192. The President can declare national emergency

(a) only in the event of foreign invasion
(b) only in the event of armed rebellion
(c) in both (a) and (b)
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: (c)
Q193. How many times has the President declared national emergency so far?

(a) only once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) never
Ans: (c)
Q194. the Proclamation of National Emergency ceases to operate unless approved by the Parliament within

(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) three months
(d) six months
Ans: (a)
Q195. If a state fails to comply with the directives of the Central Government, the President can

(a) declare break-down of constitutional machinery inthe state and assume responsibility for its governance
(b) send reserve police force to secure compliance withdirections
(c) dissolve the state legislature and order fresh elections
(d) can do either (a) or (b)
Ans: (a)
Q196. The President can declare constitutional emergency in state

(a) only on the recommendation of the Union Councilof Ministers
(b) only on the recommendation of the Governor
(c) only on the recommendation of the council ofministers of the state
(d) if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in whichthe government of the state cannot be carried on inaccordance with the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q197. Which one of the following three types of emergencies has been declared by the President maximum number of times?

(a) national emergency
(b) state emergency
(c) financial emergency
(d) all the three emergencies have been declared equalnumber of times
Ans: (b)
Q198. A national emergency remains in operation, with the approval of the Parliament, for

(a) a maximum period of three years
(b) a maximum period of one year
(c) a maximum period of six months
(d) an indefinite period
Ans: (d)
Q199. The President can declare financial emergency

(a) if there is a threat to the financial stability or creditof India
(b) to meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting awar
(c) on the recommendation of the Comptroller andAuditor General
(d) if the majority of the state legislatures so recommend
Ans: (a)
Q200. During financial emergency, the President can

(a) order the reduction of salaries of Supreme Court andHigh Court Judges
(b) order the reduction of salaries and allowances of allcentral and state civil servants
(c) ask states to reserve the money or financial billspassed by the state legislature for his consideration
(d) do all these things
Ans: (d)
Q201. How many times has the President of India declared financial emergency so far?

(a) only once
(b) only twice
(c) only thrice
(d) never
Ans: (d)
Q202. In what respect does the Ordinance issued by the President differ from the Acts of Parliament

(a) It cannot be used for the amendment of the Constitution
(b) It has a temporary character
(c) It must be replaced by a law of the Parliament
(d) All the above
(a) Dr. Karan Singh
(b) Veerappa Moily
(c) H.D. Kumaraswamy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q203. Who headed the Second Administrative Reform Commission appointed by the UPA Government in 2005?

Ans: (b)
Q204. Before entering upon his office, the President has to take an oath or an affirmation, which is administered by

(a) the Chief Justice of India
(b) the Chief Election Commissioner
(c) the Vice-President
(d) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (a)
Q205. The President can make use of his discretionary powers

1. when there is a dispute between the Prime Minister and the cabinet
2. when there is no majority party in the Lok Sabha and he has to choose a Prime Minister
3. when the ruling party loses its majority in the Lok Sabha.
4. when he decides to refer the advice of the Union Cabinet back for reconsideration Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q206. The President, who is the head of the state under the parliamentary system prevailing in India,

(a) enjoys absolute powers
(b) enjoys limited but real powers
(c) enjoys only nominal powers
(d) enjoys no powers
Ans: (c)
Q207. Under which article of the Indian Constitution can the President be impeached?

(a) Article 356
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 76
(d) Article 61
Ans: (d)
Q208. A member of a Parliament or a state legislature can be elected as President but

(a) he has to resign his seat before contesting theelection
(b) he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected
(c) he has to relinquish his seat within six months of hiselection
(d) a member of Parliament can contest but a memberof state legislature cannot contest
Ans: (b)
Q209. The President of India made use of his veto power only once in

(a) the Hindu Code Bill
(b) the PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
(d) the Dowry Prohibition Bill
Ans: (c)
Q210. An ordinance promulgated by the President usually remains in force for

(a) six months from the date of issue
(b) six weeks from the date of issue
(c) six weeks after the commencement of the nextsession of Parliament
(d) six months after the commencement of the nextsession of Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q211. The President can promulgate an ordinance only when

(a) there is disagreement between the two houses of theParliament
(b) the bill has been pending in the Parliament for overa year
(c) the Parliament is not in session
(d) the bill was sponsored by the President but theParliament refused to pass the same
Ans: (c)
Q212. Proclamation of President’s rule in a state can be made

(a) when a bill introduced by the state government isdefeated in the state legislature
(b) if the President, on receipt of report from thegovernor of the state, is satisfied that a situationis likely to arise in which the government of thestate cannot be carried on in accordance with theprovisions of the Constitution.
(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from thegovernor of the state or otherwise is satisfied that asituation has arisen in which the government of thestate cannot be carried on in accordance with theprovisions of the Constitution
(d) when the governor and the Chief Minister of a statediffer on a vital issue
Ans: (c)
Q213. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as judicial power of the President of India?

(a) he appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of theSupreme Court
(b) He can grant pardon, reprieve and respite to a personawarded punishment
(c) he can consult the Supreme Court on any questionof law or fact
(d) he can remove the judge of a Supreme Court ongrounds of misconduct
Ans: (d)
Q214. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers

(a) at his discretion
(b) with the consent of the Speaker
(c) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q215. The Presidential address is prepared by

(a) the Special Secretary of the President
(b) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(c) a Cabinet Minister of the President’s choice
(d) the Prime Minister and his Cabinet
Ans: (d)
Q216. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?

1. governors of states
2. Chief Justice and judges of High Courts
3. Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court
4. The Vice-President Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (d)
Q217. The President of India is elected on the basis of

(a) proportional representation
(b) proportional representation by a single-transferablevote
(c) single member territorial representation
(d) none of the above methods
Ans: (b)
Q218. Which one of the following was elected President of India unopposed?

(c) Dr Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(d) K R Narayanan
Ans: (c)
Q219. The procedure for the election of the President of India can be modified through an amendment in the Constitution which must be passed by

(a) two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha
(b) two-thirds majority by the Lok Sabha as well as theRajya Sabha
(c) two-thirds majority by the Rajya Sabha
(d) two-thirds majority by both Lok Sabha and RajyaSabha and be ratified by legislatures of at least onehalf of the states
Ans: (d)
Q220. The President can proclaim national emergency only on the written advice of

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Union Cabinet
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q221. The President can impose his rule in a state on account of failure of constitutional machinery under

(a) Article 356
(b) Article 361
(c) Article 371
(d) Article 379
Ans: (a)
Q222. Who is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces of India?

(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Union Defence Minister
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q223. The President can nominate two members of the Lok Sabha to give representation to

(a) the Anglo-Indians
(b) Indian Christians
(c) Buddhists
(d) Parsis
Ans: (a)
Q224. To which of the following bills must the President accord his sanction without sending it back for reconsideration?

(a) Money Bills
(b) Ordinary Bills
(c) bills seeking amendment to the Constitution
(d) bills passed by both the houses of Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q225. For the first time, the President made a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 in

(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1965
(d) 1971
Ans: (b)
Q226. The President made a Proclamation of Emergency on grounds of internal disturbances for the first time in

(a) 1962
(b) 1965
(c) 1975
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q227. Match the following and select the correct code.

List I List II
A. Chairman of 1. Vijai Rai Kayakalp Council
B. Chief of CIC 2. Ratan Tata
(Central Information Commission)
C. Chief of CVC 3. KV Chowdary
(Central Vigilance Commissioner) Code:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 1
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3
Ans: (d)
Q228. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated against the President in either house of Parliament only if a resolution signed by—members of the House is moved.

(a) 10 per cent of total
(b) 25 per cent of total
(c) 20 per cent of total
(d) 15 per cent of total
Ans: (b)
Q229. Two statements, one labelled the Assertion ‘A’ and the other labelled the Reason ‘R’, are given below. Examine these statements carefully and decide if the Assertion ‘A’ and the Reason ‘R’ are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

Assertion (A) : Equality before law is not applicable to the President of India.
Reason (R) : The President of India enjoys special privileges under the Constitution of India.
Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanationof A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not the correctexplanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)
Q230. The value of a vote of a member of Parliament for election of the President of India is determined by dividing the

(a) total population of the country as per the latestcensus by the number of Lok Sabha members
(b) population of country as per the latest census by thetotal strength of the two houses of Parliament
(c) the total value of votes of members of all the statelegislative assemblies divided by the elected membersof the two houses of Parliament,
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q231. After a bill is passed by the Parliament it is sent to the President for his assent, who can return it for reconsideration to the Lok Sabha. But if the bill is repassed by the Parliament and sent to the President for his assent he

(a) has to sign it
(b) can send the bill to the Parliament for reconsiderationfor the second time
(c) can submit the same to the people for referendum
(d) can get it nullified through the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q232. Which one of the following emergencies can be declared by the President only on receipt in writing of the decision of the Union Cabinet?

(a) emergency due to war, external aggression or armedrebellion
(b) emergency due to breakdown of constitutionalmachinery in a state
(c) emergency due to threat to financial stability orcredit of India or any part of the territory thereof
(d) all the above emergencies
Ans: (a)
Q233. The three types of Proclamations of Emergency made by the President have to be placed before each house of Parliament for its approval

(a) within one month
(b) within two months
(c) within six months
(d) within one month in case of national emergencyand within two months in case of emergency dueto break down of constitutional machinery andfinancial emergency
Ans: (d)
Q234. The Vice-President of India is

(a) directly elected by the people
(b) elected by the same electoral college which electsthe President
(c) elected by the members of Lok Sabha and RajyaSabha at a joint sitting
(d) elected by members of Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (c)
Q235. The tenure of the Vice-President is

(a) co-terminus with that of the President
(b) five years
(c) dependent on the will of the President
(d) six years
Ans: (b)
Q236. The Vice-President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term by

(a) the President at his discretion
(b) a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha and agreedby the Lok Sabha
(c) the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority
(d) the President with the consent of the majority of thestate legislatures
Ans: (b)
Q237. Which of the following fact about recently launched Jal Kranti Abhiyan is not correct?

1. Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims at turning one water scared village in each district of the country into water surplus village through water conservation techniques.
2. Under the nationwide campaign, a village with acute water scarcity on a pilot project will be selected as Jal Gram where a comprehensive integrated development plan will be framed and several water conservation activities will be launched.
3. Activities proposed under the campaign include rain water harvesting, recycling of waste water, micro irrigation for using water efficiently and mass awareness program.
4. A cadre of local water professional Jal Mitra will be created and they will be given training to create mass awareness.
5. It will also include cleaning of the rivers and water reservoirs surrounding that village.
Codes
(a) All of the above
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 5
(d) Only 4
Ans: (b)
Q238. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of

(a) the Rajya Sabha
(b) the National Development Council
(c) the Planning Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q239. Match the following lists regarding the recently launched web portals by the government for effective governance and select the correct code List I (Name of the Web Portal) List II (Objective)

A. Khoya Paya (www.
khoyapaya.gov.in)
1. to aid Clean Ganga Mission
B. Bhuvan Ganga(www.
bhuvan.nrsc.gov.in)
2. security related web applications
C. www.MySecurity.gov.
in
3. aims to help trace missing children
D. NOWCAST (www.
farmer.gov.in/ insurance)
4. web portal for farmers that will enable farmers to insure their crops under three schemes.
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (b)
Q240. When the Vice-President discharges the duties of the office of the President, he is entitled to

(a) the salary and allowances attached to the office ofthe President
(b) the salary of Vice-President as well as President
(c) an officiating allowance of Rs 5000 in addition tohis own salary as Vice-President
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q241. Consider the following statements with regard to the Vice-President of India.

1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Vice-President discharges the duties of the President in case his office falls vacant due to death.
3. In the event of the death of the President, the Vice-President assumes the responsibilities of the office of the President for the unexpired term.
4. In the event of the death of the President the Vice-President acts as President for a maximum period of six months.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, and 4 are correct
Ans: (d)
Q242. Among the four pairs given below, which one consists of correct combination of dignitaries who became Vice- Presidents after having held diplomatic positions?

(a) Dr S Radhakrishnan and GS Pathak
(c) Dr S Radhakrishnan and VV Giri
(d) BD Jatti and KR Narayanan
Ans: (a)
Q243. Identify the correct order in which the following acted as Vice-Presidents of India.

Pathak – kataraman – kataraman – kataraman
Ans: (b)
Q244. With regard to the re-election of the Vice-President

(a) the Constitution is absolutely silent
(b) the Constitution places a clear ban
(c) the Constitution permits re-election only once
(d) the Constitution permits re-election for a maximumof two terms
Ans: (a)
Q245. If the Vice-President wishes to resign from his office, he has to address his resignation to

(a) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) the President
(c) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q246. The vacancy in the office of the Vice-President

(a) has to be filled within three months
(b) has to be filled within six months
(c) has to be filled within a year
(d) has to be filled within reasonable time, as there is notime limit prescribed in the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q247. Which one of the following Vice-Presidents resigned from his office to contest for the office of President?

(b) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) VV Giri
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: (c)
Q248. The members of the Council of Ministers are

(a) appointed by the Prime Minister
(b) appointed by the President on the recommendationof the Parliament
(c) appointed by the President on the advice of thePrime Minister
(d) appointed by the President at his discretion
Ans: (c)
Q249. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(a) the President of India
(b) the Lok Sabha
(c) the Prime Minister
(d) the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q250. The portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers are allocated by

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the President in his discretion
(c) the President on the recommendations of the PrimeMinister
(d) the Speaker in consultation with the Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q251. Consider the following statements.

1. The Union Cabinet cleared amendments to the Juvenile Justice Act that would allow juveniles aged between 16 and 18 to be tried as adults for heinous crimes such as murder and rape.
2. The proposed new law gives juvenile Justice Board the power to access whether the perpetrator of a heinous crime aged between 16 and 18, had acted as a ‘child’ or as an ‘adult’.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q252. A person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a member of the Parliament for a maximum period of

(a) one year
(b) six months
(c) three months
(d) one month
Ans: (b)
Q253. The members of the Council of Ministers can be dismissed by the President

(a) on his own
(b) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(c) on the recommendation of the Lok Sabha
(d) on the recommendation of the Speaker of the LokSabha
Ans: (b)
Q254. If a vote of ‘no confidence’ is passed against a Minister

(a) he has to tender his resignation
(b) the whole Council of Ministers has to resign
(c) the minister as well as the Prime Minister have totender their resignation
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q255. Though the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the individual ministers are constitutionally responsible to

(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Speaker
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q256. The Prime Minister is

(a) the head of the state
(b) the head of the government
(c) the head of the state as well as government
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q257. The office of the Prime Minister in India

(a) has been created by the Constitution
(b) is extra-constitutional growth
(c) has been created by a Parliamentary Statute
(d) is the combination of all the above
Ans: (a)
Q258. The Prime Minister is

(a) elected by the Lok Sabha
(b) elected by the two houses of Parliament at a jointsitting
(c) appointed by the President
(d) appointed by the President in consultation with theSpeaker
Ans: (c)
Q259. Generally, the Prime Minister is

(a) the senior most member of the Parliament
(b) the leader of the majority party in the Parliament
(c) a close friend of the President
(d) not a member of Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q260. The Prime Minister holds office

(a) for a fixed term of five years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
(c) as long as he enjoys the confidence of Parliamentespecially the Lok Sabha
(d) as long as he enjoys the confidence of the Councilof Ministers
Ans: (c)
Q261. Which of the following is not the power of the Prime Minister?

(a) Recommend the names of the ministers for appointment
(c) Appoint the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q262. Who enjoys the distinction of having held the office of the Prime Minister for the longest duration?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Ans: (a)
Q263. Which one of the following Prime Ministers never attended the Parliament during his tenure?

(a) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(b) Chandra Shekhar
(c) VP Singh
(d) Choudhary Charan Singh
Ans: (d)
Q264. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Prime Minister of India chooses his ministersonly from members of either house of the Parliament
(b) The Prime Minister chooses his Cabinet colleaguesafter due consultation with the President of India
(c) The Prime Minister has full discretion in the choiceof persons to be included in the Council of Ministers
(d) The Prime Minister has only limited power in thechoice of the Cabinet colleagues because of thediscretionary powers vested with the President
Ans: (c)
Q265. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) a nominated member of the Parliament cannot beappointed as Minister
(b) the leader of the largest party in the Lok Sabha isinvariably appointed as Prime Minister
(c) a person appointed as a minister has to become amember of either house of Parliament within sixmonths
(d) all the above
Ans: (c)
Q266. Match the following and select the correct code List I List II

A. Chairman of the committee on innovation and entrepreneurship of NITI Ayog
1. Bibek Debroy & V.
K. Saraswat
B. Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog
2. Sindhushree Khullar
C. CEO of NITI Aayog 3. Arvind Anagariya D.Full-time members of NITI Aayog
4. Tarun Khanna Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (b)
Q267. If the Prime Minister is taken from the Rajya Sabha

(a) he has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within sixmonths
(b) he can make policy statements only in the RajyaSabha
(c) he cannot take part in the voting when a vote of noconfidenceis under consideration
(d) he cannot take part in the budget deliberations inLok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q268. Which one of the following functions of the Prime Minister has been wrongly listed?

(a) he presides over the meeting of the Cabinet
(b) he prepares the agenda for the meetings of theCabinet
(c) he coordinates the working of various departments
(d) he chairs the meetings of the various standing andad hoc committees of Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q269. Who of the following was a member of Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister?

(a) Charan Singh
(b) Indira Gandhi
(d) Narasimha Rao
Ans: (b)
Q270. The defeat of government in Rajya Sabha leads to

(a) its dismissal by the President
(b) resignation of the Prime Minister
(c) advice by the President to the Prime Minister torelinquish office
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Q271. A motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can be moved in the Lok Sabha if it is supported by at least

(a) 50 members
(b) 55 members
(c) 100 members
(d) one-third of the total members of Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q272. The size of the Council of Ministers

(a) has been specified in the Constitution
(b) is determined by the Prime Minister
(c) is determined by the President
(d) is determined by the Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q273. Which one of the following statements about the Union Council of Ministers is not correct?

(a) it acts as chief advisor to the President
(b) it is responsible for the administration of foreignrelations
(c) it plays a key role in the impeachment of thePresident
(d) it is responsible for the implementation of the centrallaws
Ans: (c)
Q274. Which of the following were not members of Parliament at the time of their appointment as Prime Minister?

1. Indira Gandhi 2. PV Narasimha Rao
3. HD Deve Gowda 4. Moorarji Desai Select the correct answer from the following codes
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q275. The minimum age at which a person can be appointed Prime Minister of India is

(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (b)
Q276. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of

(a) the Planning Commission
(b) the Minorities Commission
(c) the Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q277. Which one of the following Prime Ministers resigned after losing a vote of confidence in the Lok Sabha?

(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Charan Singh
(c) VP Singh
(d) Chandra Shekhar
Ans: (c)
Q278. Consider the following statements regarding a no-confidence motion in the Parliament

1. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one no-confidence motion and another
3. At least 100 members must support a motion of no-confidence before it is introduced in the House
4. A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only Of the above statements
(a) 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans: (a)
Q279. The members of the Council of Ministers

(a) receive a fixed salary as stipulated in the SecondSchedule of the Constitution
(b) receive such salaries as are fixed by the President inconsultation with the Speaker of Lok Sabha and thePrime Minister
(c) receive the same salaries and allowances whichare paid to the members of Parliament plus certainsumptuary allowances
(d) receive a monthly salary of Rs 15,000 and freeaccommodations.
Ans: (c)
Q280. Consider the following statements.

1. The Union government gave the long-pending Goods and Services Tax (GST) Constitution Amendment Bill precedence over the controversial Land Acquisition Bill.
2. The GST Bill’s passage will not require a constitutional amendment, which means a simple majority was required in parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 & 2
Ans: (a)
Q281. The salaries and allowances of the members of the Council of Ministers

(a) have been stipulated in the Constitution
(b) are determined by the President in consultation withthe Prime Minister
(c) are determined by the Parliament from time to time
(d) are fixed by the President in consultation with theSpeaker
Ans: (c)
Q282. The Prime Minister of India occupies a superior position than the British Prime Minister because

(a) his office has been created by the Constitution
(b) the procedure for his removal is much tougher thanthat of the British Prime Minister
(c) his office cannot be abolished
(d) he heads the largest democracy of the world
Ans: (a)
Q283. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister

(a) the Council of Ministers stands automaticallydissolved
(b) the senior most member of the Council of Ministersautomatically becomes the Prime Minister
(c) The Lok Sabha stands automatically dissolved andfresh elections must be held within six months
(d) the President can take any of the above actions
Ans: (a)
Q284. The Parliament of India consists of

(a) the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) the Lok Sabha, Prime Minister and Speaker
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q285. What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha at present?

(a) 500
(b) 545
(c) 550
(d) 525
Ans: (c)
Q286. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Article 15(4): Special provisions for socially andeducationally backward classes of SC and ST.
(b) Article 22(4): Safeguards under Preventive Detention
(c) Article 20(2): Immunity from double punishment
(d) Article 16(4): Discrimination in favour of women inService under the State.
Ans: (d)
Q287. How many seats have been reserved for the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?

(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) none
Ans: (a)
Q288. Seats are allotted to various states in the Lok Sabha on the basis of

(a) their size and resources
(b) their population
(c) their size, resources and population
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q289. Which one of the following states sends maximum representatives to the Lok Sabha?

(c) West Bengal
Ans: (d)
Q290. The 42nd Amendment increased the term of the Lok Sabha from five years to

(a) six years
(b) seven years
(c) nine years
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q291. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended beyond its normal term of five years

(a) by the President at this discretion
(b) by the President on the recommendations of theElection Commission
(c) by the President during all types of emergencies
(d) by the Parliament during national emergency
Ans: (d)
Q292. The Parliament can extend the life of the Lok Sabha during the National Emergency in the first instance for a period of

(a) one month
(b) three months
(c) six months
(d) one year
Ans: (d)
Q293. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is

(a) appointed by the President
(b) appointed by the President on the recommendationsof the Prime Minister
(c) elected by the members of the two houses at a jointsitting
(d) elected by members of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q294. The maximum duration of the zero hour in Lok Sabha can be

(a) 30 minutes
(b) one hour
(c) unspecified
(d) two hours
Ans: (c)
Q295. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal term of five years?

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the President
(c) the President on the recommendation of the PrimeMinister
(d) the President on the recommendation of the Speaker
Ans: (c)
Q296. The President can call a joint session of the two houses of Parliament

(a) if a bill passed by one house is rejected by the other
(b) if the amendment proposed to the bill by one houseis not acceptable to the other house
(c) if the house does not take any action for six monthson a bill remitted by the other house
(d) under all the above conditions
Ans: (d)
Q297. Who presides over the joint sessions of Parliament?

(a) the Vice-President
(b) the Speaker
(c) the President
(d) the Speaker and Vice-President by rotation
Ans: (b)
Q298. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha makes use of his casting vote only

(a) to save the existing government
(b) in case of a tie, viz., when the votes are equallydivided
(c) in case of constitutional amendments,
(d) in case of emergency
Ans: (b)
Q299. Lok Sabha passes vote on account to

(a) meet the expenditure during the period between theintroduction of Budget and its passage.
(b) to meet expenditure on secret services
(c) to enable the government to meet unexpectedexpenditure
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q300. The Lok Sabha secretariat works under the direct supervision of

(a) the Speaker
(b) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(c) the President of India
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q301. A half-an-hour discussion can be raised in the house after giving notice to

(a) the presiding officer
(b) the Secretary General of the House
(c) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) the concerned minister
Ans: (b)
Q302. The Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House of Parliament, has a maximum strength of

(a) 250 members
(b) 225 members
(c) 330 members
(d) 350 members
Ans: (a)
Q303. The members of the Rajya Sabha, except the nominated ones, are

(a) directly elected by the people
(b) elected by local self-governing bodies
(c) elected by the legislative assemblies of the states
(d) elected partially by legislative assemblies and partiallyby the local self-governing bodies
Ans: (c)
Q304. National Institution for Transforming India Aayog is a policy think-tank of Government of India that

(a) replaces Planning Commission
(b) replaces University Grants Commission
(c) replaces Finance Commission
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q305. Which one of the following states sends the maximum number of representative to the Rajya Sabha?

(b) West Bengal
Ans: (d)
Q306. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected

(a) for life
(b) for a term of six years
(c) for a term of five years
(d) for a term of four years
Ans: (b)
Q307. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house but

(a) one-third of its members retire every two years
(b) one-half of its members retire after three years
(c) one-fifth of its members retire every year
(d) one half of its member retire after two years
Ans: (a)
Q308. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, who is the chief of the Lok Sabha Secretariat, is appointed by

(a) the President
(b) the Speaker
(c) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs in Consultationwith the Speaker
(d) a committee of the House, especially constituted forthis purpose
Ans: (b)
Q309. What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of Parliament?

(a) three months
(b) four months
(c) six months
(d) nine months
Ans: (c)
Q310. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(a) is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha
(b) is elected by the members of Lok Sabha and RajyaSabha
(c) is nominated by the President
(d) is elected by the Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q311. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairmanof the Rajya Sabha
(b) the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by thePresident in Consultation with the Prime Minister
(c) the Attorney General of India acts as the Chairmanof the Rajya Sabha, in addition to performing theduties of his office
(d) the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by themembers of Rajya Sabha from amongst themselves
Ans: (a)
Q312. Union Home Ministry has declared entire Nagaland state as a ‘disturbed area’ for one year period with an immediate effect from effect from:

(a) June 30, 2015
(b) June 25, 2015
(c) May 25, 205
(d) April 30, 2015
Ans: (a)
Q313. Who convenes the joint sessions of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?

(a) the Speaker
(b) the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) the President
(d) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (c)
Q314. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be delayed by the Rajya Sabha for a maximum period of

(a) 14 days
(b) one month
(c) two months
(d) three months
Ans: (a)
Q315. What happens if a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is partially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) a joint sitting of the two houses is called to resolvethe differences
(b) the Lok Sabha can proceed with the Bill without theamendments proposed by the Rajya Sabha
(c) the bill lapses
(d) The Lok Sabha has to send the bill for reconsiderationto the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q316. The power to control the expenditure of the Government of India rests exclusively with

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) the Union Finance Minister
Ans: (a)
Q317. A Money Bill can originate

(a) in either house of Parliament
(b) only in the Lok Sabha
(c) only in the Rajya Sabha
(d) only in a joint sitting of the two houses
Ans: (b)
Q318. Which one of the following sets of Bills is presented to the Parliament along with the Budget?

(a) Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill
(b) Finance Bill and Contingency Bill
(c) Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill
(d) Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes Bill
Ans: (c)
Q319. The Council of Ministers has to tender its resignation if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it

(a) by the Lok Sabha
(b) by the Rajya Sabha
(c) by the two houses at a joint sitting
(d) by the two houses of Parliament by two-thirdsmajority
Ans: (a)
Q320. Which of the following powers is exclusively vested in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) to initiate impeachment proceedings against thePresident
(b) to recommend the creation of new All India Services
(c) to remove the Vice-President
(d) all the above powers
Ans: (b)
Q321. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its term by

(a) the President
(b) the Vice-President, who is the ex-officio Chairmanof Rajya Sabha
(c) the President on the recommendations of the UnionCouncil of Ministers
(d) It cannot be dissolved
Ans: (d)
Q322. No taxes can be levied or expenditure incurred without the approval of

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Council of Ministers
(d) all the above
Ans: (b)
Q323. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of members of Parliament?

(a) the President
(b) the concerned house
(c) the Election Commission
(d) the President in Consultation with the ElectionCommission
Ans: (d)
Q324. A member of Parliament enjoys immunity from prosecution for having said anything

(a) during the session of the Parliament anywhere
(b) in the Parliament and its committees
(c) at a Press Conference
(d) at any of the above places
Ans: (b)
Q325. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) select Parliamentary Committee
Ans: (a)
Q326. Which of the following bodies is presided over by a non-member?

(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) state legislative assembly
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q327. The Parliament of India cannot be considered a sovereign body because

(a) its authority is confined to jurisdiction earmarked bythe Constitution
(b) laws passed by the Parliament can be declaredunconstitutional by the Supreme Court
(c) of the presence of certain Fundamental Rights ofcitizens in the Constitution
(d) of all the above factors
Ans: (d)
Q328. The final decision whether a member of the Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification under the Defection Law rests with

(a) the Speaker
(b) the Election Commission
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) the President
Ans: (a)
Q329. Which Indian state has launched the Village Monitoring Project (VMP) to uplift villagers?

(a) Kerala
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Haryana
(d) Punjab
Ans: (c)
Q330. In case of differences between the two houses of Parliament over a bill, a joint session of the two houses is held where decision is taken by majority vote. In case there is a tie (votes in favour and against a bill are equal) how is the same resolved?

(a) the bill is again submitted to vote of the two housesat a joint sitting after a gap of four weeks
(b) the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can make use ofhis casting vote
(c) the Speaker can make use of his casting vote
(d) The bill is shelved for the session and taken up forconsideration at the next session afresh
Ans: (c)
Q331. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of the Indian Parliament

1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President.
2. Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution.
3. The laws enacted by the Parliament can be declared as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court if they contravene the provisions of the Constitution.
4. The authority of the Parliament is restrained due to grant of certain Fundamental rights to the citizens by the Constitution.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: (d)
Q332. The Parliament or a state legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for

(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
Ans: (b)
Q333. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available?

(a) a member nominated by the President
(b) a member chosen by the Council of Ministers
(c) a member of the panel of Chairmen announced bythe Speaker
(d) the senior-most member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q334. A member of Parliament can be disqualified on grounds of defection

1. If he voluntarily resigns from the membership of the political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to directions issued by the political party without prior permission
3. If he takes a stand contrary to the stand of the party.
4. If he joins a political party other than the one on whose ticket he contested the election and got elected Select the correct answer from the following codes.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q335. The function of the Pro-Temp Speaker is to

(a) conduct the proceedings of the house in the absenceof the Speaker
(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely tobe elected
(c) swear-in members and hold charge till a regularSpeaker is elected
(d) Checks if the election certificates of the membersare in order
Ans: (c)
Q336. Which one of the following are the financial committees of Parliament in India?

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (d)
Q337. What changes does the current government want to make in its amendment-by-ordinance to the Land Acquisition Act, 2013?

(a) Under the previous Land Acquisition Act of 1894,once land was acquired by the State and compensationwas paid, the land belonged to the State.
(b) If the State did not go ahead with the project theywere meant to and the land lay fallow
(c) it would not be returned to the person from whom itwas acquired – it remained State property.
(d) All of the these
Ans: (d)
Q338. Which of the following Lok Sabhas enjoyed a term of more than five years?

(a) Fourth Lok Sabha
(b) Fifth Lok Sabha
(c) Sixth Lok Sabha
(d) Eighth Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q339. The differences between the two houses of Parliament are resolved through

(a) a joint session of the two houses
(b) mediatory efforts of the officers of the two houses
(c) a joint committee of the two houses, speciallyconstituted for this purpose
(d) the mediation of Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (a)
Q340. The quorum or minimum number of members required to hold the meeting of either house of Parliament is _____

(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-fifth
(d) one-tenth
Ans: (d)
Q341. Which of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior approval of the President?

(a) Money Bills
(b) bill pertaining to impeachment of President
(c) bill pertaining to powers of the Supreme Court
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q342. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q343. Who of the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Hukum Singh
(b) GS Dhillon
(c) GV Mavalankar
(d) Ananthaswayanam Ayenger
Ans: (c)
Q344. Question Hour in the Parliament refers to

(a) the lunch hour after the sitting
(b) the last hour of the sitting
(c) the first hour of the sitting
(d) the second hour of the sitting
Ans: (c)
Q345. Which of the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee are correct?

1. No member of the Rajya Sabha is associated with it.
2. It has 20 members.
3. Its members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation for a period of one year.
4. The Speaker nominates one of its members to be its Chairman.
Choose the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q346. Which of the following committees comprises of members of Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) The Estimates Committee
(d) (a) and (b)
Ans: (d)
Q347. Bibek Debroy committee report is related to which of the following?

(a) Financial inclusion
(b) Restructuring the railways
(d) Coastal area management
Ans: (b)
Q348. The power to prorogue the Lok Sabha rests with

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the President
(c) the Speaker
(d) The Rules Committee of Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q349. Which of the following states sends the largest number of members to Lok Sabha after Uttar Pradesh?

(a) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q350. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, any billpending in the Lok Sabha lapses.
(b) In the event of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, any billpassed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the RajyaSabha lapses.
(c) In the event of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha anybill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but passed by theLok Sabha, does not lapse
(d) In the event of the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, anybill pending in the Rajya Sabha, but not passed by theLok Sabha, lapses
Ans: (d)
Q351. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha addresses his letter of resignation to

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) the President
(d) the Vice-President
Ans: (b)
Q352. Which of the following statements correctly describes ‘a hung Parliament’?

(a) A Parliament in which no party has a clear majority
(b) The Prime Minister has resigned but the Parliamentis not dissolved
(c) The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business
(d) A lame duck Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q353. Which of the following programme has been recently ranked as the world’s largest public works programme by the World Bank?

(a) NREGA
(b) MGNREGA
(c) Antyodaya Yojana
(d) Food for Work programme?
Ans: (b)
Q354. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected by theelected members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over thejoint session of both houses of Parliament
(c) The electoral college for the election of theVice-President is the same as that for the electionof the President
(d) The nominated members of both houses of Parliamenthave voting right in the election of the Vice-President but not in the election of the President
Ans: (d)
Q355. Under the new Committee system launched in April

1993, out of the 17 standing committees
(a) six are constituted by the Chairman of the RajyaSabha and 11 by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) five are constituted by the Chairman of the RajyaSabha and 12 by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) eight are constituted by the Chairman of the RajyaSabha and nine by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) all the committees are constituted jointly by theChairman of the Rajya Sabha and Speaker of theLok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q356. The term ‘closure’ in Parliamentary terminology implies

(a) the end of session of Parliament
(b) stoppage of debate on a motion
(c) end of the day’s proceedings
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q357. Which of the following committees of Parliament is concerned with the regularity and economy of expenditure?

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q358. Which of the following committees has associate members from the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Privileges
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q359. Assertion (A): If the Budget presented to the Rajya Sabha is not passed within the stipulated period, the Budget proposals are not affected Reason (R): In financial maters the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha

(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanationof A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correctexplanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)
Q360. Which one of the following is the correct definition of the term ‘whip’?

(a) A situation in which all the members of a politicalparty attend the session of Parliament but need notparticipate in the voting
(b) a document published by the government, containingfull information on an issue of national importance,presented to the Parliament
(c) state in which all the members of the political partyare required to be present in the Parliament and voteaccording to the instructions of the party
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q361. At present, various states have been allocated seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of

(a) 1951 Census
(b) 1961 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1981 Census
Ans: (c)
Q362. Which of the following parliamentary committee scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) the Estimates Committee
(b) the Public Accounts Committee
(c) the Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) all the above
Ans: (b)
Q363. Who among the following may belong to the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(a) ministers who are member of the Rajya Sabha
(b) nominated members of the Rajya Sabha who areexperts of a particular field
(c) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) the leader of the house in the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q364. Which of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?

(a) he holds office during the pleasure of the President
(b) He need not be a member of the house at the timeof election as Speaker, but must become a memberof the house within six months of the date of hiselection
(c) he loses his office if the house is dissolved beforethe end of the normal tenure
(d) if he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation isto be addressed to the Deputy Speaker
Ans: (d)
Q365. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) the term of the Lok Sabha cannot be extendedbeyond five years
(b) the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by thePresident with the consent of the Speaker for anunlimited period
(c) the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by thePresident for a full term of five years
(d) the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by oneyear at a time
Ans: (d)
Q366. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog.

1. Cabinet resolution to replace Planning Commission by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) came into effect on 1 January 2015.
2. The present Special Invitees of NITI Aayog are Rahul Gandhi, Sitaram Yetchury and Thawar Chand Gehlot.
Which of the following is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q367. When a bill is considered by the two houses of Parliament at a joint sitting, the decision is taken by

(a) simple majority
(b) two-thirds majority
(c) majority of each house separately
(d) absolute majority of total membership
Ans: (a)
Q368. Which of the following is the Indian contribution to Parliamentary Procedures?

(b) Cut Motion
(d) Guillotine
Ans: (c)
Q369. How many seats are reserved for the members of the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?

(a) 27
(b) 37
(c) 47
(d) 57
Ans: (c)
Q370. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its term by

(a) the President at his discretion
(b) the President on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) the Prime Minister in consultation with the Speaker
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q371. Lok Sabha is superior to the Rajya Sabha because

(a) it is directly elected
(b) it alone controls the finances
(c) it can oust the Council of Ministers through a voteof no-confidence
(d) of all the above reasons
Ans: (d)
Q372. A Select or Joint Committee of the two houses of Parliament is formed by

(a) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chairman of theRajya Sabha jointly
(c) the Speaker in consultation with the President
(d) the Speaker in consultation with the Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q373. Which of the following has been wrongly listed as a Standing Joint Committee of the two houses of Parliament.

(a) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes andScheduled Tribes
(b) Committee on Offices of Profit
(c) Committee on Government Assurances
(d) Committee on Salaries and Allowances of membersof Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q374. The Parliamentary Subject Committees were introduced in 1993 on the recommendation of

(a) the Rules Committee of the House
(b) the Joint Parliamentary Committee set up in 1990
(c) the leaders of all the political parties represented inthe Parliament
(d) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (a)
Q375. How many Standing Committees were set up by the Parliament in 1993 to scrutinise the grants of various ministries?

(a) 11
(b) 13
(c) 17
(d) 21
Ans: (c)
Q376. Each Standing Committee of Parliament for scrutiny of grants of various ministries comprises of

(a) 20 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of RajyaSabha
(b) 30 members of Lok Sabha and 15 members of RajyaSabha
(c) 25 members of Lok Sabha and 10 members of RajyaSabha
(d) 10 members of Lok Sabha and 5 members of RajyaSabha
Ans: (b)
Q377. The main advantage of the Standing Committee is

(a) The Parliament is able to examine the grants of allministriesand departments in detail.
(b) The Parliament is able to concentrate on theexamination of demands of some ministries.
(c) The Parliament is absolved of the responsibility ofexamining the grants of the ministries and departments.
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (a)
Q378. The Standing Committee, apart from examining the grants of all ministries and departments, are able to examine

(a) bills of technical nature
(b) annual reports of ministries and departments
(c) long-term policies
(d) all the above.
Ans: (d)
Q379. One of the main advantage of the Standing Committee is

(a) members of Council of Ministers are able to serveon the standing committees
(b) members of the Rajya Sabha are able to exerciseindirect control over financial matters
(c) discussion on the Budget is held simultaneously inthe Parliament and the standing committees
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q380. Which of the following committees of Parliament has the largest membership?

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (b)
Q381. Of the following, who ensures that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India without the authority of the Parliament?

(a) The Finance Commission
(b) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) the Attorney General
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q382. Which among the following political party of India has an election symbol almost close to the election symbol of Republican Party of USA?

(b) Bahujan Samaj party
(c) Janta Dal (United)
(d) Telugudesam Party
Ans: (b)
Q383. The Supreme Court of India was set up

(a) by the Constitution
(b) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(c) through an Act of Parliament in 1950
(d) under the Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (a)
Q384. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and

(a) Seven judges
(b) nine judges
(c) 11 judges
(d) 30 judges
Ans: (d)
Q385. The judges of the Supreme Court are

(a) elected by the Parliament
(b) appointed by the President on the advice of theParliament
(c) appointed by the President on the advice of thePrime Minister
(d) appointed by the President on the advice of the ChiefJustice of India.
Ans: (d)
Q386. The judges of the Supreme Court hold office till they attain the age of

(a) 62 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 70 years
(d) there is no age limit
Ans: (b)
Q387. The Supreme Court holds its meetings at New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere

(a) if a majority of judges of Supreme Court so decide
(b) with the approval of the Parliament
(c) with the approval of the President
(d) on the request of the state legislature
Ans: (c)
Q388. The Constitution has tried to ensure the independence of judges of the Supreme Court by

(a) charging their salaries and allowances on theConsolidated Fund of India
(b) making removal of judges quite difficult
(c) debarring judges from carrying on practice beforeany court in India after retirement
(d) all these provisions
Ans: (d)
Q389. The salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure that

(a) they dispense justice impartially
(b) they get their salaries regularly
(c) the Parliament does not reduce their salaries due topolitical considerations
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q390. The judges of the Supreme Court, after retirement, are not permitted to carry on practice before

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the High Courts
(c) the district and session courts
(d) any of the above
Ans: (d)
Q391. Which of the following jurisdictions of the Supreme Court of India has been wrongly listed?

(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
Ans: (d)
Q392. The judges of the Supreme Court

(a) cannot be removed from office during their tenure
(b) can be removed from office by the President at hisdiscretion
(c) can be removed by the President on therecommendation of the Parliament
(d) can be removed by the President on the recommendationof the Council of Ministers
Ans: (c)
Q393. The Supreme Court of India is a court of record, which implies that

(a) it has to keep a record of all its decisions
(b) all the decisions have evidentiary value and cannotbe questioned in any court
(c) it has the power to punish for its contempt
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Q394. The Supreme Court tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact.

(a) on its own
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to Fundamental Rights ofcitizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity andintegrity of the country
Ans: (b)
Q395. The advice of the Supreme Court is

(a) binding on the President
(b) not binding on the President
(c) binding on the President if it is tendered unanimously
(d) binding in certain cases and not binding in othercases.
Ans: (b)
Q396. The cases involving an interpretation of the Constitution fall within the

(a) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(b) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(c) Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(d) none of these jurisdiction.
Ans: (a)
Q397. In India, power of judicial review is restricted because

(a) the Executive is supreme
(b) the Legislature is supreme
(c) the Constitution is supreme
(d) the judges are transferrable
Ans: (c)
Q398. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of judicial review which implies that it can

(a) review the working of the subordinate courts
(b) review its own judgements
(c) initiate cases at its own discretion
(d) declare the laws passed by the legislature and ordersissued by the executive as unconstitutional if theycontravene any provision of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q399. The power of judicial review in India is

(a) explicit
(b) implicit
(c) given by the President
(d) given by the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q400. The doctrine of judicial review is adopted in India

(a) to ensure proper working of the parliamentarysystem of government
(b) to ensure smooth functioning of the Constitution.
(c) to overcome the limitations of a rigid Constitution
(d) on account of all these factors
Ans: (b)
Q401. Which ONE of the following statements is correct with regard to the office of the Attorney – General of India?

(a) He shall have the right of audience in all the Courtswithin the territory of India.
(b) He shall perform his duties only in the SupremeCourt
(c) He enjoys a fixed tenure
(d) The President appoints a person who is qualifiedto be a judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney-General to India.
Ans: (a)
Q402. The concept of Public Interest Litigation, which has become quite popular in India in recent years, originated in

(a) the United Kingdom
(b) the United States
(c) Australia
Ans: (a)
Q403. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Asertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of court orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts to contempt of court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptious behaviour.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanationof A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correctexplanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q404. Which of the following amendments curtailed the Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review?

(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 29th Amendment
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q405. The concept of ‘judicial activism’ gained currency in India during

(a) the 1960s
(b) the 1970s
(c) the 1980s
(d) the 1990s
Ans: (d)
Q406. Judicial activism has led to increase in the powers of

(a) the executive
(b) the legislature
(c) the judiciary
(d) all the above organs
Ans: (c)
Q407. Judicial activism has enhanced the powers and prestige of

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the political parties
(c) the President
(d) the Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q408. Which of the following defects of judicial activism has been wrongly listed?

(a) it has added to the arrears of the courts because thecourts have tended to entertain public interest litigationseven on trivial matters
(b) the courts have tended to assume a positive policymakingrole which has actually been assigned by theConstitution to the representatives of the people
(c) it has greatly undermined the position of the judiciary
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q409. Ad hoc judges can be appointed in the Supreme Court

(a) by the President on the advice of the Union LawMinister.
(b) by the Chief Justice of India after consulting otherjudges
(c) by the Chief Justice of India with the prior consentof the President.
(d) by the Union Law Minister, but such appointmentsmust be ratified by the Parliament within two months
Ans: (c)
Q410. How many judges of the Supreme Court have been removed from their office before the expiry of their normal term through impeachment

(a) only one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) none
Ans: (d)
Q411. Which of the following conditions does not contribute to the independence of the judiciary in India?

(a) No change in salary and service condition of judgescan be made which operates against their interestafter their appointment.
(b) Once appointed, the judges cannot be removed fromtheir office before the date of retirement.
(c) The salary and allowances of the judges are chargedto the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subjectto Parliamentary vote.
(d) Retired judges are not permitted to carry on practicebefore any court or tribunal in India.
Ans: (b)
Q412. Which of the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India is not correct?

(a) It acts as the guardian of the liberties of the peopleof India.
(b) It acts as the guardian of the Constitution.
(c) It acts as the protector of the Directive Principles ofState Policy.
(d) It has final power to investigate disputes regardingelection of the President and the Vice-President.
Ans: (c)
Q413. Which group of judges took interest in Public Interest Litigation?

(a) Kania and Sastri
(b) Ray and Beg
(c) Bhagwati and Krishna Iyer
(d) Shah and Sikri
Ans: (c)
Q414. Which of the following judges of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully sought to be impeached

(a) Justice HR Khanna
(d) Justice Ramaswamy(c) Justice Wanchoo
Ans: (b)
Q415. Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Courts and the Supreme Court?

(a) disputes between the Centre and the States
(b) disputes between the states inter se
(c) protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) protection against violation of the Constitution.
Ans: (c)
Q416. Which of the following has been wrongly listed as criteria for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court

(a) must have been a judge of a High Court for atleastfive years
(b) must have been an advocate of a High Court for notless than 10 years
(c) must have attained the age of 55 years
(d) must, in the opinion of the President, be a distinguishedjurist(e) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q417. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgement or order?

(a) Article 130
(b) Article 137
(c) Article 138
(d) Article 139
Ans: (b)
Q418. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of Judicial Review Reason (R): The Supreme Court of India is obliged to enforce the laws enacted by the Parliament without going into their constitutionality.

(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanationof A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correctexplanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)
Q419. Consider the following statements with regard to the Supreme Court of India.

1. The Supreme Court has been created under the Constitution of India.
2. The Supreme Court at present comprises of a Chief Justice and 30 other judges.
3. The Supreme Court has its permanent seat at New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere if the Chief Justice of India so decides in consultation with the President of India.
4. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends over disputes between India and foreign countries.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: (b)
Q420. The theory of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ implies

(a) that certain features of the Constitution are so basicto the Constitution that they cannot be abrogated.
(b) those features of the Constitution which can bechanged by the Parliament with the prior approvalof the majority of the state legislatures
(c) those features of the Constitution which can bechanged only after seeking prior approval of themajority of the judges of the Supreme Court
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q421. At present, the Chief Justice of India draws a monthly salary of

(a) Rs 75,000
(b) Rs 80,000
(c) Rs 1,00,000
(d) Rs 90,000
Ans: (c)
Q422. Narendra Modi mentioned to replace Planning Commission by National Development and Reform Commission (NDRC) on the line of

(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Brazil
(d) Look east policy
Ans: (a)
Q423. The Supreme Court propounded the theory of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ in

(a) Gopalan v. State of Madras case
(b) Golak Nath case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (c)
Q424. The judges of the Supreme Court have to take an oath or affirmation before entering upon their office, which is conducted to them by

(a) the President
(b) the Cheif Justice of India
(c) the Vice-President
(d) the Attorney General of India
Ans: (a)
Q425. A judge of the Supreme Court can relinquish office before the completion of his tenure by addressing his resignation to

(a) the President
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) the Union Law Minister
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q426. Who of the following is the executive head of a state?

(a) the Chief Minister
(b) the Governor
(c) the President
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q427. The Governor of a state is

(a) elected by the state legislature
(b) nominated by the Prime Minister
(c) appointed by the President
(d) appointed by a Special Committee constituted forthis purpose
Ans: (c)
Q428. Generally, the Governor belongs to

(a) the state where he is posted
(b) some other state
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q429. The Governor of a state holds office

(a) during the pleasure of the President
(b) as long as he enjoys the confidence of the ChiefMinister
(c) as long as he enjoys the confidence of the statecouncil of ministers
(d) as long as he enjoys the confidence of the statelegislature.
Ans: (a)
Q430. As a matter of convention, while appointing the Governor of a state, the President consults

(a) the Chief Minister of the state
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) the State Council of Ministers
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q431. If the Governor of a state wishes to relinquish his office before the expiry of his term, he has to address his resignation to

(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Union Home Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: (a)
Q432. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to

(a) the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) the Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) the Contingency Fund of India
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q433. Which one of the following procedures is valid for passing a Constitutional amendment seeking abolition of the Vidhan Parishad ?

(a) Resolution in the Rajya Sabha and consent of eachhouse of the Parliament by majority of the memberspresent and voting.
(b) Resolution in the Vidhan Sabha by a majority ofthe total membership of the house and by majorityof not less than two-thirds of the members of thehouse present and voting, followed by consent ofeach house of the Parliament by the majority of themembers present and voting.
(c) Resolution in either house of the Parliament andconsent of each house of Parliament by absolutemajority of the whole house, coupled with two-thirdsmajority of the members present and voting.
(d) Resolution in the Vidhan Parishad and consent ofthe Vidhan Sabha by simple majority, followedby consent of the each house of the Parliament bysimple majority.
Ans: (b)
Q434. When a person acts as Governor of more than one state his salary is

(a) paid by the Union Government
(b) shared by the concerned states
(c) charged to the Consolidated Fund of India
(d) paid by the state named by the President
Ans: (b)
Q435. Which of the following legislative powers is enjoyed by the Governor of a state?

(a) he can summon or prorogue the state legislature
(b) he can nominate certain members of the legislativecouncil
(c) he can nominate certain members of the Anglo-Indiancommunity to the legislative assembly
(d) all the above powers
Ans: (d)
Q436. In the event of the death or resignation of the Governor, the duties of his office are discharged by

(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) the Chief Minister
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q437. The Governor of a state can issue ordinances

(a) only in the event of breakdown of constitutional machineryin the state
(b) only when the Chief Minister asks him to do so
(c) only during the recess of the State legislature
(d) only after taking formal approval of the President
Ans: (c)
Q438. The Ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by

(a) the President
(b) the state council of ministers
(c) the state legislature
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q439. The Contingency Fund of the state is operated by

(a) the Governor
(b) the State Finance Minister
(c) the Chief Minister
(d) all the above jointly
Ans: (a)
Q440. As per Article 124A, National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) is a

(a) 6 member constitutional body
(b) 5 member constitutional body
(c) 10 member constitutional body
(d) 9 member constitutional body
Ans: (a)
Q441. Unless approved by the state legislature, an ordinance issued by the Governor remains in force for a maximum period of

(a) one year
(b) three months
(c) six months
(d) two years
Ans: (c)
Q442. Which of the following falls within the discretionary powers of the Governor?

(a) he can appoint any person as Chief Minister, ifthe majority party in the state legislature has noacknowledged leader
(b) he can dismiss the council of ministers if he isconvinced that it has lost majority support
(c) he can reserve a bill passed by the state legislaturefor the assent of the President
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q443. The Governor of a state is administered the oath of office by

(a) the Chief Justice of India
(b) the Chief Justice of the State High Court
(c) the President
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q444. The Governor can recommend imposition of President’s rule in the state

(a) at his discretion
(b) on the recommendation of the state council ofministers
(c) on the recommendations of the state legislature
(d) only on demand from the President
Ans: (a)
Q445. Which of the following judicial powers of the Governor has been wrongly listed?

(a) he is consulted by the President while appointingjudges of the High Court of the State
(b) he can remit, or suspend a sentence
(c) he can grant pardon in case of court martial
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q446. Which kind of bills can be reserved by the Governor for the assent of the President?

(a) all bills passed by the state legislature
(b) only certain types of bills passed by the statelegislature
(c) none of the bills passed by the state legislature canbe reserved
(d) only financial bills
Ans: (b)
Q447. The Governor of which of the following states has been vested with special powers regarding Scheduled Tribes?

(a) Bihar
(c) Assam
Ans: (b)
Q448. Consider the following statements regarding the Governor of a state.

1. The Governor is the constitutional head of the state.
2. The Governor always acts as an agent of the centre.
3. The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature.
4. The Governor appoints the judges of the High Court.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: (a)
Q449. Who of the following ladies served as Chief Ministers in different states of India?

1. Janaki Ramachandran
2. Nandini Satpathy
3. Rajinder Kaur Bhattal
4. Syeda Anwar Taimur Select the correct answer using following codes
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q450. The Sarkaria Commission favoured

(a) abolition of the office of the governor
(b) selection of the Governor of a State by the Presidentfrom a panel of names given by the concerned stategovernments
(c) retention of the office of the Governor
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q451. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion

(A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A): The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Governor for a state for a period of five years.
Reason (R): The governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanationof A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanationof A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q452. Which of the following powers is available to the President but not to the Governor of a state?

1. power to grant pardon in case of death sentence
2. diplomatic powers
3. power to veto the bills passed by the state legislature
4. power to declare emergency Select the correct answer from the following codes:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q453. The Chief Minister, who is the head of the government in a state, is

(a) elected by the state legislature
(b) appointed by the governor
(c) appointed by the President
(d) appointed by the governor on the advice of ChiefJustice of the High Court.
Ans: (b)
Q454. The person who is appointed as Chief Minister

(a) should not be a member of either house of statelegislature
(b) must be a member of either house of state legisalature
(c) must possess the qualifications to be elected asmember of state legislature but not be a member ofthe legislature
(d) should be a member of the legislative council only
Ans: (b)
Q455. Which of the following statements about the right to freedom of religion is NOT correct?

(a) The state can regulate the economic, financial,political or other secular activities which may beassociated with religious practices.
(b) Restrictions can be imposed on the right to freedomof religion on grounds of maintenance of publicorder, morality or health.
(c) Every religious denomination has the right toestablish and maintain institutions for religious andcharitable purposes.
(d) Funds appropriated by a religious denomination forpromoting and maintaining a particular religion aretaxable.
Ans: (b)
Q456. A member of the council of ministers can hold office without being a member of the state legislature for a maximum period of

(a) three months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) two years
Ans: (b)
Q457. The portfolios to the various members of the council of ministers in a state are allocated by

(a) the Governor
(b) the Chief Minister
(c) the Speaker of legislative assembly
(d) The Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Ans: (d)
Q458. The salaries and allowances of the members of the council of ministers in a state are determined by

(a) the state legislature
(b) the Governor in consultation with President
(c) the Parliament
(d) the Governor in consultation with the state legislature.
Ans: (a)
Q459. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the state legislatures is essential.
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q460. Who among the following enjoys the distinction of being the first woman Dalit Chief Minister of a state?

(a) Nandani Satpati
(c) Mayawati
(d) Sarojani Naidu
Ans: (c)
Q461. In the event of the death or resignation of a Chief Minister

(a) the senior most member of the council of ministerstakes over as the Chief Minister
(b) the Chief Justice of the High Court assumes theduties of Chief Minister
(c) the council of ministers automatically standsdissolved
(d) the Governor immediately appoints a new ChiefMinister
Ans: (c)
Q462. The council of ministers of an Indian state is collectively responsible to

(a) the legislative assembly
(b) the legislative council
(c) both the houses of the state legislature
(d) the Governor
Ans: (a)
Q463. Consider the following statements.

1. Adopting an inclusive approach in education, the Calcutta University here has included a separate column for the third gender in its admission forms for this year.
2. In a landmark ruling last year, the Supreme Court recognized transgenders as the third gender.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 & 2
Ans: (b)
Q464. Who among the following enjoys the distinction of serving as the Chief Minister of a state in India for the longest period?

(a) BD Jatti
(b) Jyoti Basu
(d) Bhajan Lal
Ans: (b)
Q465. The Chief Minister of a state can be removed if

1. a no-confidence motion is passed by the legislative assembly
2. a no-confidence motion is passed by both the houses of the state legislature
3. a resolution is passed by two-third of the members of the legislative council or the Rajya Sabha
4. in the opinion of the Governor, there is a break down of constitutional machinery in the state Choose the correct answer from the following codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q466. Who administers the oath of office to the members of council of ministers in a state?

(a) the Governor
(b) the Chief Justice of the State High Court
(c) the Attorney General of the state
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q467. The Chief Minister of a state can get rid of any member of his council of ministers by

(a) asking him to tender his resignation
(b) getting him dismissed through the Governor
(c) dropping him from the council by reshuffling thesame
(d) all the above methods
Ans: (d)
Q468. Some of the Indian states have bi-cameral legislatures.

The names of the two houses of state legislature are
(a) Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council
(b) Sabha and Samiti
(c) Lok Sabha and Legislative Council
(d) the Legislative Assembly and Senate
Ans: (a)
Q469. The Jammu & Kashmir legislative council has the following number of members

(a) 40
(b) 90
(c) 60
(d) 36
Ans: (d)
Q470. The legislative council in a state can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of

(a) the Governor
(b) the state legislative assemby
(c) the President
(d) none for the above
Ans: (b)
Q471. Which of the following pairs are NOT correctly matched?

(1) Call Attention Motion: To draw attention of the minister on a matter of urgent public importance.
(2) Adjournment Motion: To adjourn the house before the expiry of the time
(3) Privilege Motion: To draw attention of the Speaker towards incorrect / incomplete answer by a minister
(4) Cut Motion: Move a proposal to reduce expenditure in the Budget Proposals.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q472. The members of the legislative assembly are

(a) elected by the people
(b) elected by the local bodies
(c) nominated by the Governor
(d) returned through all three methods
Ans: (a)
Q473. Which one to the following statements related to Money Bill is NOT correct ?

(a) It cannot be introduced in the Council of States
(b) If any question arises whether the bill is Money Billor not, the decision of the Lok Sabha Speaker isfinal.
(c) In case of a deadlock over a Money Bill, the Presidentcan summon a joint sitting of Parliament.
(d) A Money Bill cannot be introduced except on therecommendation of the President.
Ans: (c)
Q474. Which of the following states/union territory has a legislative assembly consisting of only 30 members?

(a) Pondicherry
(b) Mizoram
(c) Goa
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q475. Money bills can be introduced in the state legislature with the prior consent of

(a) the Speaker
(b) the Chief Minister
(c) the Governor
(d) the President
Ans: (c)
Q476. Members of the state legislature can focus the attention of the government on matters of public importance through

(a) no-confidence motion
(b) censure motion
(c) cut motion
Ans: (d)
Q477. A money bill can be introduced in the state

(a) in either house of the state legislature
(b) only in the legislative assembly
(c) only in the legislative council
(d) in both the houses at a joint sitting
Ans: (b)
Q478. In December 2005, the Parliament passed a bill which seeks to revive the Legislative Council in

(c) Bihar
(d) All the above states
Ans: (a)
Q479. The maximum strength of the elected members in a state legislative assembly can be

(a) 250
(b) 300
(c) 450
(d) 500
Ans: (d)
Q480. The strength of the legislative council of a state cannot exceed _____ of the membership of the legislative assembly.

(a) one-half
(b) one-third
(c) one-fourth
(d) one-fifth
Ans: (b)
Q481. The legislative council of a state is

(a) elected for a term of four years
(b) elected for a term of five years
(c) a permanent house, and is not subject to dissolution
(d) elected for a term of six years
Ans: (c)
Q482. The chairman of the legislative council is

(a) appointed by the governor
(b) elected by the members of legislative council
(c) an ex-officio presiding officer
(d) appointed by the speaker of legislative assembly
Ans: (b)
Q483. The members of the state legislative assembly participate in the election of

(a) the President
(b) the Vice-President
(c) Members of the legislative council
(d) both (a) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Q484. Usually each state has a High Court, but a common High Court for two or more states or for two or more states and union territories can be established by

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) all the above jointly.
Ans: (a)
Q485. Generally, the High Court of a state consists of a Chief Justice and

(a) nine other judges
(b) 11 other judges
(c) such other judges as may be determined by theParliament
(d) such other judges as may be determined by thePresident
Ans: (d)
Q486. Which of the following states/union territories have a common High Court?

(b) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir,
(c) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(d) Assam and Bengal
Ans: (c)
Q487. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by

(a) the President
(b) the Governor of the state
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the President in consultation with the Chief Justiceof India and the Governor of the state
Ans: (d)
Q488. The judges of the High Court are appointed by the President in consultation with

(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) the Governor of the state
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q489. The Finance Commission is constituted to recommend criteria for:

(a) Framing a finance bill
(b) Preparing the annual budget of Union government
(c) Distribution of financial resources between Unionand the states
(d) Auditing the receipts and expenditures of the UnionGovt.
Ans: (c)
Q490. Judges of the High Court can be removed from office before expiry of their term by the President

(a) at his discretion
(b) on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of theHigh Court
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister of thestate
(d) on a request of Parliament made through a resolutionpassed by a two-third majority of its members
Ans: (d)
Q491. The Chief Justice of a High Court receives a monthly salary of

(a) 75,000
(b) 80,000
(c) 85,000
(d) 1,00,000
Ans: (d)
Q492. The ordinary Judges of High Courts receive a monthly salary of

(a) Rs 70,000
(b) Rs 75,000
(c) Rs 90,000
(d) Rs 80,000
Ans: (d)
Q493. The salaries and allowances of the High Court judges are charged to

(a) the Consolidated Fund of the State
(b) the Consolidated Fund of India
(c) the Contingency Fund of India
(d) the Consolidated Fund of India and the ConsolidatedFund of the State in equal proportion
Ans: (a)
Q494. The pension of the judges of the High Court is charged to

(a) the Consolidated Fund of the State where he lastserved
(b) the Contingency Fund of India
(c) the Consolidated Fund of India
(d) none of the above funds
Ans: (c)
Q495. The jurisdiction of the High Court can be extended or restricted by

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the legislature of the concerned state
Ans: (b)
Q496. The High Courts are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under

(a) Article 225
(b) Article 226
(c) Article 227
(d) Article 228
Ans: (b)
Q497. Under which of the following writs can the High Court direct public official or the government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional?

(a) Certiorari
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Mandamus
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (d)
Q498. The High Court of a State is directly under

(a) the President
(b) the Supreme Court of India
(c) the Governor of the state
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
Q499. The number of judges of High Court is determined by

(a) the Chief Justice of India
(b) the President of India
(c) the Governor of the state
(d) the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q500. On what ground can a judge of a High Court be removed?

(a) proved misbehaviour or incapacity
(b) insolvency
(c) insanity
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q501. That India is a union of states means

(a) It is more centralised
(b) It is more decentralised
(c) It is a confederation
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q502. The Indian federal system is modelled on the federal system of

(a) USA
Ans: (b)
Q503. A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of

(a) relations between Centre and States
(b) relations between the executive and the legislature
(c) relations between three organs of government
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q504. Which one of the following statements regarding distribution of powers between the Centre and the States is correct?

(a) powers have been divided into three lists
(b) powers of the Centre have been specified and theremaining powers have been allotted to the States
(c) powers of the States have been specified in theConstitution and the remaining powers belong tothe Centre
(d) powers have been divided into two lists
Ans: (a)
Q505. The Union Government has exclusive powers on subjects in

(a) the union list
(b) the concurrent list
(c) state list
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a)
Q506. Who among the following advocated partyless democracy in India?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) M. N. Roy.
(c) Jayaprakash Narayan
(d) Acharya Vinobha Bhave
Ans: (c)
Q507. The Constitution of India vests the residuary powers in

(a) the Union Government
(b) the states
(c) the Union and State governments jointly
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q508. Match list I (Parties) with List II (Trade Unions) and the select correct answer:

List – I List – II
(A) Indian National (1) C.I.T.U.
Congress
(B) Bharatiya Janata (2) A.I.T.U.C.
Party
(C) Communist Party (3) B.M.S.
(D) Communist Party (4) INTUC of India Marxist (5) B.K.S.
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 5
(c) 3 4 1 5
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q509. Match list I (Events) with List II (Years) and select correct answer:

List I List II
(A) Formation of the Bhartiya (1) 1990 Janta Party
(B) Acceptance of the Mandal (2) 1980 Commission Report
(C) Formation of the First (3) 1957 Communist Government in an Indian State
(D) Passing of the 42nd (4) 1976 Amendment Act Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (c)
Q510. The power to vote money for public expenditure rests in India with

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Legislative Assembly
4. Legislative Council Choose the correct option from the following codes:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 1, 2 & 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (b)
Q511. In case of conflict between the central and state law on a subject in the concurrent list

(a) the law which was passed first prevails
(b) the law of the state prevails
(c) the law of the centre prevails
(d) both laws stand nullified
Ans: (c)
Q512. A law passed by a state on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the law of the centre

(a) if it was passed earlier than the central law
(b) if it was passed by the state legislature and approvedby the President before enactment of the central law
(c) if the Supreme Court so decides
(d) if the majority of state legislatures so decide
Ans: (b)
Q513. The Constitution of India has created

(a) a very weak centre
(b) a very strong centre
(c) a Centre which is weak during normal times but verystrong during emergencies
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q514. The Parliament can legislate on any subject in the state list

(a) if the Rajya Sabha declares by a two-third majorityresolutionthat it is expedient to do so in nationalinterest
(b) for the implementation of international treaties oragreements
(c) if two or more states make a request to Parliamentto do so
(d) in all the above cases
Ans: (d)
Q515. The central government can issue directions to the state with regard to subjects in

(a) the union list
(b) the state list
(c) the concurrent list
(d) all these lists
Ans: (d)
Q516. The central government can assign any function to the state with the consent of

(a) the President
(b) the Chief Justice of India
(c) the Parliament
(d) the state government
Ans: (d)
Q517. The Constitution has vested the ‘residuary powers’ with the Centre. But the final authority to decide whether a matter falls under residuary powers or not rests with

(a) the Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the Rajya Sabha
(d) the Supreme Court
Ans: (d)
Q518. The Legislature of which one of the following states passed a resolution in December 2005 demanding creation of a separate High Court for the state

(a) Haryana
(b) Sikkim
(c) Punjab
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q519. The Centre provides grants-in-aid to the states

(a) to maintain friendly relations between the centre andthe states
(b) for use in centrally sponsored schemes
(c) to cover gaps on revenue accounts so that states canundertakevarious beneficial activities
(d) for meeting expenses of state plan project
Ans: (c)
Q520. Who was the Chairman of the Commission appointed by the Government of India to review the question of Centre- State relations

(a) S C Sarkar
(b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Swaran Singh
(d) R S Sarkaria
Ans: (d)
Q521. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed

(a) to find a solution to the Punjab crisis
(b) to examine Centre-State relations
(c) to resolve dispute over sharing of Cauveri waters
(d) to examine the working of the public sectorundertakings
Ans: (b)
Q522. Which of the following states put forth demand for greater autonomy for the states?

(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Punjab
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q523. India has adopted a federal system of government which is based on division of powers between the Union and the States. However, which of the following powers has not been divided between them

(a) executive
(b) legislative
(c) judicial
(d) financial
Ans: (c)
Q524. A new state can be created in India

(a) by a simple majority of Parliament
(b) by a simple majority of Parliament and approval ofmajority of the states
(c) by a two-thirds majority in Parliament
(d) by two-thirds majority in each house of Parliamentand approvalby a majority of states
Ans: (a)
Q525. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

(a) a single citizenship
(b) three lists of powers in the Constitution
(c) Dual judiciary
(d) a Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q526. Once a Budget has been presented in the Parliament, the government has to get all money bills related to the union budget passed within ______?

(a) 30 Days
(b) 60 Days
(c) 75 Days
(d) 90 Days
Ans: (c)
Q527. Which of the following subjects was transferred by the

61st amendment of 1976 from the state list to the concurrent list?
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Irrigation
(d) all the above
Ans: (b)
Q528. Consider the following statements:

1. Deputy Speaker and Speaker may resign by writing to each other
2. Attorney General and Solicitor General may resign by writing to each other Which among the above statements is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q529. Which of the following is a leading recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission?

(a) abolition of All India Services
(c) drastic changes in the present division of functionsbetween the finance commission and the PlanningCommission
Ans: (b)
Q530. Consider the following Statements

1. State Legislature has the power to reject the changes brought in its area, name and boundaries by the Union Parliament of India.
2. Parliament of India is bound to follow the suggestions of the State Legislature in the matters related to the state boundaries.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both are Correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Ans: (d)
Q531. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed among the special powers of the Rajya Sabha

(a) Resolution for the removal of the Vice-President ofIndia can be initiated only in the Rajya Sabha.
(b) Resolution for creation of new All India Servicescan be initiated in the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) Laws on any subject of state list can originate onlyin the Rajya Sabha if it is satisfied that it is necessaryto do so in national interest.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Q532. Which of the following is the largest contributor to the total tax revenue of the government (Central state and union territory administrations)?

(a) income tax
(b) corporation tax
(c) customs duties
(d) excise duties
Ans: (d)
Q533. Which of the following features of Indian Federalism has been wrongly listed?

(a) It provides equal representation to the states in theRajya Sabha.
(b) It provides for a independent judiciary.
(c) It has a written Constitution.
(d) It divides the powers between the Centre and thestates.
Ans: (a)
Q534. If a financial emergency is declared, what is its impact on the relations between the Centre and the state?

(a) The President can reduce the salaries of all the states’servants except the judges of High Courts.
(b) The President can reduce the salaries of state civilservants including those of the judges of HighCourts.
(c) The state legislatures are deprived of the right toenact Money Bills.
(d) None of the above.
Ans: (b)
Q535. Which among the following factors are responsible for increasing control of the Centre over the states in India?

1. lack of strong leadership in the states
2. enforcement of party discipline
3. economic dependence of the states on the Centre
4. emergence of regional parties Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) all the above
Ans: (a)
Q536. Which of the following machineries is most likely to be effective in solving inter-state disputes?

(a) Central Council of Health and Local Self-Government
(b) Finance Commission and Planning Commissionchief ministersof states
(d) Inter-State Council, as recommended by the AdministrativeReforms Commi-ssion
Ans: (d)
Q537. The Central Government gives grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India on the basis of the recommendations of

(a) the Planning Commission
(b) the Union Finance Minister
(c) the Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q538. The Election Commission coordinates with which Ministry for conducting the elections?

(a) Home Ministry
(b) Ministry of Law and Justice
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Personnel
Ans: (b)
Q539. Which of the following statements correctly depicts the true nature of the Indian Federal System?

(a) the Indian federation is more a functional than aninstitutionalconcept
(b) a one-dominant-party regime which is in conflict withthe principle of federalism
(c) the Indian federation is not the result of an agreementbetween the units
(d) it is a unitary state with subsidiary federal featuresrather than a federal state with subsidiary unitaryfeatures
Ans: (d)
Q540. Under the Constitution, the Central Government collect various types of taxes, which it has to share with the state governments.

Which of the following enjoys Constitutional authority to decide the share of the states in the taxes?
(a) the Union Finance Minister
(b) the Finance Commission
(c) the Planning Commission
(d) the Union Cabinet in consultation with the President
Ans: (b)
Q541. Which of the following is in the concurrent list?

(a) population control and family planning
(b) public health and sanitation
(c) capitation taxes
(d) treasure trove
Ans: (a)
Q542. Who enacts the laws for the those Union Territories which do not have Legislative Assembly?

(a) The Chief Administrative Officer of the territory
(b) The Parliament
(c) The President
(d) Union Home Minister
Ans: (b)
Q543. The Ministry of Personnel is under the charge of the following

(a) Home Minister
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Defence Minister
Ans: (c)
Q544. The entire country has been divided into

(a) greater cooperation amongst states in the field ofplanning and other matters of national importance
(b) that the laws passed by various states do not conflictwith each other
(c) better utilisation of the limited resources of the states
(d) all the above
Ans: (c)
Q
Ans: (a)
Q546. Who is the ex-officio Council meets meets Council

(d) None of these Such meetings are presided over by the
(a) Chairman of the Planning Commission
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Union Home Minister
(d) the seniormost governor of the member states
(c) consultative bodies
(d) lawmaking agencies
Ans: (a)
Q
Ans: (c)
Q
Ans: (a)
Q549. The amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution has been modelled on the constitutional pattern of

(a) Union of South Africa
(c) USA
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (a)
Q550. The Constitution of India does not guarantee the Right to

(a) Life and Liberty
(b) Property
(c) Equality
(d) Education
Ans: (b)
Q551. On whose initiative, an amendment in the Constitution can be made with regard to the states?

(a) President
(b) State Legislature
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q552. Which of the following amendments was the most comprehensive amendment of the Constitution?

(a) the 52nd Amendment
(b) the 42nd Amendment
(c) the 44th Amendment
(d) the 68th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q553. Which of the following constitutional amendments has been described as a ‘mini revision of the Constitution’?

(a) the 42nd Amendment
(b) the 44th Amendment
(c) the 52nd Amendment
(d) the 39th Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q554. Which amendment affirmed the right of the Lok Sabha to amend any part of the Constitution?

(a) the 24th Amendment
(b) the 39th Amendment
(c) the 42nd Amendment
(d) the 44th Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q555. The 24th Amendment which affirmed the right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, was necessitated on account of the Supreme Court judgment in

(a) the Keshavananda Bharati case
(b) the Minerva Mills case
(c) the Golak Nath case
(d) none of the above cases
Ans: (c)
Q556. The 86th Amendment deals with

(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes ingovernmentemployment.
(b) reservation of 30 percent posts for women ingovernment recruitment
(c) allocation of more Parliamentary seats to recentlycreated states
(d) free and compulsory education for all childrenbetween the age of 6 and 14 years
Ans: (d)
Q557. The 42nd Amendment

(a) introduced Fundamental Duties for the first time
(b) made the Directive Principles justiciable
(c) added a new schedule (Schedule VII) to the Constitution
(d) did None of the above things
Ans: (a)
Q558. The titles and special privileges of the former rulers of the princely states were abolished by

(a) the 24th Amendment
(b) the 26th Amendment
(c) the 42nd Amendment
(d) None of the these
Ans: (b)
Q559. The 52nd Amendment to the Constitution

(a) extended reservation for Scheduled Castes andScheduled Tribes till 1990
(b) provided an Autonomous District Council in Tripura
(c) brought persons working in certain organisationswhose character of duties was akin to the armedforces, within the ambit of Article 33 of theConstitution
(d) sought to curb political defections
Ans: (d)
Q560. Which of the following has not been provided by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment relating to Panchayati Raj?

(a) Thirty per cent seats in all elected rural local bodiesshall be reserved for women at all levels.
(b) The states will constitute their finance commissionsto allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions.
(c) If the Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded ordissolved by the state government, the electionsshall be held within six months.
(d) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries shall bedisqualified to hold their offices if they have morethan two children.
Ans: (d)
Q561. The 45th Amendment

(a) abolished special courts
(b) regularised the Preventive Detention Ordinance
(c) retained forests and education in the Concurrent List
(d) extended reservation of seats for Scheduled Castesand ScheduledTribes for a further period of 10 years.
Ans: (d)
Q562. The First Amendment to the Constitution, which was carried out in 1951, related to

(a) security of the country
(b) security of the Prime Minister
(c) protection of agrarian reform laws in certain states
(d) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Ans: (c)
Q563. Which amendment of the Constitution provided constitutional status to the municipalities?

(a) 70th
(b) 72nd
(c) 73rd
(d) 74th
Ans: (d)
Q564. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended by Parliament by a simple majority?

(a) provisions concerning establishment of High Court
(b) provisions concerning federal judiciary
(c) provisions concerning representation of states inParliament
(d) Articles relating to citizenship
Ans: (d)
Q565. The provisions related to the High Court of the newly created State are mentioned in the

(a) Constitution of India
(b) Respective State Act
(c) Report Submitted to the Parliament
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (b)
Q566. Which of the following amendments imposed restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the citizens to protect the sovereignty and integrity of the country?

(a) the 14th Amendment
(b) the 16th Amendment
(c) the 24th Amendment
(d) the 39th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q567. The Constitution of India envisages three types of services

(a) Navy, Air Force and Army
(b) civil, military and para-military
(c) All India Services, Central Services and StateServices
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q568. The responsibility for the recruitment of All India Services rests with

(a) the Union Public Service Commission
(b) the President
(c) the Parliament
(d) the Union Home Ministry
Ans: (a)
Q569. Who appoints the members of the All India Services?

(a) the President
(b) the Union Home Minister
(c) the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(d) the Attorney General of India
Ans: (a)
Q570. The Union Public Service Commission, which is concerned with the recruitment of civil services at the Centre,

(a) was created through a Presidental Ordinance in 1950
(b) was created by an executive resolution which wasduly endorsedby the Parliament
(c) was provided in the Constitution
(d) was provided under the Indian Independence Act,1947
Ans: (c)
Q571. The composition of the Union Public Service Commission has been

(a) laid down in the Constitution
(b) determined by the Parliament
(c) determined by the President
(d) determined by the Union Home Ministry
Ans: (a)
Q572. At present the UPSC consists of a chairman and

(a) seven other members
(b) eight other members
(c) nine other members
(d) ten other members
Ans: (d)
Q573. The chairman of the Union Public Service Commission is appointed by

(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Union Home Minister
(d) the President in consultation with the Chief Justiceof India
Ans: (a)
Q574. Members of the UPSC are appointed by

(a) The Chairman of the UPSC
(b) the President
(c) the Union Home Minister
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q575. Members of the UPSC hold office

(a) during the pleasure of the President
(b) as long as they enjoy the confidence of Parliament
(c) till they attain the age of 70 years
(d) for a term of six years or till they attain the age of65 years
Ans: (d)
Q576. Members of the UPSC can be removed from office before the expiry of their term by

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the Chairman of the UPSC
(c) the President on the recommendation of the Supremecourt
(d) the President on the recommendation of theParliament
Ans: (c)
Q577. What is the major function of the UPSC?

(a) to conduct examinations for appoint-ment to AllIndia and Central Services
(b) to advise the President regarding claims of civilservants for costs incurred in the course of executionof duties
(c) to advise the President regarding disciplinary actionagainst a civil servant
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q578. The UPSC can be assigned additional duties on the recommendation of

(a) the Union Home Minister
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Council of Ministers
(d) the President
Ans: (b)
Q579. The UPSC submits an annual report on its work to

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Union Home Minister
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (a)
Q580. The Governor of the state can remove which of the following?

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) The Chairperson of the State Public ServiceCommission
(c) The Chairperson of the State Finance Commission
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (c)
Q581. Which of the following is not a statutory function of the UPSC?

(a) to advise the government on the methods of recruitment,promotion and control of public services
(b) to look after the interests and right of civil servants
(c) to hear appeals from civil servants and redress theirgrievances
(d) to act as a watchdog on the functioning of the statePublic Service Commissions
Ans: (d)
Q582. In India, New All India Services can be created

(a) through an amendment in the Constitution
(b) by the Union Government in consultation with theUPSC
(c) by the Parliament
(d) by the President on the advice of the Union Councilof Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q583. A member of a state Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after an enquiry has been conducted by

(a) a committee appointed by the President
(b) the Supreme Court of India
(c) the High Court of the state
(d) a committee appointed by the governor of the state
Ans: (c)
Q584. Which of the following commissions recommended the abolition of the IAS and the IPS?

(a) the Kalekar Commission
(b) the Kher Commission
(c) the Rajamannar Commission
(d) none of the above
Ans: (c)
Q585. The Comptroller and Auditor General acts as

(a) the guardian of people’s liberties
(b) the guardian of public finances
(c) the chief legal advisor of the government
(d) guardian of all the above
Ans: (b)
Q586. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the President
(c) the Parliament
(d) the President on the advice of the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q587. The Comptroller and Auditor General holds office

(a) during the pleasure of the Parliament
(b) for a term of six years
(c) for a term of five years
(d) during the pleasure of the President
Ans: (b)
Q588. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from his office before expiry of his term by

(a) the Prime Minister
(b) the President at his discretion
(c) the President on the advice of the Council of theMinisters
(d) the President on the recommendation of the Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q589. The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General are paid out of

(a) the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) the Contingency Fund of India
(c) the Contingency Fund of the concerned state
(d) the General Budget
Ans: (a)
Q590. The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General

(a) have been prescribed in the Constitution
(b) are determined by the President in consultation withthe Chief Justice of India
(c) are determined by the Parliament
(d) are determined by the Union Council of Ministers
Ans: (c)
Q591. The Constitution secures the independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General by

(a) providing that his salary and service conditions shallnot be changed to his disadvantage
(b) by giving the CAG complete control over hisadministrative staff
(c) making the removal of CAG very difficult
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q592. The Comptroller and Auditor General performs

(a) only audit functions
(b) only accounting functions
(c) both accounting and audit functions
(d) accounting, auditing and judicial functions
Ans: (a)
Q593. The Comptroller and Auditor General submits his annual report regarding the Centre to

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chairman of the Planning commission
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (a)
Q594. The Attorney General of India is

(a) the highest legal officer of the Union Government
(b) the highest financial officer of the Union Government
(c) the highest financial as well as legal officer of theUnion Government
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q595. The Preamble of the Constitution of India was first amended by

(a) Seventh Amendment Act
(b) Eleventh Amendment Act
(c) Forty Second Amendment Act
(d) Forty Fourth Amendment Act
Ans: (c)
Q596. The President of India can be removed by the process of impeachment on the grounds of

(a) Violation of the Constitution
(b) Proved in-capacity
(c) On Corruption charges
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (a)
Q597. Which of the following Ministries deals with the Table of Precedence?

(a) Ministry of Personnel
(b) Ministry of Home
(c) Prime Minister’s Office
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (b)
Q598. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India was relieved of his responsibilities of maintenance of accounts in

(a) 1967
(b) 1976
(c) 1981
(d) 1989
Ans: (a)
Q599. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act,

2010 seeks to amend the
(a) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(b) Representation of the People Act, 1964
(c) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q600. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was created

(a) under the Constitution
(b) through a resolution of the Union Cabinet
(c) through an enactment of Parliament
(d) none of the above.
Ans: (a)
Q601. Which among the following 4 States have been added under recently passed Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2016 under this Constitutional

(Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950?
(a) Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Kerala and West Bengal
(b) M.P., A.P., Kerala, and Odisha
(c) West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Uttaranchal, U.P.
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q602. The bill was introduced in the Parliament by Union Social Justice Minister Thawar Chand Gehlot as per the provisions of which Article of the Constitution?

(a) 342
(b) 341
(c) 45
(d) 14
Ans: (b)
Q603. Which among the following states have been excluded from Bariki and Kummari communities in the list under

(Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2016?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) West Bengal
(c) Odisha
(d) Uttaranchal
Ans: (c)
Q604. Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct code the options given below:

List I List II
(Name of the States/ (Inclusion/ Communities) Area restriction)
A. Chhattisgarh 1. Inclusion of Sais, Sahis, Sarathi, Soot-Sarathi, Thanwar communities in the list
B. Haryana 2. Inclusion of (i) Aheria, Aheri, Hari, Heri, Thori, Turi and (ii) Rai Sikh communities in the list.
C. Kerala 3. Inclusion of Peruvannan community in the list and Modification in the area of specification of Malayan Community
D. West Bengal 4. Removal of area restriction of Chain community Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (a)
Q605. The objective of Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh is to:

(a) strengthen safety measures on the rail network to prevent accidents.
(b) strengthen safety measures on the rail network to prevent disasters
(c) accomplish its zero-accident mission by strengthening the safety measures on the rail network
(d) envisage works like track renewal and upgradation, bridge rehabilitation, elimination of level-crossings, etc.
Select the correct code:
(a) both a and b
(b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) b & c
Ans: (c)
Q606. Which among the following states recently has launched an innovative mobile application titled e-voter with comprehensive details about the forthcoming 2016 Assembly polls. The app is envisaged for voters’ facilitation for search in electoral roll, information regarding candidates, location of polling station, affidavit filed by them, filing of complaint and so on.

(c) Kerala (d) Assam
(a) both a and b
(b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) a, b, c
Ans: (c)
Q607. What is special about National Monuments Authority Web Portal?

(a) The web portal will provide single window clearancefor applicants to get no-objection certificates (NoC)within six working days for construction-relatedworks.
(b) The portal uses the technology of Indian SpaceResearch Organisation (ISRO) for mapping-relatedservice.
(c) The application can use the app to upload thegeo coordinates of his plot which falls within theprohibited and regulated area of the monument
(d) It will address various queries of startups in atime-bound manner.Select correct code:
Ans: (d)
Q608. What is Non-Tax Receipt Portal (NTRP)?

(a) Flagship Digital India campaign
(b) Portal to reduce a lot of manual work
(c) Completely secure IT environment for common users/citizens
(d) The non-tax revenues mainly include dividends, spectrum charges, interest receipts Select correct code:
(a) both a and b
(b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) a, b, c & d
Ans: (d)
Q609. MITRA app stands for

(a) Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue application—developed by Puducherry Police department
(b) Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue application—developed by Karnataka Police department
(c) Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue application—developed by ODISHA Police department
(d) Mobile Initiated Tracking and Rescue application—developed by MP Police department
Ans: (a)
Q610. The major objective of Sahaj Scheme is to

(a) provide online booking of LPG cylinders.
(b) allow consumers to book LPG cylinders online through the unified web portal www.mylpg.in
(c) deliver LPG cylinders at home even in their absence
(d) achieve target of adding 10 crore new LPG connections by December 2018 Which among the following are correct?
(a) both a and b
(b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) a, b, c & d
Ans: (d)
Q611. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 aims to:

(a) achieve targeted delivery of subsidies and services to individuals residing in India by assigning them unique identity numbers, called Aadhaar numbers.
(b) verify the identity of a person receiving a subsidy or a service. The government may require them to have an Aadhaar number.
(c) have UID authority that will consist of a chairperson, two part-time members and a chief executive officer
(d) make the UID authority respond to an authentication query with a positive, negative or other appropriate response.
Select correct code:
(a) both a and b
(b) a, b, c
(c) a, c, d
(d) a, b, c & d
Ans: (d)
Q612. What is the aim of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana?

(a) To provide free of cost LPG (cooking gas) connections to women from BPL Households
(b) To give each of the beneficiaries monetary support of about 1,600 rupees to get a connection of cooking gas.
(c) To give the Union Government has launched National LED programme – Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA)
Which of the above are correct?
(a) a, b, c & d
(b) a, c, d
(c) a, b, c & d
(d) both a and b
Ans: (a)
Q613. What is Sevottam Model

(a) The Sevottam Model is a Service Delivery Excellence Model in governance.
(b) It provides an assessment improvement framework in the public service delivery by evaluating the internal processes.
(c) It is ‘Excellence in Service Delivery.
(d) None of these.
Select the correct code:
(a) a, b, c
(b) a, c, d
(c) a, b, c & d
(d) d
Ans: (a)

Practice MCQs Difficulty Level -2

Q1. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the suability of the State of India?
(a) Article 100
(b) Article 200
(c) Article 300
(d) Article 330
Ans: (c)
Q2. The Chairman of which of the following parliamentary committees is invariably from the members of ruling party?

(a) Committee on Public Undertakings
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Delegated Legislation
Ans: (c)
Q3. Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament?

(a) Question Hour
(b) Zero Hour
(c) Half-an-hour discussion
(d) Short duration discussion
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which of the following is exclusively a committee of the Lower House:

(a) Committee on Assurances
(b) Committee on Delegated Legislation
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Estimates Committee
Ans: (d)
Q5. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Short duration discussion
Ans: (b)
Q6. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of:

(a) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Kripalani Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Ans: (d)
Q7. The institution of Lokayukta was created for the first time by the state of:

(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Pubjab
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (d)
Q8. The institution of Lokayukta was created first in Maharashtra in:

(a) 1970
(b) 1972
(c) 1973
(d) 1971
Ans: (d)
Q9. The correct statements about zero hour includes:

1. It is the first hour of every sitting in both the houses of Parliament.
2. It is mentioned in the Rules of Business of the houses of Parliament.
3. During this time, matters are raised without any prior notice.
4. It is the time immediately following the Question Hour in both the houses of Parliament.
5. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure since 1964.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q10. The correct statements about calling attention notice are:

1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q11. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?

1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India?

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans: (b)
Q13. In parliamentary countries, like India, the legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted in effectiveness due to which of the following reasons?

1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3. The large size of the legislature.
4. The members of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q14. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in the Lok Sabha, needs the support of:

(a) 80 Members
(b) 140 Members
(c) 160 Members
(d) 50 Members
Ans: (d)
Q15. Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?

1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.
2. Answer to such a question is given orally.
3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.
4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.
5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q16. In which of the following stated years, the Lokpal Bill was not introduced in the Parliament?

(a) 1968
(b) 1971
(c) 1978
(d) 1985Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
Ans: (c)
Q17. Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same.

Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q18. Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.

Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular sovereignty.
Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select correct answer by using the codes givenbelow the lists.
Ans: (a)
Q19. List-I List-II

A. Short duration discussion – 1. 1964
B. Calling attention notice – 2. 1962
C. Zero Hour – 3. 1953
D. Committee on Public Undertakings – 4. 1954 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q20. List-I (Writs) List-II (Literal meanings)

A. Mandamus – 1. ‘By what warrant or authority’
B. Habeas Corpus – 2. ‘We command’
C. Quo warranto – 3. ‘To be certified’
D. Certiorari – 4. ‘You may have the body’ or ‘To have the body of’ Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (d)
Q21. List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)

A. Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court – 1. Article 13
B. Suits against government – 2. Article 226
C. Writ jurisdiction of the High Court – 3. Article 300
D. Source of the power of judicial review – 4. Article 32
5. Article 166 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 5 4 3 2
Ans: (c)
Q22. The final work of UPSC in recruitment process is:

(a) Selection
(b) Appointment
(c) Certification
(d) Placement
Ans: (c)
Q23. The conditions of service of members of All-India Services are determined by:

(a) President of India
(b) Constitution of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (c)
Q24. Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by:

(a) Art. 310
(b) Art. 315
(c) Art. 312
(d) Art. 311
Ans: (d)
Q25. Assertion: India has imposed severe restrictions on the political activities of civil servants.

Reason: The civil servants in India enjoy the right to vote.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the following codes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q26. Assertion: A member of All-India Service can appeal against the order of a State Government to the President of India.

Reason: Article 311 of the Constitution says that a civil servant cannot be removed or dismissed by any authority which is subordinate to the authority by which he was appointed.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the following codes.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q27. The Vote on Account is passed:

(a) After the voting of demands
(b) Before the general discussion
(c) After the general discussion
(d) Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion.
Ans: (c)
Q28. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of budget in proper order:

1. General discussion
2. Appropriation Bill
3. Finance Bill
4. Voting of the demands for grant
5. Presentation to legislature
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
Ans: (b)
Q29. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?

1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget
2. A summary of demands for grants
3. An Appropriation Bill
4. A Finance Bill
5. The economic survey
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q30. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund ofIndia.
(c) It should relate to more than one demand.
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.
Ans: (c)
Q31. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with:

(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Parliament
(d) National Development Council
Ans: (c)
Q32. The number of demands in the General Budget for civil expenditures is:

(a) 109
(b) 106
(c) 103
(d) 102
Ans: (c)
Q33. The word ‘Budget’ is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India:

(a) Art. 266
(b) Art. 112
(c) Art. 265
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q34. The budget was formally introduced in India in:

(a) 1860
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1868
Ans: (a)
Q35. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Rajya Sabha can reject a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on a Money Bill.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill.
4. Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
5. Rajya Sabha can amend a Money Bill.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1 and 5
(d) only 1
Ans: (c)
Q36. Which of the following expenditures are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Allowances of the Chairman of Lok Sabha.
2. Expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt.
3. Pensions of the judges of High Courts.
4. Any sum required to satisfy the award of any arbitration tribunal.
5. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral
(a) 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q37. The correct statements about Public Account of India are:

1. The public account is the fund to which all public moneys received by or on behalf of the government are credited.
2. No legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
3. Legislative appropriation is required for payments from the Public
Account of India.
4. All public moneys, other than those credited to the Consolidated Fund of India, which are received by or on behalf of the government are credited to the Public Account of India.
5. It is operated by executive action.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q38. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.
3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q39.

List-I List-II
A. Token Cut Motion
1. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount.”
B. Economy Cut Motion – 2. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 1.”
C. Policy Cut Motion – 3. “That the amount of the demand be reduced by 100.”
4. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 1.”
5. “That the amount of the demand be reduced to 100.” Codes: A B C
(a) 5 1 2
(b) 5 3 1
(c) 3 1 4
(d) 3 5 2
Ans: (c)
Q40.

List-I (Principles) List-II (Provided by)
A. No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. – 1. Article 117
B. No bill imposing tax can be introduced in the Parliament except on the
2. Article 113
C. No expenditure can be incurred except with the sanction of the legislature.
3. Article 265
D. No Demand for grant of any money for expenditure can be made except on the recommendation of the President.
4. Article 112
5. Article 266 Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q41.

List-I (Terms) List-II (Defined by)
A. Consolidated Fund of India – 1. Article 110
B. Money Bill – 2. Article 267
C. Annual Financial Statement – 3. Article 266
D. Contingency Fund of India – 4. Article 265
5. Article 112 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 2
(d) 3 1 5 2
Ans: (d)
Q42. Assertion: Budget is a secret document and should not be leaked out before being presented to the Parliament.

Reason: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q43. Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q44. Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament.

Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept of sovereignty of the parliament.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q45. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.

Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q46. Assertion: The budget is placed in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) at the end of the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech in the Lok Sabha.

Reason: The budget is presented to the Lok Sabha on the last working day of February.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q47. Assertion: The expenditure ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q48. Assertion: The Constitution of India has authorised the parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India.

Reason: The Contingency Fund enables the government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q49. Assertion: Audit in India is equally concerned with the legal and technical as well as the propriety aspects of expenditure.

Reason: The provision under which the audit is performed by CAG says that he has “to ascertain whether the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for and applicable to the purpose to which they had been applied and whether the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.”
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q50. The Finance Commission does not recommend on:

(a) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and thestates.
(b) The principles to be followed by the centre while giving grants-in-aid tothe states out of the consolidated Fund of India.
(c) The amount of money to be allocated to the states from Public Accountof India.
(d) Any other matter referred to the Commission by President in the interestof sound finance.
Ans: (c)
Q51. The National Development Council consists of:

(a) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states and themembers of the NITI Aayog.
(b) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, the CentralCabinet Ministers and the Members of the NITI Aayog.
(c) The Prime Minister, the Chief Ministers of all the states, SelectedCentral Cabinet Ministers, Administrators of union territories and themembers of the NITI Aayog.
(d) The Prime Minister, all Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of allthe states, Administrators of union territories and the members of the NITIAayog.
Ans: (d)
Q52. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.
(b) Laid down in Article 123.
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of theParliament.
(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Ans: (d)
Q53. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:

1. All India Federation
2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q54. The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as prescribed by:

(a) Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India.
(b) CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission.
(c) CAG of India with the approval of the President.
(d) President of India in consultation with CAG of India
Ans: (d)
Q55. The erstwhile Planning Commission was described as the “Economic Cabinet” by:

(a) P.P. Agarwal
(b) Ashok Chanda
(d) Santhanam
Ans: (b)
Q56. Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India?

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1919
Ans: (b)
Q57. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission
2. NITI Aayog
3. Zonal Councils
4. National Development Council
5. Election Commission
6. University Grants Commission
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans: (b)
Q58. The features of Indian federal system are:

1. Division of powers
2. Separation of powers
3. Independent judiciary
4. Leadership of the Prime Minister
5. A written Constitution
(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q59. Which of the following is not a department under the Ministry of Home

Affairs?
(a) Department of Internal Security
(b) Department of Home
(c) Department of States
(d) Department of Law and Order
Ans: (d)
Q60. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.
(b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre andstates.
(c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.
(d) Its advice is binding on the Government.
Ans: (d)
Q61. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election
(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
(c) 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states
(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government
Ans: (d)
Q62. The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as:

(a) Chairman of the UPSC
(b) Supreme Court Judge
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q63. Statutory grants are given to states by the Centre on the recommendation of:

(a) NITI Aayog
(b) National Development Council
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (d)
Q64. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882
Ans: (c)
Q65. Dyarchy was introduced by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1909
(b) Government of India Act of 1919
(c) Government of India Act of 1935
(d) Independence Act of 1947
Ans: (b)
Q66. Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935?

(a) Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) All-India Federation
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) Dyarchy in the provinces
Ans: (d)
Q67. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council of ministers?

(a) 24th amendment
(b) 42nd amendment
(c) 44th amendment
(d) 54th amendment
Ans: (b)
Q68. The Indian federation is based on the pattern of:

(a) Switzerland
(b) USA
(c) Russia
Ans: (d)
Q69. Who said the “Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?”

(a) Granville Austin
(b) Ivor Jennings
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) K.C. Wheare
Ans: (d)
Q70. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.
2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.
4. He can be removed by the President on his own.
5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q71. Which of the following are correct about Vice Chairperson of NITI

Aayog?
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.
3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.
4. He attends Cabinet meetings as a special invitee.
5. He is the de facto executive head of the Aayog.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q72. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.
4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q73. The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India by:

(a) Government of India Act of 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Ans: (d)
Q74. Which is incorrectly matched?

(a) Prohibition of Discrimination—Article 15
(b) Right to Association—Article 19.
(c) Right to Protection of Life—Article 20.
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies—Article 32.
Ans: (c)
Q75. Who characterises Indian Union as “a federation with a centralising tendency?”

(a) B.R. Ambedker
(b) K.C. Wheare
(c) Ivor Jennings
(d) Granville Austin
Ans: (c)
Q76. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Ans: (c)
Q77. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q78. The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:

(a) 41st amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 46th amendment
(d) 42nd amendment
Ans: (d)
Q79. No demand for a grant is to be made except on the recommendation of:

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General
Ans: (b)
Q80. Which of the following are not the departments of Finance Ministry?

1. Department of Expenditure
2. Department of Economic Affairs
3. Department of Banking
4. Department of Revenue
5. Department of Budget
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q81. The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.
2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.
4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q82. Which of the following are not the federal features of Indian Constitution?

1. Supremacy of Constitution
2. All-India services
3. Single citizenship
4. Independent judiciary
5. Bicameral legislature
6. Integrated judiciary
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 5 and 6
(c) 2, 3 and 6
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q83. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:

1. Independent judiciary.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
3. A written Constitution.
4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q84. Which is correctly matched?

(a) Amendment procedure – Article 268
(b) Duties of Prime Minister – Article 74
(c) President’s rule – Article 365
(d) Inter-State Council – Article 264
Ans: (c)
Q85. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of:

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures
(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures
(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and stateLegislative Assemblies
Ans: (c)
Q86. The ex-officio members of the erstwhile Planning Commission were:

1. Home Minister
2. Finance Minister
3. Defence Minister
4. Human Resources Minister
5. Planning Minister
6. Agriculture Minister
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q87. Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration?

(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Pitts India Act of 1784
Ans: (b)
Q88. Erstwhile Planning Commission was set up on the recom-mendation of:

(a) National Planning Committee
(b) Gorwala Report
(d) Constituent AssemblyMatching PatternMatch List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes givenbelow the lists.
Ans: (c)
Q89.

List-I List-II
A. Board of Control – 1. Regulating Act of 1773
B. Central Administration – 2. Government of India Act of 1858
C. Governor-General of India – 3. Pitts India Act of 1784
D. Secretary of state for India – 4. Charter Act of 1833 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
Q90.

List-I List-II
A. Bicameral system – 1. Government of India Act of 1935
B. Legislative devolution – 2. Indian Councils Act of 1861
C. Separate electorate – 3. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Provincial autonomy – 4. Indian Councils Act of 1892
5. Minto-Morely Reforms.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 2 3 1
(b) 3 4 5 1
(c) 3 2 5 1
(d) 5 4 3 1
Ans: (c)
Q91.

List-I List-II
A. Equality in Public employment – 1. Article 29
B. Minorities rights – 2. Article 21
C. Right to personal liberty – 3. Article 23
D. Right against exploitation – 4. Article 16
5. Article 25 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
Q92.

List-I List-II
A. Withholding of assent – 1. Qualified veto
B. Overriden by an ordinary majority – 2. Pocket veto
C. Taking no action on the bill – 3. Absolute veto
D. Overriden by a higher majority – 4. Suspensive veto
5. Majority veto Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q93.

List-I List-II
A. Third Schedule – 1. Allocation of seats in Upper House
B. Ninth Schedule – 2. Disqualification on Grounds of defection
C. Fourth Schedule – 3. Validation of certain acts
D. Tenth Schedule – 4. Languages
5. Forms of affirmations Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 5 3 1 2
(c) 5 4 2 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (b)
Q94. Assertion: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.

Reason: The President is the titular head of the state while the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q95. Assertion: Article 149 of the Indian Constitution lays down the provisions with regard to the appointment and service conditions of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

Reason: He cannot function independently unless he enjoys the constitutional protection.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q96. Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office.

Reason: No person shall be eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the House of People.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q97. Assertion: All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final.

Reason: Parliament may, by law, regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or a Vice-President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q98. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

Reason: The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q99. A new All-India Service can be created by:

(a) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(b) An act of Parliament
(c) An order of the President
(d) A resolution of the UPSC
Ans: (b)
Q100. The Central Administrative Tribunal deals with:

(a) Recruitment matters
(b) Promotion matters
(c) Disciplinary matters
(d) Recruitment and all service matters
Ans: (d)
Q101. Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public Service Commission?

(a) President of India
(b) Parliament of India
(c) UPSC
(d) State Governors
Ans: (b)
Q102. The origins of UPSC can be traced to:

(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1919 Act
(c) 1930 Act
(d) 1947 Act
Ans: (b)
Q103. The functions of the UPSC can be extended by:

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Ministry of Personnel
(d) Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q104. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?

1. Constitution
2. Parliamentary laws
3. Executive rules and orders
4. Conventions
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q105. The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by:

(a) President of India
(b) Central Ministry of Personnel
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
Q106. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of:

(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
Ans: (d)
Q107. Who is regarded as the “Father of All-India Services?”

(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) B.R. Ambedker
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (d)
Q108. A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:

(a) An order of the President
(b) A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(c) An act of Parliament
(d) A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
Ans: (c)
Q109. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
2. One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state atleast for five years.
3. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 60 years.
4. The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.
5. The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q110. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the prohibition as to the holding of offices by members of Public Service Commissions on ceasing to be such members?

1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
2. The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
3. A member other than Chairman of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman of the UPSC or as Chairman of a SPSC, but not for any other employment, either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
4. A member other than Chairman of the SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of that or any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q111. Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?

1. It is a statutory body.
2. Its members are drawn from administrative background only.
3. It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.
4. Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as Central Services and Central Government posts.
5. It was setup in 1985.
(a) 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q112. Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration.

Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q113. Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.

Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q114. Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS.

Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of federalism and ministerial responsibility at the state level.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q115. Assertion: The UPSC makes recruitment to Group A and Group B services.

Reason: The Staff Selection Commission makes recruitment to Group C services.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q116. Assertion: The members of All-India Services can give independent and impartial advise to political executives in the states.

Reason: They enjoy constitutional safeguards with regard to security of service.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q117. Assertion: The salaries and allowances of members of the UPSC are charged on the consolidated Fund of India.

Reason: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on the Commission by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q118. Assertion: The salaries of the members of the UPSC cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure.

Reason: The independence of the Public Service Commission has to be maintained.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q119. Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC.

Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q120.

List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained in)
A. Tenure of office of persons serving the Union or a state. – 1. Article 315
B. Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the states. – 2. Article 310
C. Recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the Union or a state.
3. Article 312
D. Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a state.
4. Article 309
5. Article 311 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 4 5 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 5
(d) 2 1 5 4
Ans: (c)
Q121. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?

1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
(a) 1, 2, and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q122. The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:

1. Creation of a two-tier system
2. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
3. Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions
4. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
5. If superceded, elections must be held within one year
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q123. District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The State Public Service Commission
(c) The Chief Minister of state
(d) The Governor of state
Ans: (d)
Q124. Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation of:

(a) Speaker
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Governor
Ans: (d)
Q125. According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be:

(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad
(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
Ans: (d)
Q126. The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on:

(a) Democratic-decentralisation
(b) Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) Administrative arrangements for rural development
(d) Community development programme
Ans: (d)
Q127. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the order):

(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
Ans: (c)
Q128. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:

(a) District Collector
(b) Governor of the state
(c) Law Minister of the state
(d) High Court of the state
Ans: (d)
Q129. Which of the following is a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Balwantray Mehta Committee
(b) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(c) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee
Ans: (d)
Q130. “The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q131. A President’s rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:

1. Article 356
2. Article 360
3. Article 352
4. Article 365
(a) only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)
Q132. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment act provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?

(a) 4th Amendment
(b) 7th Amendment
(c) 11th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q133. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates includes:

(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister
(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister
(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
(d) Only the Cabinet Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q134. In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the President can:

1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including the High Court.
2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the Governor.
3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court.
4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of the parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q135. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:

1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q136. Panchayati Raj is a system of:

(a) Local government
(c) Local self-government
(d) Rural local self-government
Ans: (d)
Q137. The correct statements about cantonment boards are:

1. This system of municipal administration is a British legacy in our country.
2. They are set up under the resolutions passed by the Ministry of Defence.
3. The Ministry of Defence exercises direct administrative control over them.
4. It consists of elected members only.
5. The executive officer of the board is appointed by the President of the board.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q138. Which of the following are the features of 74th Amendment Act on municipalities?

1. reservation of seats for scs and sts in proportion of their population (to the total population) in municipal Area.
2. Mandatory periodic elections every 5 years.
3. The procedure for maintenance of accounts and audit would be decided by the State Governor.
4. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban area.
5. One-third of the seats shall be reserved for women, excluding the number of seats reserved for SC and ST women.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q139. Assertion: Under the Constitution, the Chief Minister holds office till the pleasure of the Governor.

Reason: The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q140. Assertion: Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local government.

Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the ‘father of local self-government in India.’
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q141. Assertion: The 73rd amendment to the Constitution gives a constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.

Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of the Gram Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)
Q142. Assertion: The Governor of a state is a nominal (titular) executive head.

Reason: The Constitution has provided for a parliamentary government in the states.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q143. Assertion: No person shall be eligible for appointment as a Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty years.

Reason: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q144. Assertion: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.

Reason: The Governor of a state shall be appointed by the President India.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q145. Assertion: The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Reason: Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the states in such proportion as the President may by order determine.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q146. Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far he is by or under the Constitution, required to exercise his functions, or any of them in his discretion.

Reason: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the lists.
Ans: (b)
Q147.

List-I List-II
A. Governor – 1. Article 167
B. Counil of ministers – 2. Article 169
C. Duties of Chief Minister – 3. Article 155
D. Legislative Council – 4. Article 163 Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
Q148.

List-I List-II
A. Deliberative organisation – 1. Commissioner
B. Formal head – 2. Standing Committee
C. Management – 3. Mayor
D. Executive body – 4. Council Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q149.

List-I (States) List-II (Governor’s special responsibilities)
B. Gujarat – 2. Administration of tribal areas
C. Nagaland – 3. Development of backward areas
D. Assam – 4. Minister for Tribal Welfare
5. Hill Areas Committee working Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
Ans: (c)
Q150.

List I List II
A. Article 156 – 1. Executive authority of Governor
B. Article 154 – 2. Tenure of Governor
C. Article 153 – 3. Appointment of Governor
D. Article 155 – 4. Office of Governor
5. Discretionary power of Governor.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)
Q151.

List I (Committees) List II (Setup on)
A. G.V.K. Rao Committee – 1. Panchayati Raj institutions
B. Balvantray Mehta Committee – 2. Revitalisation of PRIs for democracy and development
C. L.M. Singhvi Committee
3. Existing administrative arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes.
D. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. Community Development Programme and National Extension Service.
5. Panchayati Raj elections Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
Q152. The Governor of a state:

1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.
2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.
3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.
4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q153. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality means:

(a) Pleasure of the President
(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister
(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister
(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (d)
Q154. The main objective of the National Development Council is:

(a) To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
(b) To strengthen and mobilise the efforts and resources of the nation insupport of the plan.
(c) To ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country.
(d) To secure cooperation of states in execution of the plan.
Ans: (d)
Q155. Which of the following factors have led to the decline of Indian Parliament?

1. Growth of delegated legislation.
2. Low level of attendance in the Parliament.
3. Frequent promulgation of ordinances.
4. Frequent amendment of the Constitution.
5. Setback in Parliamentary behaviour and ethics.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (a)
Q156. The term ‘Cabinet’ is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?

(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 352
(d) Not mentioned in the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q157. Which of the following statements with regard to the erstwhile Planning Commission are correct?

1. It was constituted on 15th March, 1950.
2. It had representation from the state governments.
3. It acted as a kind of a bridge between Union Government, National Development Council and state governments.
4. It was a collegiate body.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q158. Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?

1. He is responsible only to the Parliament.
2. He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.
3. He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.
4. He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q159. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between a censure motion and a no-confidence motion?

1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.
2. A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
3. The Government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed, whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
4. A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q160. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:

1. President of India
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
4. Chief Justice of the State High Court
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q161. The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in:

(a) 1971
(b) 1967
(c) 1968
(d) 1972
Ans: (c)
Q162. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

(a) Constitutional provision
(b) Act of the Parliament
(c) Resolution of the Santhanam Committee
(d) Executive resolution
Ans: (d)
Q163. The functions of Estimates Committee include:

1. To suggest alternative policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in administration.
2. To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
3. To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. To suggest the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q164. The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:

1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.
2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.
4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.
5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q165. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(b) Prorogation means the end of the Assembly.
(c) Dissolution means the end of the Assembly.
(d) Proroagation means end of a session of the Assembly.
Ans: (b)
Q166. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd

Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
2. Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.
3. Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in Panchayats.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q167. Consider the following statements about municipal corporations:

1. They are established in the states by the acts of the concerned state legislatures.
2. They are established in the union territories by an order of the Chief
3. They work under direct control and supervision of state governments.
4. Their deliberative functions are separated from the executive functions.
Of the above, the correct statements are:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q168. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.
(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.
(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population inthe cantonment area.
(d) It is a statutory body.
Ans: (a)
Q169. Consider the following statements with regard to All-India Services:

1. Article 312 of the Constitution specifies the procedure for their creation.
2. The All-India Services Act was enacted in 1950.
3. Indian Forest Service is managed by the Ministry of Forests and Environment.
4. A new All-India Service can be created by the Rajya Sabha.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q170. Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?

1. When requested by the President
2. When requested by the Governor
3. With the approval of Parliament
4. With the approval of President
5. With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 5
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q171. Assertion: A minister at the Central level can be dismissed by the Prime Minister.

Reason: A minister is appointed by President only on the advice of Prime Minister.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q172. Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system.

Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the Union Government.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q173. Assertion: The duty of CAG is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety.

Reason: He has to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q174. Assertion: The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India.

Reason: It is an independent constitutional body.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)

Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q176. Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-forgrants.

Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below.
Ans: (b)
Q177.

List-I (Meaning of writs) List-II (Name of writs)
A. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties. – 1. Injunction
B. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court when the latter exceeds its jurisdiction. – 2. Mandamus
C. It is issued by the courts to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. – 3. Certiorari
D. It is issued by the court asking a person to do a thing or refrain from doing a thing.
4. Prohibition
5. Quowarranto Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 5 1
(b) 5 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 5 1
(d) 4 5 2 3
Ans: (c)
Q178.

List-I (Committees) List-II (Function)
A. Public
Accounts Committee
1. Examines whether the promises made by the ministers on the floor of the house have been fulfilled.
B.
Committee on Subordinate Legislation
2. Examines the CAG’s report on the appropriation accounts and ascertains whether the funds voted by Parliament are spent within the scope of the demand.
C.
Committee on Public Undertakings
3. Examines whether the powers to make rules and regulations delegated by the Parliament are properly exercised by the executive.
D.
Committee on Government
Assurances.
4. Examines the reports and accounts of the public undertakings and finds out whether their affairs are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practices.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)
Q179.

List-I List-II
A. Token grant
1. It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand whose details cannot be stated.
B.
Exceptional grant
2. It is voted by the Lok Sabha before the end of the financial year.
C. Vote of credit
3. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the end of the financial year.
D. Excess grant – 4. It forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
5. It is granted when funds to meet proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 2
(b) 5 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 5 3 1 4
Ans: (b)
Q180.

List-I (Schedules in the Constitution) List-II (Provisions)
A. Sixth Schedule – 1. Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
B. Second Schedule – 2. Administration of tribal areas in states of Assam, Meghalya, Tripura and Mizoram.
C. Twelfth Schedule – 3. Provisions as to the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of state Legislative Assemblies.
D. Fifth Schedule – 4. Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities.
5. Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 5 1
Ans: (c)
Q181.

List-I List-II
A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.
1. Surcharges on taxes and duties
B. Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the states. – 2. Taxes on services.
C. Taxes levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and the states.
3. Stamp duties on bills of exchange.
D. Taxes and duties for purposes of the Union. – 4. Income tax
5. Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 3 1 4
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 3 5 2 1
Ans: (d)
Q182. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 153 — Office of the Governor
(b) Article 156 — Term of the Governor
(c) Article 154 — Executive authority of Governor
(d) Article 155 — Removal of Governor
Ans: (d)
Q183. The most important Legislative power of the Governor is:

(a) Nominating members to the state legislature.
(b) Issuing ordinances
(c) Assenting bills passed by the state legislature
(d) Dissolving the state legislative Assembly
Ans: (b)
Q184. Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the Governor and the council of ministers.

Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q185. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Balwantray Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
2. Ashok Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1977.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee submitted its report in 1986.
4. L.M. Singhvi Committee submitted its report in 1987.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q186. Which of the following are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd

Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
1. Making provision for reservation to the backward classes.
2. Authorising the Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development.
3. Organisation of Gram Sabhas.
4. Conferring financial powers on Panchayats with regard to taxes, fees and so on.
5. Setting up of a State Election Commission to conduct elections to the Panchayats.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q187. Assertion: The UPSC’s function is not to decide but to advise.

Reason: UPSC is a constitutional body Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q188. Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?

1. It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the Constitution.
2. It was set up by an order of the President of India.
3. It was set up in 1985.
4. It was set up by an Act of Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q189. Which of the following audit is discretionary and not obligatory on the part of CAG?

(a) Audit of Accountancy
(b) Audit of Authority
(c) Audit of Appropriation
(d) Audit of Propriety
Ans: (d)
Q190. “The state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice—social, economic and political—shall inform all the institutions of the national life.” This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Article 39
(b) Article 46
(c) Article 38
(d) Article 37
Ans: (c)
Q191. Which of the following will be the consequences of the proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President?

1. The President can give directions to the states to observe the principles of financial propriety.
2. The President can reduce the salaries and allowances of government employees excluding the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
3. All money bills and other financial bills passed by a state legislature can be reserved for the consideration of the President.
4. The Parliament can authorise the President to sanction expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the state.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q192. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(b) The Governor of the concerned state
(c) The Attorney-General of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (d)
Q193. Which of the following articles of the Constitution broadly govern the relationship between the Prime Minister and the President?

1. Article 75
2. Article 73
3. Article 78
4. Article 76
5. Article 74
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q194. Which of the following distinguishes the audit of the CAG from the audit made by professional auditors?

(a) Audit of Authority
(b) Audit of Appropriation
(c) Audit of Accountancy
(d) Audit of Propriety
Ans: (d)
Q195. Who/which of the following has called the erstwhilePlanning Commission as “The Economic Cabinet, not merely for the Union but also for the states”?

(a) K. Santhanam
(d) Ashok Chanda
Ans: (d)
Q196. Match the following: List-I (Statements on NDC) List- II(Madeby)

A. “Among the advisory bodies to the Planning Commission is included the NDC. This is surely incorrect as is clear from its composition. The NDC is a body obviously superior to the Planning Commission.”
1. K.
Santhanam
B. The NDC was established as a supreme administrative and advisory body on planning . . . since their inception the NDC and its standing Committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.”
2. A. P.
Jain
C. “The NDC infringes upon functions which under the Constitution, are assigned to other bodies and attempts to do what the council of ministers at the central and the states’ levels should do.”
3. M.
Brecher
D. “The position of NDC has come to approximate to that of a Super Cabinet of the entire Indian federation, a Cabinet functioning for the Government of India and the government of all the states.”
4. Ashok Chanda Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 5
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 5 3 4 1
Ans: (c)
Q197. Which of the following were the functions of erstwhile Planning Commission?

1. To formulate development plans of state governments.
2. To secure public cooperation in national development.
3. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
4. To provide secretarial assistance to the NDC.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q198. In which of the following respects, the Finance Commission differed from the erstwhile Planning Commission?

1. Legal status
2. Composition
3. Tenure
4. Form of organisation
5. Functions
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q199. The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings was first visualised by:

(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) Lanka Sundaram
(d) Krishna Menon Committee
Ans: (c)
Q200. Match the following: List-I List-II

A. Executive authority of President – 1. Article 56
B. Tenure of President – 2. Article 55
C. Election of President – 3. Article 61
D. Impeachment of President – 4. Article 53
5. Article 54 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 4 5 2 3
(d) 4 2 5 3
Ans: (b)
Q201. Assertion: Parliamentary control over public expenditure is diminished by the creation of the Contingency Fund of India.

Reason: The Contingency Fund of India is operated by the President of India.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q202. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Vote on account — To allow enough time for legislative scrutiny and discussion of the budget.
2. Charged items — Not submitted to the Parliament.
3. Vote of credit — Blanck cheque given to the executive.
4. Excess grant — Submitted directly to the Lok Sabha for its approval
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q203. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries of the Supreme Court judges
2. Pensions of the Chairman of UPSC
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
4. Emoluments and allowances of the Prime Minister
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q204. Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?

1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.
2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.
3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semiautonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that purpose.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q205. Assertion: The device of Adjournment Motion is not used by the Rajya Sabha.

Reason: An Adjournment Motion does not result in removing the Government from office.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q206. Which of the following Lokpal Bills had Prime Minister in their jurisdiction?

1. The Lokpal Bill of 1968
2. The Lokpal Bill of 1971
3. The Lokpal Bill of 1977
4. The Lokpal Bill of 1985
5. The Lokpal Bill of 1990
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q207. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up in 1964.
2. It is a statutory body.
3. Its functions are advisory in the same sense as those of UPSC.
4. Its mode of receiving complaints is similar to that of the Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration in UK.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q208. Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct?

1. It derives its functions only from the Constitution.
2. It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.
3. The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview of consultation with UPSC.
4. The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q209. The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the:

(a) President of the board
(b) Defence Secretary
(c) Chief Secretary of the state
(d) President of India
Ans: (d)
Q210. The correct statements about municipalities include:

1. They are known by various other names in different states.
2. They are controlled by the state governments.
3. Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman.
4. They are statutory bodies.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q211. The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the states of:

1. Nagaland
2. Mizoram
3. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Meghalaya
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q212. The first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras in:

(a) 1767
(b) 1687
(c) 1667
(d) 1678
Ans: (b)
Q213. Who/which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council.

(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) State Assembly
Ans: (a)
Q214. In which of the following recommendations, the Ashok Mehta Committee differed from Balwantray Mehta Committee?

1. Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.
2. Official participation of political parties at all levels of Panchayat elections.
3. Zila Parishad as the executive body.
4. Entrusting development functions to the Zila Parishad.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q215. Under which of the following circumstances, the Governor can reserve a state bill for the consideration of the President?

1. If it is ultra vires.
2. If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under
Article 31A.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q216. Which of the following expenditures are ‘charged’ on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. Salaries and allowances of Chairman of Council of States.
2. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor-General.
3. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal.
4. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q217. The Railway budget has:

(a) 36 demands
(b) 34 demands
(c) 42 demands
(d) 32 demands
Ans: (d)
Q218. Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting?

(b) Exceptional grant
(c) Token grant
(d) Excess grant
Ans: (d)
Q219. Which of the following is not involved in the preparation of budget?

(a) Finance Ministry
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (d)
Q220. According to Administrative Reforms Commission, the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after consultation with the:

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q221. Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the President before their introduction?

1. Bills to reorganise states.
2. Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested.
3. State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade.
4. Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (b)
Q222. The Inter-State Council consists of

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Ministers of all states
3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures
4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers
5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q223. Which of the following Cabinet Committees is not chaired by the Prime Minister?

(a) Political Affairs Committee
(b) Appointments Committee
(c) Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Economic Affairs Committee
Ans: (c)
Q224. “Since their inception, the NDC and its standing committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.” This statement is associated with:

(a) K. Santhanam
(b) M. Brecher
(c) H.M. Patel
(d) Ashok Chanda
Ans: (b)
Q225. On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President?

1. The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state.
4. Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q226. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of:

(a) Shah Commission
(c) Santhanam Committee
(d) Swaran Singh Committee
Ans: (d)
Q227. Which of the following are the provisions of Article 75 of the Constitution?

1. Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of Prime Minister.
2. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.
3. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
4. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q228. The composition of National Development Council includes:

1. Chief Ministers of all the states
2. All Union Cabinet Ministers
3. Prime Minister
5. Selected Union Cabinet Ministers
6. Members of NITI Aayog
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Ans: (b)
Q229. Assertion: The Estimates Committee has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.

Reason: It is a means of legislative control over administration.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q230. Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution.

Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
Q231. Assertion: The 73rd Amendment Act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.

Reason: The Act has brought the Panchayati Raj institutions under the purview of justiciable part of the the Constitution.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)
Q232. Consider the following statements about the Governor:

1. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the state.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
3. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the President.
4. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him.
Of the above, the incorrect statements are:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q233. How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor?

(a) One-third
(b) One-twelfth
(c) One-eighth
(d) One-sixth
Ans: (d)
Q234. Assertion: A minister at the state level continues in office till he enjoys the confidence of the Chief Minister.

Reason: The Chief Minister can ask him to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q235. Which of the following are true of the recommendations of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj?

1. Creation of Mandal Panchayat covering a population of 10,000 to 15,000.
2. The state legislature to have a committee on Panchayati Raj to look after the needs of weaker sections.
3. If Panchayati Raj institutions are superseded, elections must be held within one year.
4. Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by the village development officer.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) only 2
Ans: (d)
Q236. Which of the following are true of the provisions of the 74th

Amendment Act on municipalities?
1. Wards Committees, for wards with population of two lakhs.
2. The state Governor may authorise them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes.
3. A Municipal council for smaller Urban area.
4. The Twelfth Schedule contains 20 functional items for the municipalities.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q237. Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the President.

Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q238. Assertion: The members of All-India Services work in the Central Government, state governments and union territories.

Reason: They are selected and recruited on the basis of all-India competitive examinations conducted by the UPSC.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
Q239. Which of the following are true of the Staff Selection Commission?

1. It was set up in 1976.
2. It enjoys the status of a subordinate office of Ministry of Personnel.
3. It was created by executive resolution.
4. It recruits personnel to non-technical Class III posts in the Secretariat, the attached offices and the subordinate offices in the Central Government.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q240. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Article 266 – No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
2. Article 117 – No tax can be imposed unless asked for by the executive government.
3. Article 113 – No expenditure can be sanctioned unless asked for by the executive government.
4. Article 265 – No expenditure can be incurred except with the authorisation of the legislature.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q241. Which of the following are true of the Contingency Fund of India.

1. It was created under the provisions of Article 267.
2. It was created in 1951.
3. It is held by the Finance Secretary on behalf of the President.
4. Its amount will be determined by the President.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q242. Assertion: The principle of the rule of lapse leads to ‘rush of expenditure’ towards the end of a financial year.

Reason: The unspent voted expenditure would lapse by the end of the financial year.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q243. Match the following: List-I (Parliamentary committees) List-II (Created in)

A. Committee on Government Assurances – 1. 1923
B. Committee on Public Undertakings – 2. 1953
C. Committee on Subordinate Legislation – 3. 1921
D. Public Accounts Committee – 4. 1953
5. 1964 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 2 5 4 1
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 2 5 4 3
Ans: (d)
Q244. Which of the following are true of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. It was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.
2. It does not exercise superintendence over the functioning of CBI.
3. It is set up by an executive resolution of the Government of India.
4. It consists of a chairman and three members.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q245. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national emergency by the President?

1. The President can issue directives to the state executives.
2. The President can extend the normal tenure of the Lok Sabha.
3. The President can suspend all the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
4. The President can modify the distribution pattern of financial resources between Centre and states.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q246. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) 1861 Act – Portfolio system
(c) 1935 Act – Bicameralism
(d) 1853 Act – Governor-General of India
Ans: (b)
Q247. Which of the following are true of the President’s ordinance making power?

1. It is laid down in Article 123.
2. Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament.
3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in session.
4. It is a discretionary power of the President.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (c)
Q248. Assertion: The Prime Minister’s Office influences the formulation of plans.

Reason: The PM is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q249. Match the following: List-I List-II

A. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of People.
1.
Article 74
2.
B. Duties of the Prime Minister towards the President. Article 77
C. Council of ministers to aid and advise the President.
3.
Article 76
D. All executive action of the Government of India shall be taken in the name of the President.
4.
Article 75
5.
Article 78 Codes: A B C D
(a) 4 5 1 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 5 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
Q250. Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Judicial Review
3. Federalism
4. Written Constitution
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q251. Assertion: Under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Residuary powers were vested in the Central Legislature.

Reason: The Government of India Act of 1935 divided the subjects into three lists viz. the federal, provincial and concurrent.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q252. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. Rigid Constitution
2. Bicameral legislature
3. Office of the CAG
4. Collective responsibility
5. Office of the Governor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q253. “The position of pre-eminance, accorded to Planning Commission, is inconsistent with the conception of a Cabinet form of Government.” The above state-ment is associated with:

(a) Ashok Chanda
(b) K. Santhanam
(c) Estimates Committee
Ans: (a)
Q254. Which of the following are the objectives of the National Development Council?

1. To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres.
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the Plan.
3. To review the working of the Plan from time to time.
4. To consider important questions of social and economic policy affecting develo-pment.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q255. Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson.

Reason: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India.
Select the correct code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q256. The correct statements about Finance Commission are:

1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian fiscal federalism
2. It consists of a chairman and three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President.
4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article 280.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q257. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:

1. Pocket veto
2. Absolute veto
3. Suspensive veto
4. Qualified veto
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q258. The functions of National Development Council includes:

1. To consider the national plan as formulated by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
2. To secure the cooperation of states in the execution of the plan.
3. To review the working of the plan from time to time.
4. To consider questions of social and economic policy affecting development.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q259. The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is governed by the provisions of:

(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 48th Amendment Act
(c) 54th Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
Ans: (d)
Q260. The Zonal Councils have been established by:

(a) Article 263 of the Constitution
(b) States reorganisation Act
(c) Zonal Councils Act
(d) An order of the President of India
Ans: (b)
Q261. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Parliament can increase a tax.
2. Parliament cannot reduce a tax.
3. Parliament can abolish a tax.
4. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
5. Parliament can reduce a tax.
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q262. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. It is subject to the vote of Parliament.
2. It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
3. It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
4. It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q263. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q264. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of a Governor to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President?

1. It is laid down in Article 200.
2. It is not a discretionary power of the Governor.
3. It is compulsory, if the bill endangers the position of High Court.
4. He can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q265. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Central Bureau of Investigation—1963
(b) Special Police Establishment—1942
(c) Prevention of Corruption Act—1947
(d) Central Vigilance Commission—1964
Ans: (b)
Q266. The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:

1. It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.
2. It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.
3. Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.
4. It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.
5. It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons.
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q267. Which of the following civil services find mention in the Constitution?

2. Indian Forest Service
3. Indian Police Service
4. All-India Judicial Service
5. Indian Foreign Service
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q268. In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?

1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.
3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q269. Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?

1. Classification of services
2. Promotion
3. Training
4. Disciplinary matters
5. Talent hunting
(a) 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the respective lists.
Ans: (c)
Q270.

List-I List-II
A. Tax belonging to the state exclusively. – 1. Excise duties on medicinal preparations
B. Duties levied as well as collected by the Union, but assigned to the states. – 2. Surcharge on taxes
C. Tax belonging to the Centre exclusively.
3. Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter-state trade.
D. Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states.
4. Taxes on non-agricultural income
5. Sales Tax.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3
(b) 4 3 5 2
(c) 5 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans: (c)
Q271.

List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861. – 1. Introduced Dyarchy
B. Government of India
Act of 1919
2. Placed Indian affairs under the direct control of the British Government.
C. Indian Councils Act of 1892 – 3. Introduced representative institutions.
D. Pitts India Act of 1784 – 4. Introduced provincial autonomy.
5. Introduced the principle of election.
Codes: A B C D
(a) 5 1 3 2
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 5
(d) 3 1 5 2
Ans: (d)
Q272. Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body.

Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q273. Assertion: The Constitution of India in quasi-federal.

Reason: It has given more powers to the Central Government than to the state governments.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)
Q274. Assertion: The Chief Minister can dismiss a minister of state government.

Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern
A
nswer the following questions by using the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)
Q275. Which of the following are correct with regard to the functions of the UPSC?

1. To conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.
2. To assist states, if requested, in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required.
3. To advise the Union and state governments on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
4. To present, annually, to the President a report as to the work done by it.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q276. Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quowarranto
(d) Injunction
Ans: (d)

Constitutional Framework and Citizenship

MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. Constituent Assembly which framed India’s Constitution was set up by:

(a) Indian Independence Act
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan – 1946
(d) Queen’s Proclamation
Ans: (c)
Q2. ______________ headed the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ?

(a) Sachchidanand Sinha
(b) B.N. Rao
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
Q3. _________ is borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany by the Indian Constitution

(a) A federation with a strong centre
(b) System of presidential elections
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) Suspension of fundamental rights during Emergency
Ans: (d)
Q4. Preamble borrows the ideals of “liberty, equality and fraternity from:

(a) Russian Revolution
(b) Irish Revolution
(c) French Revolution
(d) American Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q5. Preamble enshrines ideals spelt out in:

(a) Speech by Nehru on the banks of Ravi calling for Purna Swaraj.
(b) Nehru Report
(c) Resolution adopted at the Karachi session of the Congress Party
(d) Objectives Resolution of the Constituent Assembly
Ans: (d)
Q6. States Reorganisation Act created ___ states and ___ Union Territories.

(a) 14; 7
(b) 14; 6
(c) 15; 7
(d) 15; 6
Ans: (b)
Q7. The Constitution bestows ____ citizenship on Indian citizens.

(a) Single
(b) dual
(c) Federal
(d) Three
Ans: (a)
Q8. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas coincides with:

(a) Gandhiji’s becoming a lawyer in South Africa
(b) Gandhiji’s return from South Africa
(c) Beginning of civil disobedience movement
(d) India’s proclamation as a republic
Ans: (b)
Q9. Which portfolio was held by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in the Interim Government formed in the year 1946?

(a) Defence
(b) External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations
(c) Food and Agriculture
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q10. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1909 Act – Principle of election
(b) 1919 Act – Provincial autonomy
(c) 1935 Act – Dyarchy in states
(d) 1947 Act – Responsible government
Ans: (d)
Q11. Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by:

(a) Indian Councils Act of 1892
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1871
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(d) Indian Councils Act of 1882
Ans: (c)
Q12. Which act provided for direct control of Indian affairs by the British Government?

(a) Charter Act of 1858
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitts India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of l833
Ans: (c)
Q13. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre
(b) 1861 Act – Portfolio system
(c) 1935 Act – Bicameralism
(d) 1853 Act – Governor-General of India
Ans: (b)
Q14. The Constituent Assembly, which framed the Indian Constitution, was set up in

(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Ans: (d)
Q15. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) States Reorganization : Andhra Pradesh Act
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a state
Ans: (d)
Q16. Constitutional government stand for

(a) limited government
(b) a government limited by the desires and capacities of those who exercise power.
(c) a government run according to general laws known to the people
(d) a government run by people’s representatives.
Ans: (a)
Q17. Which items is wrongly matched?

(a) December 9, 1947 Constituent Assembly’sFirst meeting
(b) November 26, 1949 The people of India adopted,enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution
(c) January 24, 1950 The Constitution was signedby the members of theConstituent Assembly
(d) January 26, 1950 the date of commencement of the Constitution
Ans: (a)
Q18. Which features and source are WRONGLY matched?

(a) Judicial review – British practice
(b) Concurrent List – Australian Constitution
(c) Directive Principles – Irish Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
Ans: (a)
Q19. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?

(a) The Union Cabinet
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Law Commission
Ans: (b) The parliament may regulate the right of citizenship of India through the amendment of citizenship act.

(a) Delivering a national of another country for the trial of offences
(b) To block the trade of other countries with a particular country
(c) Forcing a person to leave the country of which he is a citizen
(d) To force foreign national to leave the country
Ans: (a)
Q21. “Referendum” has an integral relationship with

(a) Indirect democracy
(b) Limited monarchy
(c) Direct democracy
(d) People’s courts
Ans: (c)
Q22. Which of the following statements best describe in systems of liberal democracy?

(a) Liberal democratic political systems only occur in highly industrialised societies.
(b) The same political party holds power continuously in liberal democratic regimes.
(c) Liberal democratic governments prevent their citizens from travelling abroad.
(d) Liberal democratic governments protect basic civil liberties.
Ans: (d) Civil liberties are the rights held by citizens of a country. In liberal democracies citizens have rights such as freedom of speech, freedom of association e.g. to join a trade union, freedom to choose their political representatives.
Q23. The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the preamble to the constitution of India expresses

(a) social, political and religious justice
(b) social, economic and cultural justice
(c) social, economic and political justice
(d) economic and political justice
Ans: (c) The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the preamble to the constitution of India expresses social, economic and political justice.
Q24. In which case the supreme court evolved the concept of ‘Basic Structure of Constitution’?

(a) Golak Nath case
(c) Kishana Nanda Bharti case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (c)
Q25. By which amendment of the constitution, the Word ‘Socialist’ was incorporated in the preamble of the constitution?

(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44thAmendment
(c) 25th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q26. Which one of the following rights has been described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the constitution’?

(a) Right of Equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (d)
Q27. Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related to panchayti Raj ?

(a) II Schedule
(b) VIII Schedule
(c) X Schedule
(d) XI Schedule
Ans: (d)
Q28. Which term is not used in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?

(a) Republic
(b) Integrity
(c) Federal
(d) Socialist
Ans: (d)
Q29. The source of the basic structure theory of the constitution of India is

(a) the constitution
(b) opinion of jurists
(c) indicial interpretation
(d) parliamentary statutes
Ans: (c)
Q30. The provision of the sixth schedule shall not apply in which one of the following states?

(a) Meghalaya
(b) Tripura
(c) Mizoram
(d) Goa
Ans: (d)
Q31. Which one of the following is not related to the constitutional Government ?

(a) Coalition Government
(b) Presidential Government
(c) Hierarchy Government
(d) Federal Government
Ans: (c)
Q32. The Indian constitution is divided into

(a) 16 chapters
(b) 22 chapters
(c) 24 chapters
(d) 25 chapters
Ans: (b)
Q33. Which of the states of Indian federation has a separate constitution ?

(a) Goa
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans: (c) The state of Jammu & Kashmir of Indian federation has a separate constitution. Article 370 of the Indian constitution, which is of a temporary nature, grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir. Under Part XXI of the Constitution of India, which deals with “Temporary, Transitional and Special provisions”, the State of Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status under Article 370.
Q34. Which one of the following is not a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Indian constitution ?

(a) Rule of law
(b) Secularism
(c) Republican form of government
(d) Parliamentary form of government
Ans: (d)
Q35. The philosophical foundation of the Indian constitution is

(a) Directive principle of state policy
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Federal Structure
(d) Preamble
Ans: (d)
Q36. Which article of Indian constitution declares Devnagri Hindi as an official language of India?

(a) Article 343
(b) Article 348
(c) Article 154
(d) Article 156
Ans: (a)
Q37. Which of the following gave the idea of constituent Assembly for India?

(a) Simon Commission
(b) Rajaji Formula
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Wavell Plan
Ans: (c) Cabinet mission plan gave the idea of constituent Assembly for India. In 1946, British Prime Minister Clement Attlee formulated a cabinet mission to India to discuss and finalize plans for the transfer of power from the British Raj to Indian leadership as well as provide India with independence under Dominion status in the Commonwealth of Nations. The Mission discussed the framework of the constitution and laid down in some detail the procedure to be followed by the constitution drafting body.
Q38. Who amongst the following was not a member of the drafting committee of the constitution?

(b) K.M. Munshi
(c) A.K. Ayyar
(d) J.L. Nehru
Ans: (d)
Q39. The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with

(a) Anti-defection Legislation
(b) Panchayti Raj
(c) Land Reforms
(d) Distribution of powers between the union and states
Ans: (a) The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with anti-defection Legislation. Tenth Schedule (Articles 102 (2) and 191 (2)) —”Anti-defection” provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.
Q40. The number of official languages recognized under 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution is

(a) Sixteen
(b) Seventeen
(c) Twenty
(d) Twenty Two
Ans: (d)
Q41. How many articles are there in the Indian constitution?

(a) 395
(b) 396
(c) 398
(d) 399
Ans: (a)
Q42. The feature of Indian constitution borrowed from South African constitution is:

(a) Procedure established by law
(b) Procedure for amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members
(c) Method of election of President
(d) Joint Sitting of the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q43. The words justice in the form of social, economic and political justice present in the Preamble has been taken from

(a) American Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q44. The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42nd amendment are:

(a) Socialist
(b) Secular
(c) Integrity
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Q45. Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution?

(a) Berubari Union case
(b) Kesavananda Bharati case
(c) Golaknath case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (b)
Q46. Which statements are correct?

(a) Originally the constitution had 14 languages in the 8th schedule.
(b) Currently there are 22 languages with the last amendment being the 92nd amendment.
(c) both correct
(d) both wrong
Ans: (c)
Q47. Which statements are correct?

(a) Article 2 of the constitution gives the right to the government to create new states into the Union of India which are not part of India already.
(b) Article 3 gives the power to the government to change the boundaries of the state within India.
(c) both correct
(d) both wrong
Ans: (c)
Q48. The parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties?

(a) with the consent of all the states
(b) with the consent of majority of states
(c) with the consent of state concerned
(d) without the consent of any state.
Ans: (d) Act 253- Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the country or territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body without the consent of any state.
Q49. Under which one of the following constitution amendment act, four languages were added to the languages under the eighth schedule of the constitution of India thereby, raising their number to 22?

(a) 90th Amendment Act
(b) 91st Amendment Act
(c) 92nd Amendment Act
(d) 93rd Amendment Act
Ans: (c) Under the constitutional (Ninety-second amendment) Act, four languages Bodo, Dogri, Santhali and Maithali were added to languages under the eight schedule of the constitution of India thereby raising the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22.
Q50. Who among the following was the advisor of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) B. Shiva Rao
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Sachidananda Sinha
(d) B.N. Rao
Ans: (d) The advisor of the drafting committee of the constituent assembly was Sir B.N. Rao.
Q51. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the

(b) Weimar Constitution of Germany
(c) Constitution of Ireland
(d) Constitution of the USA
Ans: (b) the idea of including the emergency provisions in the Con¬stitution of India has been borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
Q52. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection?

(a) 8th Schedule
(b) 7th Schedule
(c) Schedule
(d) 10th Schedule
Ans: (d) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amend¬ment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
Q53. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three lists that divide powers between the Union and the sates?

(a) Fifth
(b) Sixth
(c) Seventh
(d) Eigth
Ans: (c) 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions be¬tween Union & States. It contains 3 lists:Union List (97 Subjects) States List (66 subjects) Concurrent List (52 subjects)
Q54. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Ans: (b) Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll (Article 5-11) of the constitution.
Q55. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(d) T Krishnamachari
Ans: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime Minister of India on 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other members for his cabinet in which B. R. Ambedkar was the first law minister of India.
Q56. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?

(a) R K Shanmukham Chetty
(b) John Mathai
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
Ans: (c) Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947.
Q57. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?

(a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
(b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
Ans: (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation trade or business is also available to non citizens.
Q58. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India read with
(a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation laws
(b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
(c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
(d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status
Ans: (d) Traffic in human beings and beggars and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contraven¬tion of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law . The terms ‘Socialist’ was added by the 42nd Amendment and assert that the government must adopt socialistic policies to ensure decent life for all Indian citizens. Thus, the word Socialist in the preamble of the Constitution of India read with Article 23.
Q59. The Constitution of India is republican because it

(a) provides for an elected Parliament
(c) contains a bill of rights
(d) has no hereditary elements
Ans: (a) The constitution of India is republican because it provides for an elected parliament.
Q60. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it

(b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers
(c) is a source of power and limitation
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution
Ans: (b) The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation be¬cause it contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers.
Q61. Which one among the following was not a proposal of the Cabinet Mission, 1946?

(a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on the democratic principle of population strength
(b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States
(c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were to be indians
(d) British Goverment was to supervise the affairs of the Constituent Assembly
Ans: (d) The Cabinet mission arrived on March 24, 1946. The ob¬jective of this mission was to:• Devise a machinery to draw up the constitution of In¬dependent India.• Make arrangements for interim Government.• Thus the mission was like a declaration of India’s in¬dependence.• British Government was to supervise the affairs of the constituent Assembly, was not the aim of the mission.
Q62. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’.

The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr B R Ambedkar
(d) Acharya J B Kriplani
Ans: (b) On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was ap¬pointed with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six other members assisted by a constitutional advi¬sor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft Consti¬tution was prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947. This is Ambedkar’s sec¬ond argument rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system.
Q63. Which among the following features of a federal system is not found in the Indian Political System ?

(a) Dual citizenship
(b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State Governments
(c) Supremacy of the Constitution
(d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (a) Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political system. The Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered in Section 9 (1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that any citizen of India who by naturalisation or registration acquires the citizenship of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India. Indian Government has started OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005. According tothe scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin (POI) and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take up benefits of OCI scheme, which gives you the same travel and residence privileges like other Indians but you are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government sector.
Q64. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the following States is not covered under this Schedule ?

(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Tripura
Ans: (b) Tribal areas generally mean areas having preponderance of tribal population. However, the Constitution of India refers tribal areas within the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as those areas specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule.
Q65. In the following quotation,

“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”,
‘X’ stands for:
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) The Constitution of India was enacted on Nov. 26, 1949 but it was commenced on Jan. 26, 1950.
Q66. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (d) Tenth schedule was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for anti-defection law.
Q67. The Constitution of India recognises:

(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Ans: (c) The Constitution of India recognizes religious and lin¬guistic minorities under article 29 and 30 (Cultural and Educational rights) . However it does not define the term Minority.
Q68. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.
Q69. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth
Ans: (a) First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that’s why it should be amended, if a new state is created.
Q70. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:

(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
Ans: (a) Ninth Schedule was added by First Amendment Act of 1951, which relates to Land Reforms.
Q71. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Ans: (a) The ‘First Schedule’ of the constitution deals with list of States and Union Territories.
Q72. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d) Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament) .
Q73. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains :

Special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Ans: (b) Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. While Sixth Schedule deals with administration and control of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
Q74. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Ans: (c) 92nd Amendment Act 2003 added Bodo, Santhali, Mai¬thali and Dogri languages in the 8th Schedule of the Con¬stitution. Originally there were 14 languages in the 8th schedule. 21st amendment act added Sindhi language. 71st amendment act added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali lan¬guages.
Q75. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (c) Distribution of power between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Government of India Act. 1935.
Q76. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (d) The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, added 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often referred to as anti-defection law.
Q77. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

[IAS Prelims 2015]
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Ans: (a) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in these areas. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Q78. The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

(a) social reforms [IAS Prelims 2016]
(b) educational reforms
(d) constitutional reforms
Ans: (d) (i) The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms were reforms introduced by the British Government in India to intro¬duce self-governing institutions gradually to India. The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report prepared in 1918 and formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919. (ii) They’re related to Constitutional reforms.
MCQs Difficulty Level-2
Q1. Indian Constitution establishes a secular state meaning that:

1. State treats all religions equally
2. Freedom of faith and worship
3. Educational bodies can impart religious instructions
4. State does not discriminate on the basis of religion
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q2. What facts emerges from the Preamble?

1. When the Constitution was enacted
2. Ideals that were to be achieved .
3. System of government
4. Source of authority
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q3. Which statement is correct?

1. Territory of the constituents of the Indian federation may be altered by the Parliament by a simple majority.
2. Consent of the State Legislature is necessary before the Parliament alters boundaries.
3. President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing any Bill on redrawing the boundary of a State.
4. President must have State’s opinion before altering the name of the State.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q4. _____ gives the Indian Constitution a unitary bias?

1. Rigidity of the amendment process
2. Written Constitution
3. Same Constitution for Centre and States
4. Fixed State boundaries
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
Q5. Consider the following statements :

1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of ruling India directly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q6. The salient features of the Government of India Act, 1935 are:

1. All India Federation
2. Provincial Autonomy
3. Dyarchy at the Centre
4. Abolition of Dyarchy in the states
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q7. The features of Government of lndia Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.
2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.
3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.
4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General.
5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q8. The features of Indian parliamentary system are:

1. Independent judiciary.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
3. A written Constitution.
4. Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
5. Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which of the following are the federal features of the Indian Constitution?

1. Rigid Constitution 2. Bicameralleg legislature
3. Office of the CAG 4. Collective responsibility
5. Office of the Governor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q10. The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of the following officials are mentioned in the third schedule of the Indian constitution?

1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
2. The Chief Election Commissioner
3. The Chief Justice of a High Court
4. The Attorney General
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (d) The forms of oaths or affirmations, in the third schedule of the Indian constitution, are mentioned for the given officials. Third Schedule (Articles 75 (4) , 99, 124 (6) , 148 (2) , 164 (3) , 188 and 219) .
Q11. Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:

1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.
(a) 1, 2, 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (d)
Q12. Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935:

1. Office of the Governor.
2. Emergency Provisions.
3. Legislative Procedure.
4. Bicameralism.
5. Federation with a strong center.
(a) 1, 2 & 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 & 5 only
(c) 1 & 2 only
(d) None of the above options are correct
Ans: (c)
Q13. Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble:

1. Socialist 2. Secular
3. Republic
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 1 only.
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which of the following statements are incorrect:

1. The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
2. Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3. Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only.
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (d)
Q15. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Q16. Choose the correct statements from below:

1. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company.
2. The Pitt’s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
3. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company’s territories in India as British possessions.
4. Pitt’s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.
(a) Only 1,2,3 is correct
(b) Only 1,3,4 is correct
(c) Only 1,4 is correct
(d) All are correct
Ans: (c)

1. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India.
2. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
3. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
4. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police Act,1861.
(a) Only 1,2 is correct
(b) Only 1,3 is correct
(c) Only 1,2,3 is correct
(d) 1,2,3,4 is correct
Ans: (c)
Q18. Consider following statements

1. Chattisgarh was formed by the Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act.
2. Himachal Pradesh was first UT to become a State
3. Manipur was the first to become a UT choice
(a) Only 1 and 2 correct.
(b) Only 2 and 3 correct.
(c) Only 1 and 3 correct
(d) all correct.
Ans: (b)
Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q20. Which among the following statements is/are the feature(s) of a Federal state ?

1. The power of the central and the state (Constituent Unit) Government are clearly laid down.
2. It has an unwritten constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q21. Which of the following statements is/are not violative of the principle of federalism?

1. The President of India takes over administration of provinces under the emergency provisions.
2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.
3. The distribution of powers between the Union and Provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b) The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. The distribution of powers between the Union and Provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.
Q22. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System is/are correct?

1. In a federation, two sets of governments co- exist and there is distribution of power.
2. There is a written constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
Ans: (c) Federal government is the common government of a federation. There is more than one level of government which run according overlapping and shared power is prescribed by a constitution.
Q23. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are correct ?

1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
2. The words ‘secular’ and ‘socialist’ have been a part of the Preamble since its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document.
Q24. Consider the following statements

1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents, considered citizen of India by birth if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth. The citizenship of India is mentioned in Articles 5 to 11 (Part II) .
Q25. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be provided in India?

1. One should be born in India.
2. Either of whose parents was born in India
3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than five years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and (i) who was born in the territory of India; or (ii) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or (iii) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years preceding such commencement, shall be a citizen of India.
Q26. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?

1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
Ans: (a) All statements are correct.
Q27. What is/are the major difference/differences between a written and an unwritten Constitution?

1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten Constitution is not the formal source.
2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas an unwritten Constitution is not.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) A written constitution is one which is found in one or more than one legal documents duly enacted in the form of laws. It is precise, definite and systematic and codified. An unwritten constitution is one in which most of the principles of the government have never been enacted in the form of laws. It consists of customs, conventions, traditions and some written laws bearing different dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic, indefinite and unprecise. So, Written Constitution is the formal source of all constitutional laws and Unwritten Constitution is not the formal source.
Q28. Consider the following statements

1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies.
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North- Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected legislative assemblies and the executive councils of ministers.
Q29. The Government of India Act, 1919

1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre.
2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive.
3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d) This act made the central legislature bicameral. The first house which was central legislature with 145 members (out of which 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called central Legislative Assembly and second with 60 members (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was called Council of States. It introduced Diarchy in the provincial executive. Federal system of Government was introduced in India by The Government of India Act 1935.
Q30. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.

1. Sovereign democratic republic.
2. Socialism and secularism.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a) According to the preamble of Indian Constitution, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic Republic. Capitalism and free trade is not enshrined in the preamble of the Indian constitution.
Q31. The citizenship means

1. full civil and political rights of the citizens.
2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state.
3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part II of the Indian constitution (articles 5-11) .
Q32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans: (a) The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment 1951 to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However in 2007 Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in it after 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial review.
Q33. Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003 ?

1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country.
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India.
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c) It does not permit the OCI to vote in general election in India. On the occasion of first Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas on 9th January 2003, former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee had made an announcement for grant of dual citizenship to PIOs. The necessary Legislation was introduced by the Government of India in Parliament in May 2003.
Q34. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (d) Article 371 A to I deals with special provisions to -Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.
Q35. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has 40 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) The Constitution of India has 24 parts, 12 schedules and more than 444 articles at present. In the original constitution, there were 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
Q36. Match the following

List-I
(Schedule in the Constitution of India)
(a) Form associations; 44th
(b) Property; 44th
(c) against exploitation; 42nd
(d) private property; 42nd
Ans: (b) Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of defection.Schedule Vlll contains List of 22 languages of India recognized by Constitution.Schedule l deals with the List of States & Union Territories.Schedule X Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax, railways, and industries. Added by Ist amendment in 1951. Laws under Schedule IX are beyond the purview of judicial review even though they violate fundamental rights enshrined under part III of the Constitution.

Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy

MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of

(a) President or a Governor
(b) Foreign sovereigns only
(c) President only
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q3. Constitution permits preventive detention but stipulates that:

(a) no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises further detention.
(b) grounds for detention should be conveyed to the person before arresting him
(c) the person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q4. ______ can impose reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights of Indians?

(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of these as restrictions are provided in the Constitution
Ans: (b)
Q5. Enforcement of Directive Principles depends on

(a) Courts
(b) Effective opposition in the Parliament
(c) Resources available to the Government
(d) Public cooperation
Ans: (c)
Q6. If the State implements a Directive Principle calling for equitable distribution of material resources it

(a) is put in the Ninth Schedule
(b) is not void even if it violates the rights in Articles 14 and 19
(c) can be struck down by the Supreme Court on grounds of violating Fundamental Rights
(d) is not void if it violates a fundamental right
Ans: (b)
Q7. A new fundamental duty was included in Part IV A under Article 51 A through Constitutional Amendment numbered

(a) Forty-Second
(b) Forty-Fourth
(c) Eighty-Sixth
(d) Ninety-Second
Ans: (a)
Q8. Right to Information Act, 2005 is :

(a) A fundamental right under the Constitution
(b) Available only to citizens
(c) Applicable for all public and private bodies
(d) Applicable for all states
Ans: (b)
Q9. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?

(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans: (a) Article 24 of the constitution states that, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
Q10. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution

(a) to make the fundamental rights more effective
(b) to check anti-national, subversive and unconstitutional agitations
(c) to accord priority to the directive principles over fundamental rights
(d) to achieve all the above objectives
Ans: (b)
Q11. A fundamental Right guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by

(a) a proclamation of national emergency
(b) an Act passed by the Parliament
(c) an amendment of the Constitution
(d) the judicial decision of the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q12. “The state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice–social, economic and political–shall inform all the institutions of the national life.” This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Article 39
(b) Article 46
(c) Article 38
(d) Article 37
Ans: (c)
Q13. The Directive Principles of State Policy are incorporated in

(a) Part III (Articles 36-51)
(b) Part IV (Articles 36-51)
(c) Part V (Articles 19-21)
(d) Part II (Articles 36-56)
Ans: (b)
Q14. A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the supreme court or high court which

(a) affects the production and consumption of liquor
(b) prohibits the police from arresting a person
(c) forbids the administrative authority from taking a particular action
(d) prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceeding with a case
Ans: (d)
Q15. The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution withdrew the Fundamental Right:

(a) to freedom of religion
(b) to constitutional remedies
(c) to property
(d) against exploitation
Ans: (c) The 44th Amendment of the Indian constitution removed the right to property from the list of fundamental right and made it an ordinary right.
Q16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Power of : Creating a newParliament State
(b) Power of State : Altering the nameLegislature of a State
(c) Equality before : Both Indian andthe law non-Indian citizens
(d) Equality of : Indian citizenopportunity
Ans: (b) In the case of altering the name of a state, requires approval of Union Cabinet and Parliament under article 3 and 4 of the constitution.
Q17. Which one of the following is not included in Article 19 of the constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to Freedom?

(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(b) Right to form associations or unions
(c) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(d) Right to assemble peacefully and without arms
Ans: (c)
Q18. What are the Directive principles State policy?

(a) The main objectives of the framers of the Constitution
(b) The principles that are expected to guide the state in the governance of the country
(c) The ideals of a Welfare State that should be accept-able to all right-thinking persons.
(d) Social rights are opposed to personal rights, enumerated in Part III.
Ans: (b)
Q19. Which one of the following is not a correct statement in relation to the provisions of the Indian Constitution?

(a) No person shall be convicated of any offence except for violation of law in force at the time of commission
(b) No person shall be denied bail
(c) No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once
(d) No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
Ans: (b)
Q20. Which of the following Fundamental Duties have been enumerated in our Constitution for the citizens?

(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q21. Which one of the following is incorrect?

(a) Our Constitution does not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of his religion, in matters of employment to public services or holding public offices
(b) Our Constitution does not prohibit the imparting of religlous instruction in educational institutions run by the Government
(c) The Constitution of India guarantees to all the citizens of India the right to profess, practise and propagate a religion of their choice
(d) No person can be made to pay taxes for the promotion of any particular religion under our Constitution
Ans: (b)
Q22. Article 21 declares that –

“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
The protection under article 21 is:
(a) Against arbitrary legislative action.
(b) Against arbitrary executive action.
(c) Both A & B.
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q23. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

(a) Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
(b) Certiorari & Mandamus.
(c) Prohibition & Mandamus.
(d) Prohibition & Certiorari.
Ans: (b)
Q24. The Preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on:

(a) Right of Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Religion
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (b)
Q25. Reasonable restriction on the rights of Indian citizens can be imposed by:

(a) the President
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Supreme Court
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q26. Under which Article of the Constitution can an individual move the Supreme Court directly in case of any violation of a Fundamental Right?

(a) Article 13
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 34
Ans: (c)
Q27. Freedom of speech under the Indian constitution is subject to reasonable restriction on the grounds of protection of

(a) sovereignty and integrity of the country
(b) the dignity of the office of the Prime Minister
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
Q28. Cultural and Educational rights include:

(a) Right of minorities to establish and administer their educational enstitutions
(b) Right of minorities to promote their language
(c) Right against discrimination for admission to educational institutions on the grounds of religion, race or caste
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)
Q29. The granting of fundamental rights to citizens aims at ensuring:

(a) an independent judiciary
(b) socialistic government
(c) individual liberty
(d) none of these
Ans: (c)
Q30. Which fundamental right is concerned with abolition of social distinctions?

(a) Right to equality
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to life and liberty
(d) Cultural and educational rights
Ans: (a)
Q31. The Fundamental Rights have the sanction of:

(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the Constitution
(c) majority opinion
(d) the Government
Ans: (b)
Q32. How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?

(a) If Parliament passes a law by two-thirds majority
(b) If the Supreme Court orders it
(c) If the President orders it in the time of National Emergency
(d) They can never be suspended
Ans: (c)
Q33. Which one of the following writs literally means ‘we command’?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b)
Q34. In India, Mandamus will lie against:

(a) officers bound to do a public duty
(b) Government
(c) both officers and the Government
(d) none of these
Ans: (c)
Q35. The writ of prohibition issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court is issued against:

(a) judicial or quasi-judicial authorities
Ans: (a)
Q36. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty ?

(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a) To vote in public elections is not a fundamental duty.
Q37. The authority to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights rests with whom?

(a) All the courts in India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The President of India
Ans: (c)
Q38. How can the Fundamental Rights be protected by a citizen?

(a) By approaching the Supreme Court which will issue appropriate writs against the authority
(b) Parliament will take note of such violations and tell the courts
(c) The Executive will inform the Courts
(d) It is automatically protected
Ans: (a)
Q39. Can Parliament amend or modify any of the Fundamental Rights given in the Constitution?

(a) Parliament can do so only after a referendum
(b) Parliament can amend them by special majority
(c) Parliament cannot amend any
(d) Only the President can issue directions to amend them
Ans: (b)
Q40. Right to participate in government and equal opportunity to occupy the highest office based on qualification gives the citizens:

(a) national liberty
(b) political liberty
(c) natural liberty
(d) civil liberty
Ans: (a)
Q41. A citizen’s freedom of speech and expression may be subjected to reasonable restriction on the grounds of all except:

(a) sovereignty of India
(b) public order
(c) contempt of court
(d) unbecoming criticism
Ans: (d)
Q42. The Indian Constitution declares that protection of life and liberty:

(a) can never be taken away in any condition
(b) can be taken away only according to procedure established by law
(c) can be taken away during the Emergency through Presidential order
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b)
Q43. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) The Preamble to the Constitution of India in its introductory statement says- “Justice- Social, Economic and Political” and the Directive Principles of state policies aim to create social and economic condition under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.
Q44. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of village panchayats?

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 40
(d) Article 246
Ans: (c)
Q45. The Instrument of Instructions on the Government of India Act 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Emergency Provisions
Ans: (d) The instrument of instructions on the government of India act 1935 has been incorporated in the constitution of India in the year 1950 as an emergency provisions.
Q46. Freedom of the press in India is

(a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution
(c) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(d) available to the people of India under executive order
Ans: (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the right of Freedom of Expression.
Q47. Right to Information in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Both Fundamental and Legal Right
(d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
Ans: (a)
Q48. Which one among the following statements is correct ?

The press in democracy must
(a) be free and impartial
(b) be committed to the policies of the government
(c) highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its policies
(d) criticize the policies of the government
Ans: (a) A press in democracy must be free and impartial.
Q49. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the right to freedom’?

(a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion
(b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women
(c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q50. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts
(b) Directive Principles have a political sanction
(c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for State Legislation
(d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians
Ans: (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for creating a social order characterized by social, economic, and political justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as enunciated in the constitution’s preamble. It does not promise equal income and free healthcare for all Indians.
Q51. Which one of the following International Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified?

(a) Convention on the right of the child.
(b) Convention on the Elimination of all forms of discrimination against women
(c) Convention on the political rights of women
(d) Convention on the nationality of married women
Ans: (d) Convention on the nationality of married women has been signed by India but not yet ratified.
Q52. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India?

(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Housing
Ans: (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. This is recognized in the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right that includes the right to free, compulsory primary education for all.
Q53. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on Indian soil?

(a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to procedure established by law
(d) To practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
Ans: (c) According to article 21 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The Supreme Court of India on 19 June 2013 in its decision established that right to life and liberty, enshrined under Article 21 of the Constitution, is available to foreign nationals also.
Q54. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore, universally guarantees education to all citizens of India.
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015.
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world.
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Ans: (d) The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved in 2002 providing free and compulsory education to all children age 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Article 21 (a) in the Indian constitution making education a fundamental right.
Q55. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?

(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (c) The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right.
Q56. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to

(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels.
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a) The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is to lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution. The Directive Principles may be said to contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive principles are broad directives given to the state in accordance with which the legislative and executive powers of the state are to be exercised.
Q57. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Ans: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and State government of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure the performance of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.
Q58. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?

(a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
Ans: (c) The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article 51 (a) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental Duty in Article 51 (a) of the constitution of India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen of India.
Q59. Which one among the following writs literally means you many have the body?

(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (b) Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have the body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to obtain immediate release from an unlawful confinement.
Q60. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?

(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) To practice family planning and to control population
Ans: (d) To practise family planning and to control population, is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.
Q61. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court

(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial
Ans: (a) The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it.
Q62. Which one among the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India?

(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Information
Ans: (d) RTI act was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully into force on 12 October 2005.It has been given the status of a fundamental right under Article 19 (a) of the Constitution. Article 19 (a) under which every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and have the right to know how the government works, what role does it play, what are its functions and so on.
Q63. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of citizens under the Constitution of India?

(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To visit the monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the religions of India
Ans: (c) One of the fundamental duties is to “defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.”
Q64. Which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India
(b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order
Ans: (c) The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part lll and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
Q65. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such?

(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
(c) Freedom of association and union
(d) Freedom of the press
Ans: (d) The constitution of India does not specifically mention the freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied from the Article 19 (a) (a) of the Constitution.
Q66. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned ?

(a) Members of the armed forces
(b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order
(c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up in the country
(d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set up for maintenance of public order
Ans: (a) Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned.
Q67. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution ?

(a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right.
(c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian Constitution’.
(d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been violated.
Ans: (d) Under Article 226,a High Court can issue these writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for the redress of any other injury or illegality, owing to contravention of the ordinary law.
Q68. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:

(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Ans: (d) The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.
Q69. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the [IAS Prelims 2014]

(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b) Promotion of international peace and security is included in the Directive Principles of State as Article 51 of constitution that mentions to promote international peace and security and maintain just an honourable relations between nations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlements of international disputes by arbitration.
Q70. The ideal of Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its [IAS Prelims 2015]

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. The Directive Principles of State Policy is guidelines/ principles given to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
MCQs Difficulty Level-2
Q1. What does not explain the reason for the rights included in Part III of the Constitution being called ‘fundamental’?

1. They are available to both citizens and aliens
2. They are above ordinary law
3. They are fundamental to governance.
4. They are not absolute
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q2. _____ comes under Right to Equality?

1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race
2. Equal protection before law
3. Equal pay for equal work
4. Equality of opportunity in employment provided by the State
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q3. ________ are wrongly matched?1. Habeas corpus – literally means ‘to have a body’2. Mandaums – commands a person to perform a public duty issued to a lower court to stop proceedings in a case3. Quo warranto – ‘by what authority’ issued against a person holding a public office or governmental privilege.4. Prohibition – issued to a lower court quashing a decision or orderWhich of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q4. ____ is the “socialistic” Directive Principles

1. Prevention of concentration of wealth
2. Right to work
3. Separation of judiciary and executive
4. Organising agriculture along scientific research
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q5. Which statement does not indicate the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?

1. Directive Principles aim at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights protect individuals from State encroachment
2. Fundamental Rights put limitations on State action but Directive Principles are positive instructions to the Government to move towards a just socio-economic order
3. Fundamental Rights were the terminate six months at most the period till the date for presidential election is notified included in the original constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first amendment
4. Fundamental Rights can be amended but Directive Principles cannot be amended
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which are among the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution?

1. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture
2. To abide by the Constitution
3. To strive for excellence in scientific research
4. To render national service
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q7. Consider the following statements :

1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q8. The correct statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.
4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1,3,4 and 5
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q9. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:

1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q10. Which of the following are envisaged by the right against exploitation in the constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q11. Which of the followings is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q12. In which of the following cases the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?

1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (c)
Q13. Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.

1. Right to Education.
2. Right to Information.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q15. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.

1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.
Correct statement(s) is/are:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both.
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q16. Which of the following right(s) is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q17. The directive principles were made non – justifiable and legally non – enforceable because:

1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q18. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (b)
Q19. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q20. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right.
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) Article 26 of the Indian Constitution states freedom to manage religious affairs subject to public order, moralityand health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion; (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with law
Q21. Consider the following statements.

1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”.
Q22. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?

(a) 1965
(b) 1976
(c) 1979
(d) 1982
Ans: (b) The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They were originally ten in number, but by the 86th Amendment in 2002 they were increased to eleven.
Q23. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct?

1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d) The fundamental duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The fundamental duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV (a) . The fundamental duties however are non-justifiable in character. This means that no citizen can be punished by a court for violation of a fundamental duty.
Q24. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights which follow from some other provision in the Constitution.
2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) According to Article 32, when an individual feels that he has been “unduly deprived” of his fundamental rights, he can move the Supreme Court and seek justice. Apart from the Supreme Court, the High Courts also have the power to protect fundamental rights. Like the apex court, they also can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights of the citizens. Both courts can issue five different writs – Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto.
Q25. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct?

1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially.
2. Write of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but based on wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move this writ to a higher court like supreme court or High Court. The writ of certiorari issued to subordinate judicial or quasi judicial body when they act.• Without or in excess of jurisdiction• In violation of the prescribed procedure• In contravention of principles of natural justice• Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record.
Q26. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c) Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution safeguard women and children and others against exploitation of various forms.Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human trafficking a punishable offence.Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines.
Q27. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto?

1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) All the conditions given in the question are necessary for issuing writ of quo warranto. The conditions necessary for the issue of a writ of quo warranto are as follows : (i) The office must be public and it must be created by a statute or by the constitution itself. (ii) The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. (iii) There has been a contravention of the constitution on or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Q28. The Rights to Information means and includes

1. Inspection of documents.
2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant.
3. Taking photograph of files.
4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans: (c) The right to information includes• Any document, manuscript and file• Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document;• Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm (whether enlarged or not) .• Any other material produced by a computer or any other deviceIt does not include taking photograph of files.
Q29. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (c) The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It came into effect from 15th August 1995.
Q30. Consider the following statements

1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India.
2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) With the enactment of the 97th amendment to the Constitution of India and its inclusion in Part IX of the Constitution, formation of cooperative societies has become one of the fundamental rights of an Indian citizen. Cooperative societies have thus come under the ambit of The Right to Information Act. Cooperative societies normally include cooperative banks, credit societies, sugar factories, distilleries, handloom-power loom factories, distilleries, milk producing societies, water supply societies etc.
Q31. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Statement 1 is incorrect as it is a Fundamental Right under article 23 of Part III of the constitution. Statement 2 corresponds to Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 47 under Part IV of the Constitution.
Q32. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) Organizing village Panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas are the Gandhian principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Q33. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c) 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
Q34. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c) All the statements except 2 regarding the Fundamental Duties of citizens are correct.
Q35. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Matching Based MCQDIRECTIONS (Qs. 36 to 40) : Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
Ans: (c) The directive principles ensure that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by promoting a social order in which social, economic and political justice is informed in all institutions of life. The provisions of The Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the count.
Q36. List-I List-II

(Writs) (Provisions)
(A) Habeas (1) directs public
Corpus servant to perform some public duty refused to have been performed by him
(B) Mandamus (2) directs an individual
(private or executive) to produce a detainee before the court
(C) Prohibition (3) issued by high court forbidding an inferior court from continuing proceedings in a particular case
(D) Certiorari (4) enquires into the legality of the claim which a party asserts to a public office
(5) Issued to a lower court quashing its decision in a particular case
(a) A – 5; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2; E – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 5; E – 4
(c) A – 4; B – 2; C – 3; D – 1; E – 5
(d) A – 3; B – 4; C – 5; D – 2; E – 1
Ans: (b)
Q37. List-I List-II

(Writs) (Literal meanings)
(A) Mandamus (1) ‘By what warrant or authority’
(B) Habeas Corpus (2) ‘We command’
(C) Quo warranto (3) ‘To be certified’
(D) Certiorari (4) ‘You may have the body’ or
‘To have the body of
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1
(b) A – 2; B – 4; C – 3; D – 1
(c) A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3
(d) A – 2; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3
Ans: (d)
Q38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Power of : Creating a newParliament State
(b) Power of State : Altering the nameLegislature of a State
(c) Equality before : Both Indian andthe law non-Indian citizens
(d) Equality of : Indian citizenopportunity
Ans: (b) In the case of altering the name of a state, requires approval of Union Cabinet and Parliament under article 3 and 4 of the constitution.
Q39. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II
(Article of Indian (Provisions)
Constitution)
A. Article 16 (2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29 (2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
C. Article 30 (I) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31 (I) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them
Codes :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Ans: (a) These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution, runs from Art 14 – 32.
Q40. Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term.
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2Exercise -1
Ans: (c) These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.

Union Government

MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. The President takes an oath before taking office in the presence of Chief Justice of India. If the Chief Justice is not available, he takes the oath in the presence of the

(a) Vice-President
(b) Senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court
(c) Attorney-General
(d) Election Commissioner
Ans: (b)
Q2. _____ elects the Vice-President?

(a) Electoral college which elects the President
(b) Members of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(c) Electoral college consisting of members of Parliament
(d) Members of Parliament in a joint meeting
Ans: (b)
Q3. Candidate for Vice-presidential election must possess the qualifications prescribed for a Presidential candidate except that he must be:

(a) a citizen of India
(b) over 35 years of age
(c) hold no office of profit under the Government
(d) Qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q4. A resolution for impeaching the President can be moved after 14 days’ notice signed by

(a) not less than 50 members of the House
(b) not less than one-third of the total number of members of the House
(c) not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House
(d) at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and 50 members of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q5. If a resolution impeaching the President is passed, the President is considered to have been removed

(a) from the date on which the resolution is passed
(b) when the Chief Justice of India passes such an order
(c) notification in the Gazette of India
(d) once a new incumbent is elected
Ans: (a)
Q6. _____ powers are exercised both by the President and the Governors?

(a) Power to pardon a sentence by court martial
(b) Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to matters on the State List
(c) Power to commute a death sentence
(d) Power to remit a sentence by court martial
Ans: (b)
Q7. Legislative powers of the President EXCLUDES the power to :

(a) summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament
(b) call a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve deadlocks
(c) nominate 12 members to the Lok Sabha
(d) address either House at any time
Ans: (c)
Q8. An ordinance promulgated by the President :

(a) has an indefinite life
(b) effective only if the Lok Sabha is dissolved
(c) must be laid before the Parliament when it meets
(d) is a parallel power of legislation available to the President even when Parliament is in session
Ans: (c)
Q9. _____ requires previous sanction of the President for introducing legislation

(a) Money bill
(b) Bill affecting taxation in which States are interested
(c) State bills imposing restrictions upon freedom of trades
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q10. If the President returns a bill to the legislature for reconsideration:

(a) a re-passage of the bill by two-thirds majority forces him to give his assent
(b) a re-passage of the bill by a majority will make him give an assent
(c) joint sitting of the parliament is needed to pass the bill.
(d) legislature must accept the amendments proposed by the President
Ans: (b)
Q11. If the Chairman of Rajya Sabha becomes acting President, his duties as a Chairman are performed by

(a) Continues as Chairman
(b) A newly elected Chairman
(c) Deputy Chairman
(d) Member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman
Ans: (c)
Q12. President may send the advice received from the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration. This power can be exercised by him

(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Unlimited number of times
Ans: (a)
Q13. Military powers of the President EXCLUDES

(a) Supreme command of the armed forces
(b) President’s power to declare war or peace is subject to control by the Parliament
(c) President needs the sanction of Parliament to approve training and maintaining of armed forces
(d) President is independent of all legislative control
Ans: (d)
Q14. President does NOT APPOINT the

(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Commission on Official Languages
(d) UPSC
Ans: (b)
Q15. Post of the Prime Minister of India:

(a) is based on conventions
(b) has been created by the Parliament
(c) has been created by the Constitution
(d) is less powerful than that of the President
Ans: (c)
Q16. In case of resignation or death of the Prime Minister

(a) Council of Ministers is dissolved
(b) General elections are held
(d) Lok Sabha is dissolved
Ans: (a)
Q17. Prime Minister holds his office during the pleasure of the President but can continue if he enjoys the confidence of the

(a) Electorate
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Party to which he belongs
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q18. In parliamentary democracy the

(a) Executive controls the Legislature
(b) Executive and Legislature are separate
(c) Judiciary controls both legislature and Executive
(d) Legislature controls the Executive
Ans: (d)
Q19. According to the Constitution

(a) Prime minister allocates work amongst ministers based on specific guidelines
(b) Number of ministers, including the prime minister should not be more than 15% of total number of members of Lok Sabha
(c) a member of either House of Parliament from any political party who is disqualified under the, Anti-Defection Act appointed a minister during that term even if elected again
(d) all of the above are correct
Ans: (b)
Q20. If an unqualified or disqualified person attends and votes in either house of the Parliament

(a) he is prosecuted and jailed
(b) he is fined  500 per day of his sitting
(c) he may be imprisoned
(d) Nothing can be done
Ans: (b)
Q21. Money Bill

(a) cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) has to be certified by the President
(c) can be amended by the Council of States
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a)
Q22. Amendments cannot be put up in either House to

(a) Annual Financial Statement
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Demand for grants
(d) Any of the above
Ans: (b)
Q23. Privileges of the members of Parliament include:

(a) Freedom from arrest in all cases
(b) Freedom of attendance as witness if Parliament is in session
(c) Total freedom of speech
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
Q24. Parliament does not have the power to remove:

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
(b) Supreme Court Judges
(c) Chairman of UPSC
(d) High Court Judges
Ans: (c)
Q25. _____ is not a Financial Committee of the Parliament

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Under-takings
(d) Rules Committee
Ans: (d)
Q26. Members of Rajya Sabha are:

(a) Elected indirectly
(b) All are nominated
(c) Elected both directly and indirectly
(d) Elected by members of State Legislative assemblies and Legislative Councils
Ans: (a)
Q27. A dissolution does not affect:

(a) A bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and is with Lok Sabha the President calls upon it to do so
(b) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority that it is necessary in national interest
(c) Speaker certifies the need
(d) There is a national emergency
Ans: (b)
Q28. Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State List if:

(a) The President calls upon it to do so
(b) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by simple majority that it is necessary in national interest
(c) Speaker certifies the need
(d) There is a national emergency
Ans: (d)
Q29. A No-Confidence Motion:

(a) is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers
(b) no grounds are needed.
(c) 100 members’ have to support it
(d) always against the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q30. ______ ensures that no unauthorized money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State.

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q31. If the Prime Minister of India Belonged to the Upper House of Parliament

(a) he will not vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not speak on the budget in the Rajya Sabha
(c) he can make statements only in the Lok Sabha
(d) he has to become a member of the Lower House within 6 months after being sworn as the Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q32. Which duty is not performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) Expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) Trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) Receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans: (d)
Q33. Parliament can legislate for the country or part of it for implementation of international treaties. For this consent of all the:

(a) States is required
(b) State/States concerned needs to be taken
(c) Legislation has to be ratified by at least half of the States of India
(d) No consent is required
Ans: (d)
Q34. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period ?

(b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma
Ans: (c)
Q35. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance?

(a) Half-an-hour discussion
(b) Calling attention notice
(c) Short duration discussion
Ans: (b)
Q36. Which of the following is not a condition of admissibility of cut motions in the Parliament?

(a) It should not make suggestions for the amendment of existing laws.
(b) It should not relate to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(c) It should relate to more than one demand.
(d) It should not raise a question of privilege.
Ans: (c)
Q37. Which of the following statements about President’s ordinance-making power is not correct?

(a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.
(b) Laid down in Article 123.
(c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament.
(d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President.
Ans: (d)
Q38. The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of :

(a) Members of Parliament and state legislatures
(b) Elected members of Parliament and state legislatures
(c) Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (c)
Q39. Disqualification on grounds of defection for a member of Parliament will not apply

(a) in case of a split in the original political party to which he is elected
(b) if he has voluntarily given up his membership of a political party
(c) if the abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political party
(d) if a nominated member of a house joins a political party after 6 months
Ans: (a)
Q40. The Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in

(a) approving a proclamation of emergency
(b) the creation and abolition of states
(c) the election of the Vice-President
(d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the state list
Ans: (d)
Q41. The Vice-President of India can be removed from the office

(a) by a resolution initiated in the council of states and approved by the Lok Sabha
(b) by a resolution in the Lok Sabha agreed by the council of states
(c) by a resolution adopted by the two house meeting in a joint session
(d) by following a formal process of impeachment
Ans: (a)
Q42. According to Art. 81 of the Constitution, as amended by the 87th Amendment, the population figures to be considered for dividing each state into territorial constituencies for Lok Sabha elections are of ____ census

(a) 1971
(b) 2001
(c) 1991
(d) 2011
Ans: (c)
Q43. The amendment of the Constitution can be initiated in

(a) the Lok Sabha only
(b) the Rajya Sabha only
(c) the Legislative Assemblies of states
(d) either house of the Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q44. When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha whose recommendation is necessary?

(a) Lok Sabha Speaker
(b) Union Finance Minister
(c) Leader of the Lok Sabha
(d) The President
Ans: (d) Money bill can be introduced by the prior permission of President only. The proposal is money bill or not it is decided by Lok Sabha speaker.
Q45. Who is empowered by the Constitution to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term?

(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans: (c) President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister. The time duration of Lok Sabha is 5 years.
Q46. With reference to the passage of Money Bill in Indian Parliament, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The decision of the Union Finance Minister is final on the question whether a bill is Money Bill or not
(b) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
(c) After a money bill is passed by Lok Sabha and transmitted to Rajya Sabha, it should be returned within one month
(d) When Rajya Sabha returns the Money Bill with its recommendations, the Lok Sabha has to accept such recommendations
Ans: (b) Under Article 109, special procedure in respect of Money Bill has been given, a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the council of state, it can be introduced in only Lok Sabha. After a money bill is passed by Lok Sabha and send to Rajya Sabha, it should be returned within 7 days.
Q47. In the absence of both the President of India and the Vice-President, who shall act as the President of India?

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c) In the absence of both the President of India and the vice president, the chief justice of India (or in his absence, the senior-most judge of the supreme court available) shall act as the president of India.
Q48. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) All the expenditure other than that which is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India is to be submitted to the Lok Sabha in the form of demands for grants
(b) No demand for a grant is made except on the recommendation of the President of India
(c) The Lok Sabha can refuse assent to any demand for grant
(d) The Lok Sabha can suggest an increase in the expenditure
Ans: (d)
Q49. Article 75 of the Constitution of India provides that the Council of Ministers of the Union shall be collectively responsible to

(a) the House of the People
(b) both the Houses of Parliament
(c) the President only
(d) the President and both the Houses of the Parliament
Ans: (a) According to the Article 75 of Indian Constitution the Council of Ministers of the Union shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
Q50. The Union Executive of India consists of:

(a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Council of Ministers
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime Minister
(c) The President and the Council of Ministers only
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only
Ans: (c) The Union Executive of India, as in parliamentary type of government, consist of president and the council of minis¬ters.
Q51. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a

(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
(c) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
Ans: (a)
Q52. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans: (a)
Q53. Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?

(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Ans: (d)
Q54. What is a ‘charged expenditure’?

(a) An expenditure which has been incurred already and for the bills which are pending for payment
(b) Expenditure on the essential aspects of adminstration
(c) The expenditure that can be incurred by the president without the approval of the parliament.
(d) The expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India for which the approval of the Parliament is not necessary, according to the Constitution.
Ans: (d)
Q55. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The president shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office
(b) Parliament can initiate, in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution, impeachment proceedings against the President during the term of his office
(c) Civil proceedings can be instituted against the President, in respect of any act done in his personal capacity before he entered upon his office as President, during the term of his office
(d) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President in any Court during his term of office
Ans: (c)
Q56. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(a) Can be appointed as a member of U.P.S.C. after his retirement
(b) Can be appointed as Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Shall not be eligible for any further office either under the government of India or under the Government of any State after his retirement
(d) Can be appointed to any office after his retirement
Ans: (c)
Q57. Which one of the following is not a main feature of the Cabinet system of government as it prevails in India?

(a) The members of the Council of Ministers are chosen by the president and not by the Prime Minister
(b) The proceedings of the Cabinet are kept secret
(c) The Prime Minister presides over the Cabinet meetings
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which one of the following is not a department in the ministry of Human Resource Development?

(a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(c) Department of Technical Education
(d) Department of women and child development
Ans: (d) Department of women and child development is not a department under Ministry of Human Resource Development. Human Resources Development (HRD) as a theory is a framework for the expansion of human capital within an organization through the development of both the organization and the individual to achieve performance improvement.
Q59. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the president. He can be removed

(a) by the president
(b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament
(c) on the recommendation of the president by the supreme court
(d) by CJI
Ans: (b) The comptroller and Auditor General can be removed on an address from both Houses of Parliament. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, who audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India and the state governments, including those bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government. The CAG is also the external auditor of government-owned companies.
Q60. Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the consolidated fund of India?

(a) Salary and allowances of the president of India
(b) Salary and allowances of the vice president of India
(c) Salary and allowances of the justice of the supreme court of India
(d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d) Salary and allowances of the speakers of the Lok Sabha is not charged on the Consolidated fund of India. Consolidated fund or the consolidated revenue fund is the term used for the main bank account of the government in many of the countries in the Commonwealth of Nations. All tax revenue is paid into the fund unless Parliament has specifically provided otherwise by law. Any money received by the government which is not taxation, and is not to be retained by the receiving department (for example, fines) , is classed as a Consolidated Fund extra receipt (CFER) . These are to be paid into the Consolidated Fund as soon as they are received.
Q61. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the supreme court of India, on any question of law?

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Any of the high courts
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
Q62. Recommendations to the President of India on the specific Union state fiscal relation are made by the

(a) Finance Minister
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission
Ans: (d)
Q
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) The Attorney General of India
(c) The solicitor General
(d) The secretary to president of India
Ans: (d)
Q64. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after

(a) It is passed by both the Houses
(b) The president has given his Assent
(c) The Prime minister has signed it
(d) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of the Union Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q65. Which one of the following statements about the parliament of India is not correct?

(a) The constitution provides for a parliamentary form of Government
(b) The foremost function of the parliament is to provide a cabinet
(c) The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the lower house
(d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular chamber
Ans: (c)
Q66. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the state is operated by

(a) The Governor of the state
(b) The Chief Minister of the state
(c) The State Finance Minister
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q67. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with trade Union Movement?

(a) V.V. Giri
(b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(c) K.R. Narayanan
(d) Zakir Hussain
Ans: (a) V.V. Giri, the president of India was associated with trade Union movement. Varahagiri Venkata Giri, commonly known as V. V. Giri, was the fourth President of the Republic of India from 24 August 1969 to 23 August 1974. He served as Acting President of India from 3 May 1969 to 20 July 1969, before getting elected.
Q68. The office of the President does not characterize the combination of governmental systems of

(a) Parliamentary and Federal
(b) Republican and Parliamentary
(c) Presidential and Republican
(d) Democratic and Republican
Ans: (c)
Q69. The system of Proportion of representation as an electoral mechanism ensures

(a) Representation of minorities
(b) Rule of majority
(c) Stability in government
(d) Common political thinking
Ans: (a)
Q70. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of

(a) Two types
(b) Three types
(c) Four types
(d) Five types
Ans: (b)
Q71. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?

(a) Attorney General
(b) Cabinet Secretary
(c) Home Secretary
(d) Principal Secretary of the P.M.
Ans: (b) Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant of the Union Government. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil servant in the Government of India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board. The Cabinet Secretary is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. Though there is no fixed tenure, the average tenure of the Cabinet Secretary has been less than 3 years. His or her tenure however, can be extended.
Q72. The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called

(a) Casting vote
(b) Sound vote
(c) Direct vote
(d) Indirect vote
Ans: (a) The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called casting vote. A casting vote is a vote given to the presiding officer of a council or legislative body to resolve a deadlock and which can be exercised only when such a deadlock exists.
Q73. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinizes the report of the CAG of India is

(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Select Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) The parliamentary Committee which scrutinizes the report of the CAG is public accounts committee. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is an authority, established by the Constitution of India under Chapter V, which audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government and the state governments, including those bodies and authorities substantially financed by the government.
Q74. What is the period of appointment of the comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) 6 years
(b) upto 65 years of age
(c) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier
(d) upto 64 years of age
Ans: (c)
Q75. In order to be recognised as an official opposition group in the parliament

(a) 1/3rd of the total strength
(b) 1/4th of the total strength
(c) 1/6th of the total strength
(d) 1/10th of the total strength
Ans: (d)
Q76. Who among the following is the chairman of the National Integration council?

(a) The President
(b) The Vice-president
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c) The prime minister is the chairman of the National Integration council. The National Integration Council originated in a conference convened by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in September–October 1961. The purpose was to find ways to counter problems that were dividing the country including attachment to specific communities, castes, regions and languages.
Q77. Who advises the Government of India on legal matters?

(a) Attorney General
(b) Chief justice of supreme court
(c) Chairman, Law Commission
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q78. The Committee of parliament on official language comprises the members

(a) 20 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(b) 10 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha
(c) 10 from Lok Sabha, 10 from Rajya Sabha
(d) 20 from Lok Sabha, 20 from Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q79. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter?

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q80. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?

(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans: (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh was the Prime Minister resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha. Chaudhuri Charan Singh was the fifth Prime Minister, serving from 28 July 1979 until 14 January 1980.
Q81. ‘Zero Hour’ in political Jargon refers to

(a) Suspended motion
(b) Question hour
Ans: (d) ‘Zero Hour’ in Political jargon refers to question answer session. Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which members raise matters of importance, especially those that cannot be delayed.
Q82. Which of the following types of authorities are attributed to the President of India?

(a) Real and Popular
(b) Titular and de jure
(c) Constitutional and Nominal
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: (d)
Q83. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –

(a) The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
(b) The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
(c) The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
(d) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.
Ans: (c)
Q84. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill –

(a) The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
(b) The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
(c) The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
(d) The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.
Ans: (c)
Q85. The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?

(a) She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
(b) A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(c) A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
(d) A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
Ans: (d)
Q86. The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in:

(a) Constitution of India.
(b) Rules of the house.
(c) In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q87. The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:

(a) Constitution of India
(b) Rules of the house
(c) A separate Parliamentary Statute
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q88. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either house of parliament):

(a) Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.
(b) Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
(c) Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament.
(d) Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.
Ans: (c)
Q89. The first reading of the Bill in a House of Parliament refers to :

(a) The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House
(b) The general discussion on the Bill as whole where only the principle underlying the Bill is discussed and not the details of the bill.
(c) The general discussion on the Bill where the bill is discussed in details.
(d) The state when the Bill is referred either to select committee of the House or to the joint committee of the two houses.
Ans: (a) The first reading of the bill in a house of parliament refers to motion for leave to introduce the bill in the House. If a motion for leave to introduce a Bill is opposed, the Speaker, after permitting, if he thinks fit, brief statementsfrom the member who opposes the motion and the mem¬ber who moved the motion, may, without further debate, put the question: provided that where a motion is opposed on the ground that the Bill initiates legislation outside the legislative competence of the House, the Speaker may permit a full discussion thereon. Provided further that the Speaker shall forthwith put to vote the motion for leave to introduce a Finance Bill or an Appropriation Bill.
Q90. Department of official languages is subordinate office of which ministry?

(a) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Culture
Ans: (b) Department of official languages is subordinate office of the Ministry of Home affairs. It deals with the implementation of the provisions of the Constitution relating to official languages and the provi¬sions of the Official Languages Act, 1963.
Q91. Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the election of the president of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (d) State legislature assemblies, both houses of the parliament form part of the electoral college for the election of the president. An electoral college is a set of electors who are selected to elect a candidate to a particular office. Often these represent different organizations or entities, with each organization or entity represented by a particular number of electors or with votes weighted in a particular way.
Q92. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as?

(a) Decorum
(b) Crossing the floor
(c) Interpolation
(d) Yielding the floor
Ans: (d) Decorum = Parliamentary etiquetteCrossing the floor = Changing the partyInterpolation = Seeking clarification through rulingYielding the floor = Respecting speaker’s order
Q93. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian parliament separately, by special majority.

(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Ans: (d) The Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each house of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority.
Q94. Department of Border management is a department of which one of the following Union Ministers?

(a) Ministry of Defense
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forest.
Ans: (b) Department of border management is a department of ministry of Home affairs of the union minister. Depart¬ment of Border Management is dealing with management of borders, including coastal borders.
Q95. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Ans: (a) When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.
Q96. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Ans: (b) The largest Committee is Estimates, given its 30 membersCommittee on No. of membersPublic Accounts 22Estimates 30Public Undertakings 22Petitions LS (15) , RS (10)
Q97. Who among the following decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not ?

(a) Union Finance Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) President of India
Ans: (b) Article 110 of Indian constitution defines a Money Bill. The speakers decision as to whether a bill is a Money Bill is final.
Q98. While Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period not exceeding?

(a) Six weeks
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
Ans: (d) While proclamation of Emergency is in operation be extended by parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased to operate [Article 83 (2)]
Q99. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha ?

(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
Ans: (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not subject to disolution, one third of its members retiring after every two years. Thus every member enjoys a 6-year tenure.
Q100. The Union Executive of India consists of:

(a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Council of Ministers
(b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime Minister
(c) The President and the Council of Ministers only
(d) The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only
Ans: (c) The Union Executive of India, as in parliamentary type of government, consist of president and the council of ministers.
Q101. Who among the following chooses the Speaker of the House of People?

(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(d) The House of People
Ans: (d) The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is the Speaker who is elected by the member from amongst themselves.
Q102. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?

(a) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) The President of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Home Minister
Ans: (c) Cabinet Secretariat is under the charge of the Prime Minister of India.
Q103. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision shall be final?

(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The President of India
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans: (c) If any question arises whether a Bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha shall be final under the article 110 of the constitution of India.
Q104. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to

(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c) The speaker of the Lok sabha can resign from his office by addressing his resignation to the deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Q105. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India ?

(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Only Rajya Sabha
(c) Either House of the Parliament
(d) Any Legislative Assembly
Ans: (c) Either house of the parliament can initiate impeachment proceedings against the president of India.
Q106. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a

(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
Ans: (d)
Q107. When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a

(a) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
(b) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
(c) simple majority of the total number of members of both the Houses
(d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting
Ans: (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of Lok Sabha or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker.
Q108. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?

(a) Federalism
(b) Representative legislature
(d) Parliamentary democracy
Ans: (d)
Q109. Normally the Parliament can legislate on the subjects enumerated in

(a) the Union List
(b) the Concurrent List
(c) the State List
(d) the Union as well as Concurrent List
Ans: (b) The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of 52 items (previously 47 items) given in Part XI of the Constitution of India, concerned with relations between the Union and States. This part is divided between legislative and administrative powers.
Q110. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

(a) members of both Houses of Parliament
(b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
Ans: (a) Members of both houses of parliament.
Q111. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the

(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister of India
Ans: (d)
Q112. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?

(a) Demands for Grants Committee
(b) Committee on Public Accounts
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Committee on Esti mates
Ans: (a) Demands for Grants Committees are Departmentally Related Standing Committees.After the General Discussion on the Budget is over, the House is adjourned for a fixed period. During this period, the Demands for Grants of the Ministries/ Departments are considered by the Committees. It is not a parliamentary committee.
Q113. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976?

(a) V.V Giri
(b) Giani Zail Singh
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans: (c) In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 21-month period in 1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhiunilaterally had a state of emergency declared across the country. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President at that time.
Q114. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India?

(a) Devi Lal
(b) GL Nanda
(d) YB Chavan
Ans: (b) Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India for two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966.
Q115. Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each State into territorial constituencies?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
(d) The Lok Sabha alone
Ans: (b) According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial constituencies.
Q116. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is, vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of this power

(a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
(b) he/she shall be regulated by law
(c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the Chiefs of the Armed Forces
(d) during war the President can suspended the Fundamental Rights of citizens
Ans: (b) According to Article 53(b) of the Indian Constitution the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.
Q117. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is

(a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the House
(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House
(c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House
(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House
Ans: (c) The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of the total number of members of the Houses.
Q118. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha?

(a) VP Singh
(b) PV Narasimha Rao
(c) Chandra Sekhar
(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans: (b). P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for himself during vote of confidence.
Q119. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament

(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Discussion on Budget
(b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget, Vote on Accounts
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill
(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account
Ans: (d) The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account.
Q120. The function of a Protem Speaker is to

(a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence of the Speaker
(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
(d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates of members
Ans: (c) Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of the Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem speaker is mainly an operating and temporary speaker.
Q121. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha

(a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
(b) He/she can declare the government’s policies only in the Rajya Sabha
(c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration
(d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration.
Q122. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in

(a) either house of the Parliament
(b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
(c) the Lok Sabha alone
(d) the Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (a) Under Article 61, the President of India can be removed from the office by a process of impeachment for the violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to be initiated by either House of Parliament.those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.
Q123. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that

(a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
(b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes
(c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
(d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes
Ans: (c) Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may have to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each voter with the reservation that this single vote is transferred to other candidates. This is the reason why this system is known as “single transferable vote system.”
Q124. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to

(a) suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be hatted
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session
(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the opposition look at important documents
Ans: (a) “Closure” is one of the means by which a debate may be brought to a close by a majority decision of the House, even though all members wishing to speak have not done so.
Q125. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period

(a) not exceeding three months
(b) not exceedng nine-months
(c) of one year at a time
(d) of two years at a time
Ans: (c) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352 the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
Q126. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?

(a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a money bill
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants
Ans: (c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is to be decided by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants.
Q127. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats

(a) in accordance with their population
(b) equally
(c) on the basis of population and economic position
(d) on the basis of present economic status
Ans: (c) In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats on the basis of population and economic position.
Q128. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by

(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no-confidence motion
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership of the house
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the house
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the house
Ans: (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. No resolution for the purpose of removal of the Speaker or the Dy. Speaker shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Q129. Which one among the following committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public Undertakings Committee
(d) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance
Ans: (b) The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. The term of office of the Committee is one year.
Q130. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions.

Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India?
(a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(b) Executing major policy decisions
(c) Holding the government accountable for its actions and expenditure
(d) Amending the Constitution
Ans: (b) Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and the executive organs of the State in as much as the executive power is wielded by a group of Members of the Legislature who command majority in the Lok Sabha.
Q131. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States
(b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill
(c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the People and not to the Council of States
(d) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the State List compared to the Council of States
Ans: (d) The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to make laws on the matters reserved for States (States List). However, this can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes a resolution by two-thirds supermajority granting such a power to the Union Parliament. The union government cannot make a law on a matter reserved for states without an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of People does not have special powers with respect to the state list.
Q132. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Ans: (d) As Indian follows Universal Adult Suffrage elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature i. e., Las have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The State Legislature besides making laws also has one electoral power in electing the President of India. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly along with the elected members of Parliament are involved in this process.
Q133. Which one of the following statements about the duties of Prime Minister is correct?

(a) Is free to choose his minister only from among members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Can choose his cabinet after consulting the President of India.
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested the President of India
Ans: (c) PM has complete discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house within 6 months from the date he enters the office.
Q134. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament:

(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in
Ans: (a) Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.
Q135. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
Ans: (a) A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.
Q136. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans: (d) Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.
Q137. The term of the Lok Sabha:

(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Ans: (c) The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352.
Q138. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002) ?

(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
Ans: (c) President can issue Ordinance under Article 123.
Q139. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?

(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355
Ans: (d) According Article 355, it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Q140. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?

(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Ans: (d) According to Article 368 an amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.
Q141. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no additional Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Ans: (a) Appropriation Bill is a money bill. In case of money bill, RS has only recommendatory power and need not to be passed by RS.
Q142. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
Ans: (b) The Constitution of India empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
Q143. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:

(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans: (d) It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.
Q144. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?

(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees in various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Ans: (a) Parliamentary Committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time but with detailed scrutiny. Their appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under Article 118(1). These are of 2 kinds: Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.
Q145. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections
Ans: (c) In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo- Indian community (Art 331). A nominated member can vote only in the Vice-Presidential elections.
Q146. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
Ans: (a) In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No-Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of no-confidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.
Q147. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:

(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: 147. (d) Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India states, a Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Q148. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (b) Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.
Q149. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
Ans: (a) Adjournment motion : (i) It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance and needed to support of 50 members to be admitted. (ii) It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house. (iii) It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use this device. (iv) The discussion an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.
Q150. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a) Article 75(I) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without hisher being a member of either House of the Parliament at the of appointment. Before expiry of this time, he has to become a member of either the Rajya Sabha or the Lok Sabha.
Q151. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Ans: (a) When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.
Q152. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required? [IAS Prelims 2014]

(a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters
(b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of alternation of areas of existing states
(c) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax
(d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which states are interested
Ans: (c) The recommendation of the president is required for introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to acts relating to financial matters, except those making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for option (c) president’s recommendation is not required.
Q153. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The President may [IAS Prelims 2014]

(a) assent within six months
(b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
(c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill
(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses
Ans: (c) Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that the President shall give assent to a bill passed by both houses of the parliament or return the bill as soon as possible for reconsideration with his recommendation.
Q154. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the [IAS Prelims 2014]

(a) Speaker may direct
(b) President of India may direct
(c) Parliament may decide
(d) Finance Minister may decide
Ans: (b) According to article 112,the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement.
Q155. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by [IAS Prelim 2015]

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
Ans: (a) In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting.
Q156. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the state list in the national interest if resolution to that affect is passed by the [IAS Prelims 2016]

(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total members.
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirdsof its members present & voting Exercise -2Statement Based MCQ
Ans: 156 (d) Given verbatim in When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Q1. ______ take/takes part in the election of the President of India?

1. All Members of Parliament
2. Members of State Legislative Assemblies
3. Elected members of State Legislative assemblies
4. Elected members of State Legislative Councils.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
Q2. _______ can be declared by the President on his own?

1. Emergency due to armed rebellion
2. Financial Emergency
3. President’s Rule in a State
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) All of the Above
(d) None of the Above
Ans: (d)
Q3. President appoints as Prime Minister:

1. the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
2. anyone he thinks fit
3. the person who can win the confidence of the majority in Lok Sabha
4. Leader of the party with a majority in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 or 3
(c) 3 or 4
(d) 1, 3 or 4
Ans: (b)
Q4. Consider the following statements about the office of Attorney- General of India?

1. He is a member of the Cabinet.
2. He can address either House of Parliament and vote.
3. He must have qualification of a judge of the Supreme Court.
4. Salary of Attorney General is fixed by Parliament.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q5. Which statements about Financial Bill is CORRECT?

1. It is same as a money bill
2. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
3. It can be amended by the Rajya Sabha.
4. It can only be introduced agreement of the President
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q6. Both Houses of Parliament enjoy equal power in all spheres except:

1. financial matters
2. responsibility of the Council of Ministers
3. amendment procedure
4. presidential election
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q7. Which factor can restrict the power of Parliament in India?

1. A written Constitution prescribing the scope of operation
2. Supreme Court can strike down unconstitutional laws passed by Parliament
3. Parliament is limited by the Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) None, as Parliament is sovereign
Ans: (a)
Q8. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the parliamentary system of government in India operates ?

2. Vice-President as the chairman of the upper house
3. Real executive authority with the council of ministers
4. Executive responsibility to the lower house
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q9. Consider the following statements :

1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q10. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :

1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q11. The correct statements about calling attention notice are :

1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q12. Which of the following statements are true of Adjournment Motion?

1. It is an extraordinary procedure which sets aside the normal business of the House.
2. Its main object is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
3. The Rajya Sabha can make use of this procedure.
4. It must be supported by not less than 50 members for introduction.
5. It involves an element of censure against government.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q13. In parliamentary countries, like India, the legislative control over administration is considerably reduced and restricted in effectiveness due to which of the following reasons?

1. The expansion in the volume and variety of administrative work.
2. Frequent use of Guillitone.
3. The large size of the legislature
4. The members of the legislature are laymen.
5. The financial committees do post mortem work.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q14. Which of the following documents are presented to the legislature along with the budget?

1. An explanatory memorandum on the budget
2. A summary of demands for grants
3. An Appropriation Bill
4. A Finance Bill
5. The economic survey
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1,3 and 5
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2,3 and 5
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q15. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.
2. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.
3. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.
5. Appropriation Bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (b)
Q16. Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.
2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.
4. He can be removed by the President on his own.
5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,4 and 5
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2,3,4 and 5
(d) 3,4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q17. Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?

1. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.
2. To examine, in the light of CAG’s report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.
3. To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semi-autonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
4. To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that purpose.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q18. The Indian President’s veto power is a combination of:

1. Pocket veto 2. Absolute veto
3. Suspensive veto 4. Qualified veto
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q19. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q20. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as required for a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q21. Which of the following are included in Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, defining the duties of Prime Minister?

1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation.
2. To take prior presidential sanction for the budget before submitting it in the Parliament
3. To furnish the information called for by the President regarding administration of affairs of the union
4. If the President so requires, to submit for consideration of the council of ministers a matter on which a minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for consideration by the council beforehand.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q22. Which of the following corporations, for the purpose of auditing, are kept completely out of the purview of CAG of India ?

1. Industrial Finance Corporation
2. Food Corporation of India
3. Central Warehousing Corporation
4. Life Insurance Corporation of India
5. Reserve Bank of India
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (d)
Q23. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q24. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Q25. With reference to Indian public finance, consider the following statements:

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the Parliament
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q26. With reference to Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. A member of the Lok Sabha cannot be arrested by police under any case when the Parliament is in session.
2. Members of Indian Parliament have the privilege of exemption from attendance as witnesses in the law courts.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
Ans: (d)
Q27. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India cannot appoint a person as Prime Minister if he/she is not a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
2. The candidate for the office of Prime Minster must have the support of the majority members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q28. Which among the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is/are correct?

1. The procedure and grounds for his removal from the office are the same as of a Judge of Supreme Court.
2. He prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and the States are to be kept.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q29. Which of the following statements about a parliamentary committee in India are correct?

1. It is appointed or elected by the house or appointed by the speaker/chairman.
2. It works under the direction of the speaker/chairman of the house.
3. It presents its report to the president.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) All the members of the Lok Sabha, except two members may be nominated by the President from Anglo-Indian Community.
Q30. Which of the following features of the Indian Government system are the essential features of the parliamentary Government system?

1. Presence of nominal and real executives
2. Membership of the ministers in the legislature
3. Separation of powers between the Union and State government
4. Independent judiciary system
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) Parliamentary committee in India presents its report to the speaker/Chairman of the house. The work done by the Parliament in modern times is not only varied and complex in nature, but also considerable in volume. The time at its disposal is limited. It cannot, therefore, give close consideration to all the legislative and other matters that come up before it. A good deal of its business is, therefore, transacted in Committees of the House, known as Parliamentary Committees.
Q31. Which of the following committee(s) is/are not exclusively the committee of the lower House of the Parliament of India?

1. Estimate committee
2. Committee on public undertaking
3. Committee on the welfare of Scheduled Castes and STs
4. Committee on Empowerment of women
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d) A no confidence motion does not need to set out grounds on which it is based. The withdrawal of the notice of no confidence motion by a member may be made when he is called upon by the speaker to ask for leave of the House.
Q32. Though the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are constitutent part of Parliament, on some subject they have unequal powers which of the following matters depict the difference of powers between these two houses?

1. No confidence motion
2. Power to vote on Demand for Grants
3. Impeachment of judges of the High Court
4. Passing of laws in the national interest on the subject enumerated in state list
5. Creation of all India services.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 5 only
Ans: (c) Both the Houses have been enshrined with equal pow¬ers on the matter of impeachment of judges of the High Courts. Soumitra Sen is a retired judge of the Calcutta High Court. He was the first judge in independent India to be impeached in India’s Rajya Sabha for misappropriation of funds.
Q33. Which among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?

1. Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
2. Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
3. Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature.
4. Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
Ans: (d) Article 80 states that the state legislature participates in the election of the members of Rajya Sabha and also of the president (Art.54)
Q34. Consider the following statements:

1. The chairman of the committee on public accounts is appointed by the speakers of the Lok sabha
2. The committee on public Accounts comprises members of Lok Sabha, members of Rajya sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) ‘Committee on public Accounts’ consists of 22 members, 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. A Lok Sabha member from a major opposition party is appointed its chairman. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of Parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expen¬diture of the Government of India.
Q35. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No confidence motion’

1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in the coun¬cil of ministers as a whole is admitted and one expressing lack of confidence in an individual minister is out of order
2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on which it is based.
3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be withdrawn
4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no confidence
Which of the following given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) A no-confidence motion does not need to set out grounds on which it is based. The withdrawal of the notice by a member may be made when he is called upon by the speaker to ask for leave of the House.
Q36. When the House of people clearly and conclusively determines that the government does not command its support, the gov-ernment has to resign. By which of the ways parliamentary confidence in the government may be expressed by the House of People?

1. Defeating the government on a major issue of policy.
3. Defeating the government on finance issues
4. Passing a motion of no confidence in the council of minis¬ters.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) The government may be expressed by the House of People by all the statements given. So the all statements are cor¬rect.
Q37. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements:

1. The ministries/Departments of the government of India are created by the PM on the advice of the cabinet secre¬tary.
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the president of India on the advice of the PM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) The government of India consists of a number of minis¬ters/departments for its administration, each ministry as¬signed to a minister who runs it with the assistance of a secretary in charge of the particular ministry.
Q38. Consider the following facts about Comptroller and auditor general of India, and choose the correct answer:

1. CAG is a constitutional Body.
2. CAG has absolute power to audit accounts of all the functionaries of Central and States’ governments as well as of private corporate bodies.
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) 1 and 2 both are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Ans: (a)
Q39. Which of the following statements are correct about Indian Government?

1. Rajya Sabha represents the local interests of the States.
2. A member of Rajya Sabha must be a resident of the State from which he is elected.
3. Number of seats allotted to a State has to be proportionate to its population.
4. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha is same as that of Senator in the US.
Codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)
Q40. Which of the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state.

1. Resignation by Chief Minister.
2. Death of Chief Minister.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q41. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS.
2. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both.
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q42. Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:

1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q43. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPS(c):

1. President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
2. JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (d)
Q44. Which of the following are quasi judicial bodies:

1. Finance Commission.
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. National Human Rights Commission.
4. Central Information Commission.
5. Competition Commission of India.
6. Union Public Service Commission.
7. National Commission for SCs.
(a) All except 1, 2 & 6
(b) All except 2, 4 & 6
(c) All except 6
(d) None of the above options are correct
Ans: (c)
Q45. Which of the following official(s) is/are appointed by the President by Warrant under his hand and seal.

1. CAG.
2. Chairperson of National Commission of SCs.
3. Attorney General of India.
4. CVC
(a) 1, 2 & 4 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 & 3
Ans: (a)
Q46. Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:

1. Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative assembly.
2. Contingency funds of India.
3. Public account of States.
4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5. Local bodies.
(a) 1, 2 & 3 only
(b) 1, 2 & 5 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 & 5 only
(d) All
Ans: (d)
Q47. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:

1. He/she is the highest law officer of the country.
2. He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the SC.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: 47 (a)
Q48. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:

1. He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee.
2. He/she is debarred from private legal practice.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q49. The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –

1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Q50. The ‘Council of Ministers’ does not consist of:

1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission.
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Q51. The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:

1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
(a) 1 & 3
(b) 1 & 4
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 2 & 4
Ans: (c)
Q52. Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:

1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 1, 2, & 3
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Q53. Which of the following statements are correct.

1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q54. When the Lok Sabha is Dissolved:

1. A bill passed by Lok Sabha pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha & not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Q55. Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Atten¬tion motion and Zero Hour:

1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary proce¬dure.
2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of proce¬dure.
The correct statements is/are:
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 3 & 4 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(d) 1 & 4 only
Ans: (d)
Q56. Which of the following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:

1. Censure Motion.
2. Cut Motion.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (b)
Q57. The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:

1. Any court of law.
2. Lok Sabha.
3. President of India.
(a) 1 & 2 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Q58. Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:

1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
2. Defeat of a money bill.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (c)
Q59. Which of the following is/are correct:

1. A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
3. All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recom¬mendation of the President.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q60. Which of the following Expenditure is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India:

1. Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice Presi¬dent.
2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Su¬preme Court & high court.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Q61. Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution”

1. President
2. Governor
3. Chief Justice of India
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q62. Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c) The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.
Q63. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. Cabinet is headed by the cabinet secretary not by the Head of the State.
Q64. Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the parliament; the Prime minister shall communicate to the president about the proposals for legislation but the union. If a President were to dismiss the Council of Ministers on his or her own initiative, it might trigger a constitutional crisis. Thus, in practice, the Council of Ministers cannot be dismissed as long as it commands the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha.
Q65. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President so far none from them has been inducted in the Council of Ministers.
Q66. Consider the following statements :

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a) Clause (3) of Article 77 “Conduct of Business of the Government of India” of the Constitution of India lays down as follows: “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. The Constitution of India mentions that All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. Therefore, only option (a) is correct.
Q67. Consider the following statements :

A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority.
Q68. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c) The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat are preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in budget is prepared by finance ministry.
Q69. Consider the following statements:

The parliamentary Committee on public accounts
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b) The committee consists of 15 members of Lok sabha not 25 members. The function of the committee is to examine the accounts showing the appropriation of the sums granted by Parliament to meet the expenditure of the government of India and such other accounts laid before the House as the committee may think fit. Apart from the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on Appropriation Accounts of the Union Government, the Committee also examines the various Audit Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General on revenue receipts, expenditure by various Ministries/Departments of Government and accounts of autonomous bodies.
Q70. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India cannot appoint a person as Prime Minister if he/she is not a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
2. The candidate for the office of Prime Minster must have the support of the majority members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q71. Consider the following statements:

1. It is on the advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha that the President of India summons and prorogues Parliament and dissolves Lok Sabha .
2. The resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers.
3. A vote of confidence against one Minister. in Lok Sabha means the vote of confidence against the entire Council of Ministers.
Which of the following statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q72. Consider the following statements:

1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. In the Warrant of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Parliament may by law fix the salaries and allowances of the officers of Parliament (Article 97). The salaries are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
Q73. Which one of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Vice-President of India?

1. He must be a member of Parliament.
2. He is elected by proportional representation.
3. He is Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer unsing the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)
Q74. In which among the following cases, the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned?

1. To amend the Constitution.
2. When a Bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a Bill.
4. When a bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q75. Consider the following statements

1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject or amend this bill. It can only recommend amendments.
Q76. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
(b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor takes over
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India
Ans: (b) According to Article 67, a Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People.
Q77. Consider the following statements:

1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority to Government to incur expenditure from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.
Q78. Consider the following statements:

1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting as president or discharging the functions of president, the Vice President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya sabha.
Q79. Consider the following statements:

1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head.
2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office.
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 2
Ans: (d) The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice- President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice- President, resign his office (Article 61). According to article 52,executive power of the Union is vested in the President.
Q80. Consider the following statements:

1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes of the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs relating to the Parliament of India and works as a link between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It constitutes consultative committees of members of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their meetings, both during and between sessions.
Q81. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees:

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above islare correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on Public Undertakings consist of 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the Rajya Sabha.Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members.
Q82. Consider the following statements:

1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of India. The Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these Rules. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board of the Republic of India.
Q83. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:

1. V.V Giri 2. M Hidayatullah
3. BD Jatti 4. GS Pathak
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 3, 2, 1,4
(d) 4, 1,3, 2
Ans: (a) Correct chronological order of the Vice-Presidents of India is as follows: 1. V.V .Giri – 1967 2. G.S Pathak –1969 3. B.D Jatti –1974 4. M Hidayatullah – 1979
Q84. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, a legislator attracts disqualification under the 10th Schedule if

1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected.
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house.
4. a member who has been elected as a independent member joins any political party.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) The Tenth Schedule ( Anti-Defection Act) was included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
Q85. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/ her?

1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.
3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (b) The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the following conditions are satisfied:-
Q86. Consider the following statements

1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and the area of the State.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among States in such a way that the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same for all States. The 84th Amendment to the Constitution (which was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd Constitution amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation within States on the basis of the 1991 Census.
Q87. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest election.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Ans: (b) A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India except autonomous Districts of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. According to Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act 1951,a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years [other than any offence referred to in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b)] shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release.
Q88. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of Parliament?

1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) There are three Financial Committees in the Indian Parliament mentioned below: 1. Estimates Committee- This Committee consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members. The term of the Committee is one year. 2. Committee on Public Undertakings- The Committee on Public Undertakings consists of 22 members(15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya Sabha) .The term of the Committee is one year. 3. Public Accounts Committee- This Committee consists of 22 members (15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.). The term of the Committee is one year.
Q89. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India

1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d) According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister- (a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for; (c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister;
Q90. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member. notice of this date.
2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send to every member notice of this date.
3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) • Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as the President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send notice of this dateto every member. • The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General shall send notice of this dateto every member. • At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected.
Q91. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched?

1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting of elected MLAs and MPs
2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of MLAs and MPs
3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first sitting
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c) The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (both elected and nominated members).
Q92.

Council of states
(a) for five years
(b) for a period specified by the Parliament
(c) during the pleasure of the President
(d) till he has the confidence of the Parliament
Ans: (c) The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.
Q
Ans: (c)
Q2. In appointing a Governor, the President consults the Chief Minister of the State as this is:

(a) constitutionally imperative
(b) a convention
(c) as Parliament has legislated to the effect
(d) A duty of the President
Ans: (b)
Q3. Dual role of the Governor means:

(a) Constitutional and real executive
(b) Head of a state and head of government under certain circumstances
(c) Belonging both to Central and State executive
(d) Constitutional ruler and represents the Centre
Ans: (d)
Q4. Governor of which State has been vested with special powers for scheduled tribes?

(b) Assam
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (a)
Q5. ____ presides over meetings of Council of Ministers in a State?

(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Senior ministers
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (b)
Q6. To be a member of a State Council of Ministers, a person:

(a) must belong to the Legislative Assembly
(b) must get membership of the State Legislature within six months
(c) cannot be less than 35 years old
(d) an expert in some field if he is not a member of the Legislature
Ans: (b)
Q7. Chairman of Legislative Council is:

(a) appointed by the Governor
(b) the Governor
(c) elected by the members of the Legislative Council from among themselves
(d) appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly
Ans: (c)
Q8. For enactment of a law, the State Legislative Council:

(a) has to pass the bill
(b) may delay it for a maximum of four months
(c) may disagree to, its provisions, if a joint sitting is called
(d) has nothing to do with the bill
Ans: (b)
Q9. Limitations on authority of the State Legislature EXCLUDES:

(a) Parliament’s authority to make laws on subjects in the State List during an Emergency
(b) Parliament’s authority to make laws on state subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a reso-lution
(c) Governor’s discretionary power to dissolve the legislature
(d) Governors power to reserve bills for consideration of the President
Ans: (c)
Q10. J & K Constitution was framed by:

(a) Constituent Assembly which framed India’s Constitution
(b) Constituent Assembly set up by the Parliament
(c) Constituent Assembly set up by the State
(d) the State Legislature
Ans: (c)
Q11. An amendment to the Constitution of India extends to J&K:

(a) automatically
(b) only if ratified by State Legislature
(c) by an order of the President under Article 370
(d) Can never be extended
Ans: (c)
Q12. If the State government fails to comply with the directions of the Centre in the exercise of administrative powers:

(a) Governor may be directed by the President to dismiss the ministry
(b) President can declare a national emergency and convert the federal structure into a unitary one
(c) Constitutional emergency can be declared and the President can assume the powers of the State government
(d) Supreme Court may be asked to intervene
Ans: (c)
Q13. Privileges of the State Legislature are mentioned in Article:

(a) 105 of the Constitution
(b) 194 of the Constitution
(c) chapter on Fundamental Rights under Article 19
(d) nowhere in the Constitution as they have evolved as part of parliamentary convention
Ans: (b)
Q14. Mizoram and Sikkim may have a maximum of :

(a) 7 ministers
(b) 12 ministers
(c) 15% of their lower house members
(d) 5 % of the lower house members
Ans: (b)
Q15. If in an election of State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is not elected loses his deposit, it means that

(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was marginal
(d) he did not get the required number of minimum votes
Ans: (d)
Q16. The Constitution says that the state council of ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The words “during the pleasure of the Governor” in reality means :

(a) Pleasure of the President
(b) Pleasure of the Prime Minister
(c) Pleasure of the Chief Minister
(d) Pleasure of the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (d)
Q17. The Chief Minister of a state is

(a) elected by the State Legislature
(b) appointed by the Governor
(c) appointed by the President
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q18. The oath of office is administered to the members of the State Council of Ministers by the

(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
Ans: (a)
Q19. There is a constitutional requirement to have a minister is charge of tribal welfare for the states of

(a) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur
(b) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan
(d) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya
Ans: (d)
Q20. Oath of office is administered to the Governor by:

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
Ans: (c)
Q21. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?

(a) 350 members
(b) 400 members
(c) 450 members
(d) 500 members
Ans: (d) The Legislative Assembly (the Vidhan Sabha) is the pop¬ular House of the State Legislative and its member are chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage from territorial constituencies (Article 170) .The number of members ranges between 60 and 500.
Q22. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or abolished by the

(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state.
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect.
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers.
Ans: (c)
Q23. The State Government’s responsibility for educational planning is shared by the

(a) Ministery of Programme implementation
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Ministry of Planning
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans: (b)
Q24. The Union Legislature cannot legislate on a subject in the State List unless:

(a) The President call upon it to do so
(b) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary in national interest to do so
(c) The Speaker certifies that it is necessary
(d) There is a national emergency
Ans: (b)
Q25. If the States fail to carry out the directives of the Central Government with regard to exercise of their administrative powers:

(a) the President can impose President’s rule on the State and assume all the powers of the State Government
(b) the President can send reserve police to the State for the implementation of these directives
(c) the President can dispatch army for their implementation
(d) the President can direct the Governor to dismiss the State Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
Q26. If in an election to a state Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected losses his deposit, it means that:

(a) A very large number of candidate contested the election
(b) The elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(c) The election was for a multi-member constituency
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q27. As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?

(a) 350 members
(b) 400 members
(c) 450 members
(d) 500 members
Ans: (d) The Legislative Assembly (the Vidhan Sabha) is the popular House of the State Legislative and its member are chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage from territorial constituencies (Article 170) .The number of members ranges between 60 and 500.
Q28. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or abolished by the

(a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state.
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that effect.
(d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers.
Ans: (c)
Q29. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State?

(a) Asom
(b) Manipur
(c) Nagaland
Ans: (c) Article 371A deals with the Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland.
Q30. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article?

(a) Jharkhand
(b) Punjab
(d) Odisha
Ans: (b) According to Article 164 (1) in the State of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes or any other work. Punjab is not covered by the Article.
Q31. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Governor of the concerned State
(c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
Ans: (d) The legislative assembly of the concerned state recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the legislative council in a state (Article 169) .
Q32. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan Parishad?

(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
Ans: (c) Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.Tamilnadu does not have Legislative Council.
Q33. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.

In this context which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states
Ans: (c) The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main types of states:The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and state legislature.The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh.The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner appointed by the President of India.The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant governor appointed by the central government.
Q34. Which one among the following is not a recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the Governor in a state?

(a) He/She must not have participated in active politics at least for sometime before his/her appointment as Governor
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be consulted by the President in selecting a Governor
(c) The Governor’s term of office of five years should not be disturbed except very rarely
(d) The Governor should not be the native of the state
Ans: (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India. According to the commission, Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing the Governor.
Q35. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President’s rule in the state

(a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature
(b) on the recommendation of the President
(c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
(d) if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India
Ans: (d) President’s rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes under the direct control of the central government, with executive authority exercised through the Governorinstead of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional machinery in any states of India.
Q36. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even though the Constitution? (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
Ans: (d) The are only five states with bicameral legislature (Legislative assembly as well as Legislative Council) – UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir
Q37. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 358
Ans: (a) Article 257 in the Constitution states that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on the States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies.
Q38. In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies?

(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Ans: (a) The State government does not have control over its local bodies in matters of Citizens’ grievances.
Q39. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
Ans: (d) A lieutenant Governor is in charge of a Union Territory whereas a Governor is in charge of a State. The rank of Lt.Governor is present only in the states of Delhi, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Puducherry. So in the case of a Union Territory specified where there is a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor.
Q40. Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states?

(a) 4th Amnd.
(b) 7th Amnd
(c) 11th Amnd
(d) 24th Amnd
Ans: (b)
Q41. Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly of through officers subordiante to him. The word subordinates includes :

(a) All the ministers and the Chief Minister
(b) All the ministers except the Chief Minister
(c) Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister
(d) Only the Cabinet Minister
Ans: (a)
Q42. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 153 – Office of the Governor
(b) Article 156 – Term of the Governor
(c) Article 154 – Executive authority of Governor
(d) Article 155 – Removal of Governor
Ans: (d)
Q43. Who/Which of the following can abolish a State Legislative Council.

(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) State Assembly
Ans: (a)
Q44. Union Territories are administered by the:

(a) Parliament
(b) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q45. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relation between the:

(a) three organs of the government
(b) Centre and the States
(c) Legislature and the Executive
(d) Constitution and the States
Ans: (b)
Q46. Grant in aid are provided every year to States in need of assistance as recommended by the

(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q47. Which statements regarding the levying, collection and distribution of Income Tax is correct?

(a) Union levies, collects and distributes the collection between itself and the states
(b) Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax
(c) Union levies and collects the tax but the proceeds are allocated among the states
(d) Only the surcharge levied on income tax is shared between the Union and the states
Ans: (a)
Q48. Which one of the following is not among the sources of Union Revenue?

(a) Taxes on income other than agricultural income
(b) Land Revenue
(c) Custom duties including export duties
(d) Duties of excise on tobacco and other goods manufactured or produced in India except alcoholic liquors, opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs.
Ans: (b)
Q49. Which one is not the component of the ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna’?

(a) Elementary Education
(b) Primary health
(d) Nutrition
Ans: (d) Nutrition is not the component of the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojna. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana’ aims at -1. meeting rural needs like primary education, health care, drinking water, housing, rural roads2. alleviating employment in rural areas3. generating employment in rural areas4. strengthening Panchayati Raj system in rural areas
Q50. Which one of the following is charged to the Consolidated Fund of India and can be spent without authorization by the Parliament?

(a) Debit charges for which the Government of India is liable
(b) Salary and allowances of President
(c) Salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts
(d) all the above
Ans: (d)
Q51. The entry “Public health and Sanitation” is included in the Constitution of India in

(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) The entry “public health and sanitation” is included in the state list of the constitution of India.
Q52. Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Government?

(a) Corporation tax
(b) Customs duty
(c) Sales tax
(d) Income tax
Ans: (c) State government has exclusive right/jurisdiction over the sales tax.
Q53. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if the

(a) President issues an order authorizing it to do so
(b) Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard
(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient to legislate on a State matter in the national interest
(d) Prime Minister issues a special order
Ans: (c) State list consists of 61 items (previously 66 items) . Uniformity is desirable but not essential on items in this list: maintaining law and order, police forces, healthcare, transport, land policies, electricity in state, village administration, etc. The state legislature has exclusive power to make laws on these subjects. But in certain circumstances, the parliament can also make laws on subjects mentioned in the State list. Then the parliament has to pass a resolution with 2/3rd majority that it is expedient to legislate on this state list in the national interest. Though states have exclusive powers to legislate with regards to items on the State list, articles 249, 250, 252, and 253 state situations in which the federal government can legislate on these items.
Q54. The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the following?

(a) Corruption in India
(b) Centre-state relations
(c) local governance
(d) Inter-river dispute
Ans: (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central government.
Q55. Sarkaria Commission was established to study

(a) President and Governoers’ relations
(b) Centre-State relations
(c) State and Panchayat body relations
(d) President and Prime Minister’ relations
Ans: (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up by the central government of India in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India.
Q56. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched ?

(a) Central Government : Union List
(b) Local Governments : Residuary powers
(c) State Governments : State List
(d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List
Ans: (b) The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state importance. The state governments have the authority to make laws on these subjects. These subjects include police, local governments, trade, commerce and agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental authority after certain powers have been delegated to other authorities.
Q57. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchange : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Ans: (b) Stock Exchanges are listed in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) List I-Union List, item no. 90 that reads, taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets. Forests-Concurrent List, 17-A, Post Office Savings Bank -Union List-3, Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries – State List -6.
Q58. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?

(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public Health
Ans: (a) Agriculture (Entry 14) , Fisheries (Entry 21) , Public Health (Entry 6) are in the State List. Regulation of Labour and safety in mines and oil fields is in the Union list under Entry 55 (Art 246) .

State Government

Q1. Which of the following is a discretionary powers of the Governor?
1. Selecting a chief minister if no single party has a clear majority.
2. Dismissing the ministry at any time.
3. Reserving a bill for the President.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q2. Legislative Council of a State:

1. is not subject to dissolution
2. can be abolished by the State Legislative Assembly
3. can be abolished by the President on Governor’s recommendation
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans: (a)
Q3. Which of the following is/are required for a Legislative Council in a State to be created or abolished?

1. Act of Parliament
2. Resolution of the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
3. Recommendation by the Governor of the State concerned
4. Constitutional Amendment requiring States’ ratification
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q4. R1 : The legislative Council is inferior to legislative Assembly

R2 : The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly.
R2 : A bill originating in the Council can be put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it.
R3 : 1/6 of the Council’s members are nominated by the Governor.
1. A and R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1, R2 and, R3 explain A
2. A, Rl and R3 are correct and Rl and R3 explain A
3. A, Rl, R2 and R3 are correct but only Rl and R2 explain A
4. A and R2 are wrong; Rl and R3, are correct.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q5. Which of the following statements are true about the Governor of a state?

1. The executive power of the state is vested in him.
2. He must have attained 35 years of age.
3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
4. The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2, and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q6. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:

1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2,3 and 4
(b) 1,3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q7. The Governor of state :

1. Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.
2. Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.
3. Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.
4. Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers.
Of the above, the correct statement are :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q8. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deducted from this?

1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither
Ans: (d)
Q9. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q10. The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are :

1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the president of state council of ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q
Ans: (d)
Q
Ans: (b)
Q13. The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are :

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inficted by court martial while the President cannot.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.
4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q14. Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from following by the codes given below

1. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State.
2. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals for legislation.
3. The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of National Development Council.
4. The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council as if the Governor requires.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d) National Development Council is not constitutional
Q15. Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of the Governor of a State :

1. The governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the State Assembly.
2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the State Assembly.
3. The Governor addresses the first session of the Legislative Assembly after elections.
4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget in the State Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b) The Governor is a part of the state legislative and can summon, adjourn or prorogue the state legislative. The governor can even dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Legislative Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year the Lieutenant Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly and inform it of the causes of its summons. As per Article 202 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a State shall, cause to be laid before the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State a Statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the State for a financial year. This estimated statement of receipt and expenditure for a financial year named in the Constitution as the “Annual Financial Statement” is commonly known as “Budget”.
Q16. Consider the following statements:

The Governor of a State has the power to appoint:
1. Judges of the High Court
2. Members of the State Public Service Commission
3. Members of the State Finance Commission
4. The Accountant General
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) The Governor has the power to appoint the Council of Ministers including the Chief Minister of the state, the Advocate General and the members of the State Public Service Commission. However, the Governor cannot remove the members of the State Public Service Commission as they can only be removed by an order of the President.
Q17. In which of the following bodies, does the Chief Minister of a State hold membership?

1. National Integration Council
2. National Development Council
3. Inter-State Council
4. Zonal Council
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
Q18. Consider the following statements :

1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of Ministers.
2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be appointed as a minister.
3. The State Council of Ministers can function for sometime even after death or resignation of the Chief Minister.
4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the State Council of Ministers.
Which of these is / are correct ?
(a) Only 1
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a) The Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to act in his discretion. The governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.
Q19. Consider the following statements:

1. No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he has completed the age of thirty years.
2. The same person can be appointed as Governor for three States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Q20. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Legislature of a State shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or House thereof.
2. A bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State which has not been passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q21. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The Speaker immediately vacates his/her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) members of state legislative assembly are not liable to any proceeding in any court.
Q22. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above statements are correct.
Q23. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?

1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years
Codes:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) According to Article 156, the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, the Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office. Subject to the foregoing provisions of this article, a Governor shall hold for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Providedthat a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
Q24. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India provides that:
1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under Article 173. Statement 1 is incorrect as according to article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
Q25. India’s is a federal system of government as:

1. Union Legislature is bicameral
2. provision of single citizenship
3. Constitution is supreme
4. there is an independent judiciary
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q26. Which of the following are matters on a which a Constitutional Amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the states ?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Any of the lists in the seventh Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a state
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q27. Which of the following are the features of Indian federal system ?

1. Division of powers between the centre and the units
2. Residuary powers vested with the centre
3. Existence of the nominal and real executive
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q28. The Inter-State Council consists of

1. Prime Minister
2. Chief Ministers of all states
3. Chief Ministers of union territories with legislatures
4. Eight Union Cabinet Ministers
5. Administrators of union territories with legislatures
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)
Q29. The Prime Minister of India recently ruled out the decision of the Cauvery River Authority, in which Karnataka was ordered to release water to Tamil Nadu. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

1. The Cauvery River Authority comprises of the Chief Ministers of Puducherry, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka along with the PM as chairman.
2. Inter-state water disputes are excluded from the primary jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c) The Cauvery River authority comprises of the CMs of puducherry, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Inter- State water disputes are excluded from the primary jurisdiction of the supreme court of India. On 20 February 2013, based on the directions of the Supreme Court, the Indian Government has notified the final award of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) . The Tribunal, in a unanimous decision in 2007, determined the total availability of water in the Cauvery basin at 740 thousand million cubic (tmc) feet at the Lower Coleroon Anicut site, including 14 tmcft for environmental protection and seepage into the sea. The final award makes an annual allocation of 419 tmcft to Tamil Nadu in the entire Cauvery basin, 270 tmcft to Karnataka, 30 tmcft to Kerala and 7 tmcft to Puducherry.
Q30. Which of the following can be associated with MGNREGA programme?

1. It provides wage employment to every household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
2. It focuses on strengthening of natural resource management.
3. It encourages sustainable development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) MGNREGA Programme provides employment to every household adult members to do unskilled manual work, focuses on natural resources management and encourages sustainable development. The statute is hailed by the government as “the largest and most ambitious social security and public works programme in the world”.
Q31. Govt. decided to add four new tribes, Abuj Maria, Korba, Hill Korba and Kodaku into the list of scheduled tribes. Which of the following is/are correct in regard to granting the status of scheduled tribe to a tribe?

1. President has the authority to include or exclude a tribe from the list of schedule tribes.
2. The criterion for a community to be recognized as scheduled tribe is not spelled out in the constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) According to article 342 of the constitution it is the parliament, which can decide on the inclusion and exclusion of a tribe into the list of schedule tribe. The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Q32. Which of the following is among the main provisions of the ‘MGNREGA’ ?

1. There is no time bound limit to provide employment to the beneficiaries registered under the act
2. There is a provision for daily unemployment allowance in cash to be paid.
3. Employment is limited and confined within a limited radius.
4. At least one-third beneficiaries have to be women
State the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b) Under this act, there is a time bound limit to provide employment to the beneficiaries registered under the act.
Q33. Which of the following statements with regard to Inter-State Council is/are correct?

1. It was established under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
2. The Council is a recommendatory body.
3. There is a standing committee of the Council under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to process matters for consideration of the Council.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Both 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
Ans: (c) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order dated 28 May 1990. As the article 263 makes it clear that the Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the States of the Union. It can be established ‘at any time’ if it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of such a Council. The Council is a recommendatory body. The Council shall consist of Prime Minister (Chairman) , Chief Ministers of all States and union territories (Member) , Administrators (UT) and Six Ministers of Cabinet rank to be nominated by the Prime Minister (Member) .This is not a standing committee.
Q34. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List.
2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable
3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 2
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States to be desirable that any of the matters with respect to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the States except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in such States by Parliament by law.Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international conference, association or other body.
Q35. Consider the following statements about State Election Commission ?

1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the Governor of the State.
2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of superintendence, direction and control of election to the panchayats.
3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any manner from his office until he demits himself or completes his tenure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
Ans: (b) The Election Commissioners in the each State shall be appointed by the Governor of the respective State from a penal of five names for each office forwarded by the Election Commission of Bharatto the provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 and the Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions and appointment of State Election Commissioners are contemplated to superintend, direct and control the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Election Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and investigation made by a judicial committee constituted for the purpose, consisting of two Chief Justices and one Judge from different High Courts.
Q36. Consider the following statements : [IAS Prelims 2015]

1 The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d) The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
Q37. Consider the following statements : [IAS Prelims 2016]

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2Matching Based MCQDIRECTIONS (Qs. 38 to 43) : Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
Ans: (a) Zilla parishads at the sub-divisional level-Assam Mandal Praja parishad-Andhra Pradesh, Tribal Councils- Meghalaya and Absence of village panchayats-Mizoram
Q38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II
(Local bodies) (States as in 1999)
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village 4. Meghalaya Panchayats
Codes :
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Ans: (a) 1st statement is right. Because• Under Article 168 of the Constitution of India: All executive actions of the Governor of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of Governor. (which include transfer, posting, promotion of civil servants allotted to that state cadre.) so, Yes, as such chief Secretary is “chosen” by Chief minister officially its expressed that chief Secretary is ‘appointed’ by the governor of the state.• Another way to look at it is- even state advocate general, university vice chancellors are ‘chosen’ by CM from among his favorite people- but officially they’re ‘appointed’ by the Governor. Ref: Page 26.5- Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth, 4th Edition (Macgrawhill Publication)
Q39. List-I List-II

(A) Governor (1) Article 167
(B) Council of ministers (2) Article 169
(C) Duties of Chief Minister (3) Article 155
(D) Legislative Council (4) Article 163
(a) A – 1 ; B – 2 ; C – 3 ; D – 4
(b) A – 4 ; B – 3 ; C – 2 ; D – 1
(c) A – 3 ; B – 2 ; C – 4 ; D – 1
(d) A – 3 ; B – 4 ; C – 1 ; D – 2
Ans: (d)
Q40. List I (Article of the List II (Content)

Constitution)
(A) Article 54 (1) Election of the President of India
(B) Article 75 (2) Appointment of the Prime
Minister and Council of
Ministers
(C) Article 155 (3) Appointment of the
Governor of a state
(D) Article 164 (4) Appointment of the Chief
Minister and Council of
Ministers of a state
(5) Composition of Legislative
Assemblies
(a) A – 1 ; B – 2 ; C – 3 ; D – 4
(b) A – 1 ; B – 2 ; C – 4 ; D – 5
(c) A – 2 ; B – 1 ; C – 3 ; D – 5
(d) A – 2 ; B – 1 ; C – 4 ; D – 3
Ans: (a)
Q41. List-I List-II

(A) Union List (1) Banking
(B) State List (2) Public order and police
(C) Concurrent (3) Labour Wel-List fare
(a) A – 2 ; B – 1 ; C – 3
(b) A – 1 ; B – 2 ; C – 3
(c) A – 1 ; B – 3 ; C – 2
(d) A – 3 ; B – 1 ; C – 2
Ans: (b)
Q42. List-I (States) List -II (Governor’s special responsibilities)

(B) Gujarat (2) Administration of tribal areas
(C) Nagaland (3) Development of backward areas
(D) Assam (4) Minister for Tribal Welfare
(5) Hill Areas Committee working
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
Ans: (c)
Q43. List-I List -II

(A) Article 156 (1) Executive authority of Governor
(B) Article 154 (2) Tenure of Governor
(C) Article 153 (3) Appointment of Governor
(D) Article 155 (4) Office of Governor
(5) discretionary power of Governor
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 2 4
Ans: (b) 21. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following ? (1) People’s participation in development (2) Political accountability (3) Democratic decentralization (4) Financial mobilizationSelect the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 422. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/ reconciliators.Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 223. Consider the following statements.1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.2. A Panchayat reconstituted after prenature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. ______ conducts elections to Panchayats and Municipalities?

(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) State Election Commission
(d) Central Election Commission
Ans: (c)
Q2. Regarding reservation of seats on Panchayats and Municipalities, it would INCORRECT to say:

(a) Seats are reserved for SC/ST in proportion to their number
(b) At least 1/3 of total number of seats are filled by direct elections and are reserved for women
(c) reservations for SC/ST are effective till 2010
(d) Unreserved seats cannot be contested by women
Ans: (d)
Q3. Direct elections to all tiers of the Panchayat were held first after the 73rd Amendment came into force in ____?

(b) Rajasthan
(c) Karnataka
Ans: (d)
Q4. 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts:

(a) Came into force on being passed by the Parliament
(b) Both came into force in June, 1993
(c) Had to be ratified by more than half the states
(d) Have not been ratified by the required number of states
Ans: (c)
Q5. If the Governor of a State is appointed administrator of a Union Territory, he exercises his functions

(a) on advice of his Council of Ministers
(b) independently of Council of Ministers
(c) according to Parliament’s directions
(d) on the directions of the State Legislature
Ans: (b)
Q6. _____ was not proposed by the 73rd constitutional amendment for Panchayati raj?

(a) 30% seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women
(b) States will constitute Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj bodies
(c) Elected functionaries would be disqualified to hold offices if they have more than two children
(d) Elections will be held in six months’ time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or dissolved.
Ans: (c)
Q7. According to the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be:

(a) Kept out of the Zila Parishad
(b) A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad
(c) A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote
(d) The Chairman of the Zila Parishad
Ans: (d)
Q8. Panchayati Raj form of rural local government was adopted first by (in the order):

(b) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
Ans: (c)
Q9. “The state shall take steps to organise village Panchayats and endow them with such powers as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” This provision is mentioned in:

(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part IV-A of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q10. Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board?

(a) It is created by an executive resolution.
(b) It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry.
(c) It is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
(d) It is a statutory body
Ans: (a)
Q11. A committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayti Raj was chaired by

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) K.N. Katju
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Ans: (b) The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by Ashok Mehta. The committee submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the country. As a result of this report, the Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and West Bengal passed new legislations. However, the flow of politics at the state level did not allow the institutions to develop their own political dynamics.
Q12. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) One year
Ans: (c)
Q13. Which of the following committees is not concerned with Panchayati Raj?

(a) Santhnam Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee
Ans: (a)
Q14. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as

(a) Nyaya Panchayat
(b) Municipal Panchayat
(c) Nagar Panchayat
(d) Gram Panchayat
Ans: (c) Under 74th Amendment of the constitution the local body for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This article provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas i.e. an area in transition from rural to urban, a municipality for a smaller urban area and a municipal corporation for a larger urban area.
Q15. ‘Swaranajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna’ came into being in:

(a) April, 1995
(b) April, 1997
(c) April, 1999
(d) July, 2001
Ans: (c) ‘Swaranajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojna’ came into being in April, 1999. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) is an initiative launched by the Government of India to provide sustainable income to poor people living in rural areas of the country. The scheme was launched on April 1, 1999.The SGSY aims at providing self-employment to villagers through the establishment of Self-help groups.
Q16. The system of Panchayati Raj involves

(a) The village block and district levels
(b) The village and State levels
(c) The village State and Union levels
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q17. The primary aim of the Panchayati Raj administration is:

(a) to work for rural development
(b) to ensure the upliftment of Harijans
(c) to arouse in the people continuous interest in the community development programmes
(d) to increase agricultural production through the involvement of the people in extension programmes
Ans: (c)
Q18. The lowest unit in the Panchayati Raj institutions is

(a) a village panchayat
(b) the Panchayat Samiti
(d) the Gram Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q19. The Committee on whose recommendation Panchayati Raj was introduced in the country was headed by

(a) Jivraj Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q20. When was the Panchayati Raj introduced in India?

(a) 1950
(b) 1959
(c) 1952
(d) 1962
Ans: (b)
Q21. One of the following is not a part of Panchayati

(a) District Board
(b) Town Area Committees
(c) Village Block
(d) Panchayati Boards
Ans: (b)
Q22. The original Scheme of Panchayati Raj introduced in 1959, operates at (in descending order of tiers):

(a) Zilla Parishad. Samiti, Gram Sabha
(b) Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat, Zilla Parishad
(c) Gram Sabha, Zilla Parishad, Village Panchayat
(d) Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Village Panchayat
Ans: (d)
Q23. Who is known as the ‘Father of Local Government in India’?

(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Wellesly
(c) Lord Mayo
(d) Lord Ripon
Ans: (d)
Q24. A person to be qualified for standing in a Panchayat election must have attained the age of:

(a) 21 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Ans: (a)
Q25. One of the advantages of the Panchayati Raj is that

(a) of providing a parallel government in rural areas
(b) of serving the rural people well
(c) of increasing the employment opportunities in rural areas
(d) giving a sense of political awareness to the rural masses
Ans: (d)
Q26. The Panchayati Raj institutions in India get their funds mainly from

(a) voluntary contributions
(b) property tax
(c) local taxes
(d) Government grants
Ans: (d)
Q27. What is main purpose of Panchayati Raj?

(a) To increase agricultural production
(b) To create employment
(c) To make people politically conscious
(d) To make people participate in developmental administration
Ans: (d)
Q28. Nyaya Panchayats are expected to

(a) deal with all crimes committed in the villages
(b) met out justice to villagers so that litigation is minimum
(c) settle disputes through persuasion
(d) try petty civil suits and minor offences
Ans: (d)
Q29. Which of the following States was the first to establish the new Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
Ans: (a)
Q30. In which part of the Constitution is the State enjoined to establish Panchayati Raj institutions?

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (b)
Q31. Which of the following is not one of the sources of revenue of village Panchayats?

(a) Government Grants
(b) House Tax
(c) Income Tax
(d) Local Taxes on land
Ans: (c)
Q32. Pick out the statement which is not correct.

(a) The Gram Panchayat is headed by the Sarpanch
(b) The Panchayat Samiti is headed by the Chairman
(d) The Sarpanch and the Chairman are elected directly by the people
Ans: (d)
Q33. A Panchayat Samiti at the Block level is:

(c) a consultant committee
(d) a supervisory authority
Ans: (b)
Q34. Who has representation on the Zilla Parishad?

(a) Women
(b) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(c) Representatives of cooperative societies
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q35. Panchayati Raj is

(a) the functioning of village republics in a democracy
(b) the self-government of the villagers in India
(c) a complex system of rural local government
(d) a hierarchical set up for rural administration
Ans: (c)
Q36. Balwant Rai Mehta team was set up in 1956 by the National Development Council for the purpose of:

(a) reporting on the working of the village panchayats at that time
(b) investigating the feasibility of setting up the new panchayat machinery
(c) suggesting measures for democratic decentralization
(d) suggesting measures for better efficiency in the implementation of the Community Development projects
Ans: (d)
Q37. Who are generally the members of Gram Sabha?

(a) All the heads of families of the respective villages
(b) All the voters in the respective villages
(c) All adult males in the villages
(d) Nominated members
Ans: (b)
Q38. Local government institutions:

(a) can levy taxes with prior approval of the State government
(b) can levy all taxes
(c) propose taxes to the state governments
(d) can levy taxes
Ans: (d)
Q39. In the three-tier Panchayati Raj structure the Block is:

(a) the lowest structure
(b) the intermediary structure
(c) the highest structure
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q40. The members of the Panchayat are:

(a) nominated by the District Officer
(b) elected by the people
(c) nominated by Local Self-Government and Ministers of the State
(d) nominated by the Block Development Organisation
Ans: (b)

(a) a co-ordinating and supervisory body
(b) an implementing body
(c) a judicial body
(d) a combination of all the above
Ans: (a)
Q42. Which of the following States has no Panchayat Raj institution at all?

(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Tripura
(d) Kerala
Ans: (b)
Q43. The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on:

(a) local taxes
(b) property tax
(c) government finances
(d) grants-in-aid from the Central Government
Ans: (c)
Q44. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not such provision?

(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
Ans: (d)
Q45. For successful functioning, Panchayati Raj needs the cooperation of:

(a) the state government
(b) the central government
(c) the local people
(d) the bureaucracy
Ans: (c)
Q46. What is the system of goverance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q47. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of local government in India?

(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Ans: (a)
Q48. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

(a) To provide self-governance
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Ans: (d) PESA Act does not identify the freedom of tribal people from exploitation as its objectives, but it automatically becomes a byproduct of its objectives.
Q49. Which of the following is the main source of income for the Municipal Committee?

(a) octroi duty
(b) income tax
(c) assistance from the centre
(d) excise duty
Ans: (a)
Q50. Which one of the following statements regarding local government in India has been wrongly listed?

(a) The election to local bodies are determined by a commission
(b) 30 per cent of the seats in local bodies are reserved for the women
(c) Finances to local governments are provided by a commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q51. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

(a) Single tier structure of local self govt. at the village level
(b) Two tier system of local self govt. at the village and block levels.
(c) Three tier structure of local self govt. at the village, block and district levels.
(d) Four tier system of local self govt. at the village, block, district and state levels.
Ans: (c) Part IX of the constitution envisages a 3-tier system of panchayats, namely (a) the village level (b) the district panchayat (district-level) (c) The intermediate panchayat (block-level)
Q52. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd constitutional amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all levels.
(b) The state will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(c) The Panchayati Raj elected functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children.
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superseded or dissolved by the state government.
Ans: (a) The act provides for the reservation of not less than one third (33%) of the total of seats for women at all levels.
Q53. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which one of the following Panchayati Raj structures?

(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Panchayat Samiti at the block level only
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level only
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district level
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Zilla Parishad at the district level only
Ans: (c) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) .It recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system-Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level.
Q54. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj ?

(a) Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
(b) Creation of a three-tier system
(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj Institution.
Ans: (b) Creation of a three-tier system was not the recommendation of Ashok Mehta Committee. According to this committee,the 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system. Ashoka Mehta committee was appointed by the Janata Government under the chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta.
Q55. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of

(a) its first meeting
(b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat
(c) declaration of the election results
(d) taking oath of office by the elected members
Ans: (a) According to Article 243 (E) , every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
Q56. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA law is not correct?

(a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the scheduled areas
(b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
(d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights of the tribals
Ans: (b) Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act (PESA) is a law enacted by the Government of India to cover the “Scheduled areas” which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources.
Q57. Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded or dissolved by the State government
Ans: (c) Statement given under option (c) is not mentioned in 73rd amendment act. But this norm is applied in Haryana, Rajasthan, MP, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
Q58. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the:

(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed men and women in rural areas
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination
Ans: (c) 73rd Amendment Act added Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for the Panchayati Raj System.
Q59. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?

(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Ans: (b) According to 73rd Amendment Act 1993, under Article 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved for women in local bodies.
Q60. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?

(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level.
(b) Two tier system of local self government at the village and block levels
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village block, district and in the state levels
Ans: (c) According to 73rd Amendment Act, three-tier system of Panchayats exists: Village level, District Panchayat at the district level, the intermediate Panchayat which stands between the village and District Panchayats in the States where the population is above 20 Lakhs.
Q61. Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in:

(a) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (a) Panchayati Raj System was first introduced in Nagaur district of Rajasthan on October 2, 1959 followed by Andhra Pradesh in 1959.
Q62. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past.

Which one of the following is not one such provisions?
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among other
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, upto a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
Ans: (d) Provision given in option (d) is not included under 73rd Amendment Act 1993.
Q63. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Ans: (c) Duration of Panchayats is five year. Fresh election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed before the expiryof its term; or in case of dissolution before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution.
Q64. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

(a) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Ans: (b) In 1688, the first Municipal Corporation of India was set up in Madras.
Q65. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram SabhaExercise -2Statement Based MCQ
Ans: (d) Section C of the Forest Dweller Act provides a transparent three step procedure for deciding on who gets rights.Firstly, the Gram Sabha makes a recommendation- i.e, who has been cultivating land for how long, which minor forest produce is collected; etc. The Gram Sabha plays this role because it is a public body where all people participate and hence is fully democratic and transparent. The Gram Sabha’s recommendation goes through two stages of screening committees- the Taluka and the District levels.

Judiciary

MCQs Difficulty Level-1
Q1. Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath or affirmation before entering upon office conducted by

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President or Vice-President
(c) President
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q2. A judge of a High Court can be removed before the expiry of his time by:

(a) President on the recommendation of the Supreme Court
(b) Governor on the recommendation of the State legislature
(c) President on the recommendation of the State legislature
(d) President on the recommensdation of the Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q3. A judge of a High Court wanting to resign addresses his letter or resignation to:

(a) the President
(b) the Chief Justice of his High Court
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) Governor of the State
Ans: (a)
Q4. Which is not a power of a High Court?

(a) Supervision over all courts under its jurisdiction
(b) Jurisdiction over revenue matters
(c) Supervision over tribunals constituted by law relating to armed forces
(d) Issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights or for any other purpose
Ans: (c)
Q5. Oath to a High Court judge is administered by:

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Justice of that High Court
(c) Governor of the State
(d) President of India
Ans: (c)
Q6. Public interest litigation applies to cases of public injury arising from:

(a) Breach of public duty
(b) Violation of a constitutional provision
(c) Violation of law
(d) all of the above
Ans: (d)
Q7. In Minerva Mills cases, the Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its decision in

(a) Golakh Nath Case
(b) Keshavanand Bharati case
(c) Sajjan Singh Case
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q8. District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The State Public Service Commission
(c) The Chief Minister of state
(d) The Governor of state
Ans: (d)
Q9. The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of:

(a) District Collector
(b) Governor of the state
(c) Law Minister of the state
(d) High Court of the state
Ans: (d)
Q10. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with:

(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
(b) The Governor of the concerned state
(c) The Attorney-General of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (d)
Q11. The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by

(a) the Governor of the state
(b) the President of India
(c) the Chief Minister of the state
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
Q12. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact

(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the fundamental righ of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Ans: (b)
Q13. Which one of the following is directly related to the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Appeals made in civil, criminal and constitutional cases
(b) Appeals made in constitutional cases
(c) Adjudication of disputes between the union and the states
(d) Adjudication of disputes between the states
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The President of India is the custodian of the Constitution of India
(b) The Supreme Court of India can declare a law passed by any State/Union Legislature null and void if it encroaches upon the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India
(c) The number of judges in a High Court is to be determined from time to time by the Governor of the State concerned
(d) The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the Governor of the State concerned on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
Q15. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:

(a) Dispute relating to civil matters
(b) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
(c) Disputes between two states of the Indian Union
(d) Disputes between two citizens from two different states
Ans: (c)
Q16. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India, on any question of Law?

(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Any judge of the high court
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
Q17. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its _________

(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) constitutional Jurisdiction
(d) Original Jurisdiction
Ans: (d) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its original jurisdiction. The original jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction, when a court has the power to review a lower court’s decision. In India, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction on all cases between the Government and the States or between Government and states on side and one or more states on other side or cases between different states. In addition, Article 32 of the Constitution of India grants original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court on all cases involving the enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
Q18. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by:

(a) Powers of the President of India
(b) Judicial review
(c) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
Ans: (b) Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by judicial review. Parliamentary sovereignty (also called parliamentary supremacy or legislative supremacy) is a concept in the constitutional law of some parliamentary democracies. It holds that the legislative body has absolute sovereignty, and is supreme over all other government institutions, including executive or judicial bodies. The concept also holds that the legislative body may change or repeal any previous legislation, and so that it is not bound by written law (in some cases, even a constitution) or by precedent. Parliamentary sovereignty may be contrasted with the doctrines of separation of powers, which limits the legislature’s scope often to general law-making, and judicial review, where laws passed by the legislature may be declared invalid in certain circumstances.
Q19. Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted as the President of India also?

(a) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
(d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
Ans: (a)
Q20. The Indian constitution provides for the appointment of Ad hoc judges in:

(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) District and session Court
(d) All of these
Ans: (d) The Indian constitution provides for the appointment of adhoc judge in supreme court, high court and district and session court. If at any time there should not be a quorum of the Judges of the Supreme Court available to hold or continue any session of the Court, the Chief Justice of India may, with the previous consent of the President and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, request in writing the attendance at the sittings of the Court, as an ad hoc Judge, for such period as may be necessary, of a Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to be designated by the Chief Justice of India.
Q21. Which of the following State/Union territories have a common High Court?

(b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Assam and Bengal
Ans: (b)
Q22. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of Benches?

(a) Kolkata High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
Ans: (d) Guwahati high court has the largest number of Benches. The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam. The court has 3 outlying benches. These are: The Kohima bench for Nagaland state. The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state. The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state. Former benches, now full fledged high courts: The Imphal bench (established on 21 January 1972) (Converted to a High Court in March 2013) The Agartala bench established on 24 January 1972) (Converted to a High Court in March 2013) The Shillong bench established on 4 September 1974) (Converted to a High Court in March 2013)
Q23. The first High/Supreme Court judge, who voluntarily made his assets public is

(a) justice D.V.S. Kumar
(b) justice K. Chandra
(c) justice K. Kannan
(d) justice V.C. srivastava
Ans: (c)
Q24. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(b) Calcutta
(d) Odisha
Ans: (b) Calcutta High court has the territorial jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar island. The Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India. It was established as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William on 1 July 1862 under the High Courts Act, 1861.
Q25. In the verdict of which case, Supreme Court has nullified Parliament, effort to establish preference of all the Directive Principles of state policy over Fundamental rights?

(a) Keshvanand Bharti Vs State of Kerala Case
(b) Francis Coralie Mullin Vs Union Territory of Delhi
(c) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India case
(d) Indira Sawhani
Ans: (c) In the verdict of Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India case, Supreme Court has nullified parliament’s effort to establish preference of all the directive principles of state policy over Fundamental Rights.
Q26. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in which of the following articles of Indian constitution?

(a) Article 131
(b) Article 132
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 148
Ans: (a)
Q27. Which of the following writs literally means ‘we command’?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo-Warranto
Ans: (b) The writ mandamus literally means ‘we command’. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court, to any government subordinate court, corporation, or public authority— to do (or forbear from doing) some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do (or refrain from doing) —and which is in the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one of a statutory duty. It cannot be issued to compel an authority to do something against statutory provision.
Q28. In which of the following cases Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure?

(a) Keshwanand Bharti case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Minnerva Mills case
(d) Gopalan case
Ans: (a) In Keshvanand Bharti case the Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure. The case originated in February 1970 when Swami HH Sri Kesavananda Bharati, Senior Pontiff and head of “Edneer Mutt” – a Hindu Mutt situated in Edneer, a village in Kasaragod District of Kerala, challenged the Kerala government’s attempts, under two state land reform acts, to impose restrictions on the management of its property. Although the state invoked its authority under Article 31, a noted Indian jurist, Nanabhoy Palkhivala, convinced the Swami into fighting his petition under Article 26 (not Article 29) , concerning the right to manage religiously owned property without government interference. Even though the hearings consumed five months, the outcome would profoundly affect India’s democratic processes.
Q29. In Indian constitution the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas corpus’ is vested only in-

(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The High Court
(c) The Supreme Court and the High Court
(d) Lower Courts
Ans: (c) In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is vested only in the supreme court and the High court. A writ of habeas corpus is a writ (court order) that requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court. The principle of habeas corpus ensures that a prisoner can be released from unlawful detention—that is, detention lacking sufficient cause or evidence. The remedy can be sought by the prisoner or by another person coming to the prisoner’s aid. This right originated in the English legal system, and is now available in many nations. It has historically been an important legal instrument safeguarding individual freedom against arbitrary state action.
Q30. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union judiciary in the Constitution can be amended by

(a) Simple majority of the parliament
(b) Two-third majority of the parliament
(c) Two-third majority of the parliament and the majority of states
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q31. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a writ that “respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a privilege he was exercising”. which writ is that?

(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b) The above provision came under a writ quo warranto issued by the Supreme Court of India. Quo warranto (Medieval Latin for “by what warrant?”) is a prerogative writ requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what authority they have for exercising some right or power (or “franchise”) they claim to hold.
Q32. What is the objective advocated for appointment of the National judicial commission?

(a) Training of the judges
(b) Reforms in legal system
(c) Bringing about transparency and impartiality in the appointment of judges of the highest level.
(d) To examine the working period of the judges.
Ans: (c) The main objective advocated for appointment of the National judicial commission is bringing about transparency and impartiality in the appointment of judges of the highest level.
Q33. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court in India be increased ?

(a) Representation from the Supreme Court
(b) By amendment of the constitution
(c) By a Parliamentary Act
Ans: (b)
Q34. Which of the following cases cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court ?

(a) Cases against encroachment on Fundamental Rights
(b) Both (a) and (b) above.
(c) If one’s property is forcefully occupied by the other
(d) Disputes between two or more States
Ans: (d)
Q35. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as a Judge of the High Court ?

(a) Must have been an advocate of a High Court for not less than 10 years
(b) Must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
(c) Must have attained the age of 55 years
(d) Must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years
Ans: (a)
Q36. Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to

(a) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(b) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution.
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) Review its own judgement
Ans: (c)
Q37. The High Courts in India were first started at

(d) Delhi and Calcutta
Ans: (c)
Q38. Besides its permanent seal at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at

(a) Any other Union Territory
(b) Any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President
(c) Any other metropolitan city
(d) Any other major city
Ans: (b)
Q39. What is meant by a Court of Record?

(a) The court that maintains records of all lower courts.
(b) The court that is competent to give directions and issue writs.
(c) The court that can punish for its contempt.
(d) The court that preserves all its records.
Ans: (d)
Q40. Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
Q41. After retirement, a Judge of a High Court can undertake practice in

(a) Any other court except the same court
(b) Wherever he intends to practice.
(c) The same court
(d) Lower courts only
Ans: (a)
Q42. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by

(a) VII Schedule to the Constitution
(b) Judicial decision
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble
Ans: (c)
Q43. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b) Chief Minister of the concerned state
(c) Governor of the concerned state
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q44. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court

(a) Can impeach the President
(b) Can declare a state law as unconstitutional
(c) Can review cases decided by the High Courts.
(d) Has final authority over all cases
Ans: (c)
Q45. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court ?

(a) Disputes between two States
(b) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes between the Centre and the States
Ans: (c)
Q46. Congnizable offence refers to an offence where

(a) Arrests can be made without warrant
(b) Police can register a case without formal complaints
(c) Arrests can be made with warrant
(d) It is under the jurisdiction of a court
Ans: (b)
Q47. Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can

(a) Ask the person to be produced
(b) Order to transfer the case from one court
(c) Ask to let a person free for a temporary period
(d) Direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
Ans: (d)
Q48. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom ?

(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (b)
Q49. Appointment of officers and servants of a High Court are made by the

(a) None of these
(b) Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) President
(d) Governor
Ans: (b)
Q50. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from the

(a) Grants-in-aid
(b) Public Accounts
(c) Contingency Fund
(d) Consolidated Fund
Ans: (d)
Q51. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one State/ Union Territories ?

(b) Delhi
(c) Guwahati
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q52. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?

(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (b)
Q53. The Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from office by the

(a) President on request of Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q54. The authority competent to suspend the operation of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India is

(a) Supreme Court
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q55. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the Constitution of India ?

(a) President
(b) Union Cabinet
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q56. Which of the following is an extensive original jurisdiction given by the Constitution of India to the Supreme Court ?

(a) Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(b) Advising the Chief Executive in legal matters
(c) Hearing revenue cases of appeal
(d) Hearing criminal cases of appeal
Ans: (a)
Q57. The High Court of West Bengal (Calcutta) has got the additional jurisdiction to hear cases from

(b) Mizoram
(c) Tripura
(d) Andaman and Nicobar islands
Ans: (d)
Q58. Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law ?

(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble
Ans: (a)
Q59. In whom are the powers of Judicial Review vested in India ?

(a) All the courts
(b) Supreme Court and all the High Courts
(c) President
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q60. The lowest court of revenue is that of a

(a) Naib Tehsildar
(b) Sub-judge
(c) Third class magistrate
(d) Munsif
Ans: (a)
Q61. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court are debarred from practising law

(a) In any court other than State High Courts
(b) In any Criminal Court
(c) In any court of India
(d) In any court other than the Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
Q62. Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court ?

(a) Governor of the State
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) State Government
Ans: (d)
Q63. Who is appointed as an adhoc judge of the Supreme Court ?

(a) A sitting judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge
(b) A person fully qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
(c) A retired judge of Supreme Court
(d) An acting judge of the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q64. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court ?

(a) Dispute relating to civil matters
(b) Dispute between two citizens from two different states
(c) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
(d) Disputes between two states of the Indian Union
Ans: (d)
Q65. Which High Court in India, has held that the pronouncement of Talaq thrice in one go is illegal ?

(a) Bombay High Court
(b) None of these
(c) Calcutta High Court
Ans: (d)
Q66. A common High Court for two or more states and Union Territory may be established by

(a) Parliament by Law
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Governer of the state
Ans: (a)
Q67. Under a single, integrated, hierarchical judicial system, the High Court in the states are directly under the

(a) President
(b) Union Parliament
(c) Governor of the state
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (d)
Q68. A Judge of a Supreme court may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Senior most judge of the supreme court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q69. The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court dose not involve

(a) Criminal Cases
(b) Cases involving interpretation of the Constitution
(c) Civil Cases
(d) Disputes arising out of pre-Constitution treaties and agreements
Ans: (d)
Q70. When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to.

(a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court.
(b) Special control exercised by the chief justice of India.
(c) Discretionary power of the Governor of the State
(d) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Ans: (c) According to Article 227 (b) , the Chief Justice of High Court when acts in an administrative capacity, any rule made by him shall not be inconsistent with the provision of any law in force and requires the previous approval of the governor.
Q71. Article 136 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to ‘Appeal by Special Leave’?

(a) It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court
(b) It can be granted against any court or tribunal including the military court
(c) It can be related to any matter
(d) None of these
Ans: (b) According to Article 136, ‘Appeal by special leave’ can be granted against any court or tribunal including the military court.
Q72. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
Ans: (c) It is under original jurisdiction the supreme court decides the disputes between centre and one or more states.
Q73. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Ans: (b) It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.
Q74. Who among the following appoints the Judges of a High Court?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Governor of the State concerned
(d) The Union Minister of Law
Ans: (a)
Q75. What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution of India?

(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 28
Ans: (c) The Supreme Court originally consistsd of a Chief- Justice and seven other judges. In 1985, the strength was increased. It comprises the chief justice and not more than 25 other judge.
Q76. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with

(a) judicial review
(b) judicial activism
(c) judicial intervention
(d) judicial sanctity
Ans: (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial activism in India.
Q77. The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to

(a) an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
(b) an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
(c) an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular office
(d) a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours
Ans: (b) Literally ‘certiorary’ means ‘to be certified’. It can be issued by the Supreme Court or the High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial authority.
Q78. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the following places?

(a) Nagpur
(b) Panaji
(c) Pune
Ans: (c) The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur, Aurangabad and Panaji.
Q79. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? (a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction

(a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
(c) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined in the preamble, cannot be changed
(d) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance
Ans: (b) PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be filed in Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question concerning the enforcement of a fundamental right is involved. Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in a High court whether or not a Fundamental Right is involved. Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction.
Q
Ans: (c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution.In the case, the Supreme Court ruled that all provisions of the constitution, including Fundamental Rights can be amended. However, the Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the constitution like secularism, democracy, federalism, separation of powers.
Q81. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends to

(a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
(b) disputes between the Government of India and one or more States
(c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution
Ans: (b) The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India extends to all cases between the Government of India and the States of India or between Government of India and states on side and one or more states on other side or cases between different states.
Q82. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of persons who are

(a) appointed to pubic services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the Defence services
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or any state legislatures
(d) members of the Defence services
Ans: (a) The Central Administrative Tribunal has been established for adjudication of disputes with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other local authorities within the territory of India.
Q83. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?

(a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(b) Vishakha case
(c) S R Bommai case
(d) Indira Sawhney case
Ans: (c) S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India was a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India regarding provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India and related issues. This case had huge impact on Centre-State Relations. The misuse of Article 356 was stopped after this judgment. Article 356 deals with imposition of President’s Rule over a State of India.
Q84. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following statements is correct?

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so far
(d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat
Ans: (d) Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as good as the decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore the courts have all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by itself. It was the legal services authority act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat.
Q85. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute between centre and state falls under

(b) original jurisdiction
(c) appellate jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Ans: (b) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 131) : Supreme court has power to decide disputes• between the Government of India and one or more States• between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other• between two or more States.
Q86. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of office by

(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) the Governor of the State
(c) the President of India
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b) According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath or affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
Q87. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case, which one among the following features of the Constitution of India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure?

(a) Liberalism
(b) Secularism
(c) Dignity of the human person
(d) Freedom of religion
Ans: (b) The case of S.R.Bommai vs Union of India is a landmark case in the purview of the Indian Constitutional history relating to the proclamation of emergency under Article 356 of the Constitution. The case mainly came up with the issue of the power of the President to issue proclamation under Article 356 of the Constitution including the power to dissolve State Legislative Assemblies and also issues relating to federalism and secularism as a part of basic structure.
Q88. Which of I the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not correct ?

(a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of courts as in the United States
(b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies slightly from State to State
(c) Every State in India has separate High Court
(d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of officers in criminal and civil side
Ans: (c) Every state in India does not have a separate High Court .The constitution provides that parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more states and a Union Territory.
Q89. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that Constitutional – Amendments were also laws under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Rights ?

(a) Keshavanand Bharati Case
(b) Golaknath Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
Ans: (a) Kesavananda Bharati. vs State of Kerala is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution Upholding the validity of clause (4) of article 13 and a corresponding provision in article 368 (3) inserted by the 24th Amendment. The Court settled in favour of the view that Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental Rights also.
Q90. The concept of public Interest litigation originated in:

(a) United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) USA
Ans: (c) PIL originated in USA. It seeks to protect and promote interest of the public at large.
Q91. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct ?

(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in general.
Ans: (c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.
Q92. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its:

(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Ans: (c) According to Article 131, The SC has original jurisdiction in any dispute – (a) between the Government of India & one or more States; or (b) between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other; or (c) between two or more States
Q93. When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to :

(a) the writ jurisdiction of any other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister
Ans: (a) It his administrative capacity he is subject to writ judiciary in (Article 1720–224) .
Q94. According to the Constitution of India the term ‘district judge’ shall not include:

(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judges
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Ans: (c) Under article 236 of the Constitution, The term “District Judge” includes judge of a city civil court, additional district judge, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a small cause court, chief presidency magistrate, additional chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge and assistant sessions judge and additional sessions judge.
Q95. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact:

(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Ans: (b) As per provisions under Article 143
Q96. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the:

(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans: (b) The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure / Art 112 (3) .
Q97. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:

(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Ans: (c) Such is the prerogative of the Parliament.
Q98. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Orissa
Ans: (b) The U.T. of Andaman and Nicobar Islands comes under the jurisdiction of high court of Calcutta under its extended jurisdiction Act 1953.
Q99. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?

(a) Attorney General of India–Judges of the SupremeCourt–Members the of Parliament–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Attorney General of India–Members of the Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Judges of the Supreme Court– Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court–Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Members of Parliament
Ans: (b) President comes first, Vice-President second, Prime Minister third and Governors of states with in their respective State comes fourth in the Warrant of Precedence.According to Indian order of precedence,Judges of the Supreme Court – Rank 9Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Rank 10Attorney General of India – Rank 11Members of Parliament – Rank 21
Q100. Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?

(a) M. Hidayatullah
(c) A. S. Anand
(d) P. N. Bhagwati
Ans: (d) PN Bhagwati was CJI during July 1985–Dec 1986. During his tenure as CJI, PIL was introduced to the Indian judicial system.
Q101. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans: (b) Bombay HC (Maharashtra & Goa) ; Guwahati (Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh) ; Punjab and Haryana HC (Punjab, Haryana)
Q102. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle matters at pre-litigating stage and not those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
Ans: (d) Cases that are pending in regular courts can be transferred to a Lok Adalat if both the parties agree. These are usually presided over by retired judges, social Activists, or other members of the legal profession. Lok Adalats can deal with any matter falling within the jurisdiction of civil, criminal etc.
Q103. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its (IAS Prelims 2014)

(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
Ans: (c) It is under original jurisdiction the supreme court decides the disputes between centre and one or more states.
Q104. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in (IAS Prelims 2014)

(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Ans: (b) It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.
Q105. Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? (IAS Prelims 2014)

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme court of India
Ans: (d) The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of a custodian of the Constitution, a court established by the authority of a federal government, and the uppermost court of appeal.
MCQs Difficulty Level-2
Q1. Regarding advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, which statements is/ are Not Correct?

1. It is obligatory for the Supreme Court to give its opinion if it is sought.
2. The advice is not binding on the President.
3. President may ask the Court’s opinion on treaties and agreements made before the Constitution was framed.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Q2. Supreme Court is a court of record. This implies that:

1. It can punish for its contempt
2. its decisions’ are admitted as evidence and cannot be questioned by any court
3. it has to keep a record of all the important cases in India
4. its decisions, once taken, are binding upon it
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q3. ________ is/are the qualifications for a High Court judge?

1. Citizenship of India
2. Must have held a judicial office for at least ten years
3. Must not be over 62 years of age
4. Must have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years or be an eminent jurist
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q4. Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Governor of the State
3. Chief Minister of the State
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q5. In a criminal case, an appeal lies to the Supreme Court if the High Court:

1. has convicted the accused and awarded him a death sentence
2. has on appeal reversed an order for acquittal of an accused and sentenced him to imprisonment of ten years or more
3. has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from a subordinate court and has convicted the accused and sentenced him to death
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q6. Consider the following statements :

1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Q7. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the difference between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India ?

1. The Supreme Court can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas high courts can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High courts can issue the writ of Injunction, whereas the Supreme Court cannot issue the writ of Injunction.
3. The Supreme Court can issue writs only in the case of appeal, whereas high courts can issue writs only when the party directly approaches it.
4. High courts can issue writs not only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose, whereas the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans: (b)
Q8. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with

1. the Chief Justice of India
2. the Governor of the state
3. the Chief Minister of the state
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:

1. The reference for advice may be made to the Supreme Court on a question of law of fact by the President of India
2. Disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties and agreements excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the government
4. One of the cases referred to the Supreme Court for its advice was the constitutionally of the Kerala education bill.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q10. In which of the following categories of cases the Supreme Court of India has the power to decide

1. Reference made by the President on a question of law or fact
2. A case involving interpretation of the constitution
3. A case involving substantial question of law of general importance
4. A case where the constitutionally of any law has been challenged
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
Q11. Which of the following characteristics are essential to federal government ?

1. A supreme and written constitution
2. Separation of powers and the system of checks and balances
3. Distribution of powers between the centre and states
4. Fundamental Rights guaranteed to citizens
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India:

1. There are eighteen High Courts in the Country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High court hold office till the age of 62.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only
Ans: (b) There are 21 High Courts in the country, three having jurisdiction over more than one state. The Judge in the High Court holds office up to 62 years of age.
Q13. The Supreme Court of India issued certain guidelines to put a halt to eve-teasing. In this regard consider the following statements:

1. women cops, in civil uniform, should be deputed at the public places
2. The court also ordered the states and the UTs to form a uniform law
3. The eve-teasing can lead to violation of the fundamental rights.
Which of the following statement given above are correct?
(a) 1and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d) The Supreme Court of India ordered the state governments and the UTs to depute female police officers in plain clothes at the public places to check the incidents of eve-teasing.
Q14. Consider the following statements about the judicial system introduced by the British in India:

1. It judicially unified India.
2. The British established a new system of law through the process of enactment and relevant interpretation of customary laws.
3. In general the British tended to avoid the customary laws of India.
Which of the Statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a) In general the British observed customary la