SECTION-1 CONSTITUTION BASICS

Q1. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the :
(a) Act of 1909
(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935
(d) Act of 1947
Ans: (c)
Q2. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?
(a) British Constitution
(b) US Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (d)
Q3. How does the Constitution of India describe India as?
(a) A federation of States and Union Territories
(b) A Union of States
(c) Bharatvarsh
(d) A federated nation
Ans: (b)
Q4. The system of judicial review originated in
(a) India
(b) Gemany
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A.
Ans: (d)
Q5. Preventive detention means–
(a) detention for interrogation
(b) detention after interrogation
(c) detention without interrogation
(d) detention for cognisable offence.
Ans: (c)
Q6. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) The Resolution of the Indian National Congress
(b) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 INDIAN POLITY & CONSTITUTION
(c) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) The resolutions of the Provincial/State Legislatures of the Dominion of India
Ans: (b)
Q7. From the Constitution of which country the provision of Federation was borrowed while framing the Constitution of India ?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (c)
Q8. Who among the following was not a member of the Consti-tuent Assembly established in July 1946 ?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) K M Munshi
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
Ans: (c)
Q9. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution ?
(a) J. B. Kripalani
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
Q10. India is a republic because—
(a) it is democratic country
(b) It is a parl iamentary democracy
(c) the head of the state is elected for a definite period
(d) All of these
Ans: (c)
Q11. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Sir B.N. Rao
(d) Shri K.M. Munshi
Ans: (c)
Q12. Which of the following countries has introduced “direct democracy”?
(a) Russia
(b) India
(c) France
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (d)
Q13. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian Secularism as ‘Sarva Dharma Samabhav’?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Gaini Zail Singh
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?
(a) U.S.A
(b) U.K.
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Ans: (b)
Q15. The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 26 January, 1949
(c) 26 November, 1949
(d) 31 December, 1949
Ans: (c)
Q16. Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation ?
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Dual judiciary
(c) Three
Lists in the Constitution
(d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q17. The constitution of India describes India as
(a) A Union of States
(b) Quasi-federal
(c) A federation of state and union territories
(d) A Unitary State
Ans: (a)
Q18. Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) M.A. Jinnah
(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Ans: (a)
Q19. The convention that “once a speaker always a speaker” is followed in
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) India
Ans: (a)
Q20. Indian Penal Code came into operation in
(a) 1858
(b) 1860
(c) 1859
(d) 1862
Ans: (d)
Q21. How many Articles are there in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) 395
(b) 396
(c) 398
(d) 399
Ans: (a)
Q22. A federal structure for India was first put forward by the
(a) Act of 1861
(b) Act of 1909
(c) Act of 1919
(d) Act of 1939
Ans: (d)
Q23. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(a) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(b) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(c) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(d) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans: (d)
Q24. The Constitution of India came into force on
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 26 January, 1952
(c) 15 August, 1948
(d) 26 November, 1949
Ans: (a)
Q25. The term ‘Caste’ was derived from
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) German
(d) English
Ans: (a)
Q26. The term “Greater India” denotes
(a) Political unity
(b) Cultural unity
(c) Religious unity
(d) Social unity
Ans: (b)
Q27. The two forms of democracy are
(a) Parliamentary and Presidential
(b) Direct and Indirect
(c) Monarchical and Republican
(d) Parliamentary and King
Ans: (a)
Q28. The Constitution of India contains
(a) 340 Articles
(b) 395 Articles
(c) 400 Articles
(d) 404 Articles
Ans: (b)
Q29. Which was described by Dr.
B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution ?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploit-ation
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion
Ans: (c)
Q30. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from
(a) England
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) France
Ans: (a)
Q31. The Drafting of the Constitution was completed on :
(a) 26th January, 1950
(b) 26th December, 1949
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 30th November, 1949
Ans: (c)
Q32. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (c)
Q33. The method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from
(a) U.S.A.
(b) U.K.
(c) U.S.S.R.
(d) France
Ans: (a)
Q34. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Vallabh Bhai Patel
Ans: (b)
Q35. The Constitution of India describes the country as a
(a) Union of States
(b) Federation
(c) Unitary State
(d) Confederation
Ans: (a)
Q36. The concept of Constitution first originated in
(a) Switzerland
(b) Britain
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Japan
Ans: (b)
Q37. The provisional President of the Constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (a)
Q38. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
Q39. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. B.N. Rau
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (b)
Q40. “Persons may change but rules should not change” is the principle of
(a) Absolute Monarchy
(b) Constitutional Government
(c) Unwritten Constitution
(d) Republic
Ans: (b)
Q41. The Constituent Assembly of India was set up under the
(a) Simon Commission proposals
(b) Cripps proposals
(c) Mountbatten plan
(d) Cabinet Mission plan
Ans: (d)
Q42. The two basic principles of the liberal theory of democracy as emphasised by John Locke, are
(a) Universal Adult Franchise and the Right to Property
(b) Representative Democracy andWorkers’ Rights
(c) Popular Sovereignty and constitutional government
(d) Women suffrage and popular sovereignty
Ans: (a)
Q43. ‘Cabinet system’ and ‘Collective responsibility’ are the contributions of
(a) Ireland
(b) United States
(c) India
(d) Britain
Ans: (d)
Q44. Direct Democracy is a system of Government in which
(a) People choose the Civil Servants
(b) People directly elect their Representatives.
(c) People take part directly in the policy making and administration of the country.
(d) Government officials consult people on various appointments.
Ans: (c)
Q45. In India legal sovereignty is vested with
(a) the President
(b) the Judiciary
(c) the Cabinet
(d) the Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q46. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Dr. Br. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Shri K. M. Munshi
Ans: (b)
Q47. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalchari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (a)
Q48. What is meant when the Constitution declares India a “Secular State” ?
(a) Religious worship is not allowed
(b) Religions are patronised by the State
(c) The state regards religions as a private affairs of the citizen and does not discriminate on this basis
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q49. January 26 selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because
(a) it was considered to be an auspicious day
(b) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942
(c) the Congress had observed it as the Independence Day in 1930
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q50. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages ?
(a) Greater adaptability
(b) Strong State
(c) Greater participation by the people
(d) Lesser Chances of authoritarianism
Ans: (b)
Q51. Which one of the following is not an element of the State ?
(a) Population
(b) Land
(c) Army
(d) Government
Ans: (c)
Q52. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (a)
Q53. The concept of Sovereign Parliament originated in :
(a) England
(b) India
(c) France
(d) Japan
Ans: (a)
Q54. Who is considered the Architect of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B.N. Rao
Ans: (b)
Q55. The concurrent list in the Indian Constitution is adopted from the Constitution of
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Australia
Ans: (d)
Q56. When was the Indian Constitution adopted ?
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 26th January, 1950
(d) 2nd October,1952
Ans: (b)
Q57. The mind and ideals of the framers of Constitution are reflected in the
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution ?
(a) Parliamentary form of Government
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Presidential form of Government
(d) Federal Government
Ans: (c)
Q59. What is the basis of classification of governments as unitary and federal?
(a) Relationship between legislature and executive
(b) Relationship between executive and judiciary
(c) Relationship between the Centre and States
(d) Relationship between the legislature, executive and judicial wings of government
Ans: (c)
Q60. Indian Constitution is :
(a) Federal
(b) Quasi Federal
(c) Unitary
(d) Presidential
Ans: (b)
Q61. Constitution of India came into force in
(a) 1951
(b) 1956
(c) 1950
(d) 1949
Ans: (c)
Q62. The state possesses
(a) only external sovereignty
(b) only internal sovereignty
(c) both internal and external sovereignty
(d) neither external nor internal sovereignty
Ans: (c)
Q63. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on :
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Lord Curzon Commission
(c) Dimitrov Thesis
(d) Lord Clive’s report
Ans: (a)
Q64. Who described the Government of India Act, 1935 as a new charter of bondage ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (c)
Q65. Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) President of India ?
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q66. Which of the following is an essential element of the state?
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Territory
(d) All these
Ans: (d)
Q67. Which is the most important system in Democracy ?
(a) Social
(b) Political
(c) Economic
(d)Governmental
Ans: (b)
Q68. Where do we find the ideals of Indian democracy in the Constitution ?
(a) The Preamble
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part I
Ans: (a)
Q69. The state operates through :
(a) Political Party
(b) Party President
(c) Government
(d) President
Ans: (c)
Q70. When was the first Central Legislative Assembly constituted ?
(a) 1922
(b) 1923
(c) 1921
(d) 1920
Ans: (d)
Q71. The Constitution of India, describes India as :
(a) A Federation
(b) A quasi-federal
(c) Unitary
(d) Union of states
Ans: (d)
Q72. The concept of “Rule of Law” is a special feature of constitutional system of
(a) Britain
(b) U.S.A.
(c) France
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (a)
Q73. The method of amending the Constitution by popular veto is found in
(a) Britain
(b) Switzerland
(c) Russia
(d) India
Ans: (b)
Q74. Which of the following is the inalienable attribute of the parliamentary system of government ?
(a) Flexibility of the Constitution
(b) Fusion of Executive and Legislature
(c) Judicial Supremacy
(d) Parliamentary Sovereignty
Ans: (b)
Q75. Grassroots democracy is related to
(a) Devolution of powers
(b) Decentralisation of powers
(c) Panchayati Raj System
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q76. The phrase “equality before law” used in Article-14 of Indian Constitution has been borrowed from _____
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Greece
Ans: (c)
Q77. Democratic Socialism aims at
(a) bringing about Socialism through peaceful means
(b) bringing about Socialism through violent and peaceful means
(c) bringing about Socialism through violent means
(d) bringing about Socialism through democratic means
Ans: (d)
Q78. Which one of the following judgements stated that ‘Secularism’ and ‘Federalism’ are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(b) S.R. Bommai case
(c) Indira Sawhney case
(d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (b)
Q79. Universal adult franchise shows that India is a country which is
(a) Secular
(b) Socialist
(c) Democratic
(d) Sovereign
Ans: (c)
Q80. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution ?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Alladi Krishnaswamy
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Gopalachari Ayyangar
Ans: (c)
Q81. Autocracy means ______
(a) Rule by few
(b) Rule by King
(c) Absolute rule by one
(d) Rule by the representatives of the People
Ans: (c)
Q82. Constitutional Monarchy means :
(a) The Kinmg writes the constitution
(b) The King interprets the constitution
(c) The King exercises power granted by constitution
(d) The King is elected by the the people
Ans: (c)
Q83. What is popular sovereignty?
(a) Sovereignty of peoples representative
(b) Sovereignty of the legal head
(c) Sovereignty of the head of state
(d) Sovereignty of the people
Ans: (d)
Q84. The idea of parliamentary form of government is adapted from
(a) US
(b) UK
(c) Ireland
(d) USSR
Ans: (b)
Q85. Who among the following proposed the suggestion for a Constituent Assembly first in 1935?
(a) Nehru
(b) Gandhi
(c) J.P. Narayan
(d) M. N. Roy
Ans: (d)
Q86. Name of the country from which the constitutional features of procedures for amendment was borrowed by India.
(a) Britain
(b) America
(c) South Africa
(d) Germany
Ans: (c)
Q87. From which of the following country Indian Constitution borrowed the feature ‘The written Constitution’ ?
(a) USSR
(b) UK
(c) U.S.
(d) Japan
Ans: (c)
Q88. In which of the following Acts the territorial division of governance in India was done ?
(a) Government of India Act, 1858
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Government of India Act, 1861
Ans: (a)
Q89. By which of the following Act the system of Dyarchy was introduced at the centre?
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) 1947
Ans: (c)
Q90. Who was the first Chairman of Indian Constitution’s Drafting Committee?
(a) B L Mitter
(b) Madhav Rao
(c) Dr B R Ambedkar
(d) T T Krishnamachari
Ans: (c)
Q91. In which year the constituent assembly of India started functioning?
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1948
Ans: (b)
Q92. The Constitution __________.
(a) is silent on the President’s re-election to the office.
(b) allows re-election of a person to the President’s post
(c) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms.
(d) has been amended to allow a person only one term as President.
Ans: (b)
Q93. Which of the following Act introduced separate electorates (communal representation) for Muslims?
(a) 1892 Act
(b) Act of 1909
(c) Reforms of 1919
(d) Government of India Act of 1935
Ans: (b)
Q94. Which type of democracy do we follow in India?
(a) Direct
(b) Presidential
(c) Representative
(d) Dictatorship
Ans: (c)
Q95. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India was
(a) K. M. Munshi
(b) D. P. Khaitan
(c) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(d) T. T. Krishnamachar
Ans: (c)
Q96. Indian Constitution came into force on
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1948
(d) 6th November, 1948
Ans: (b)
Q97. The Constitution of India was framed by:
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Constituent Assembly
(c) President
(d) Working Committee
Ans: (b)

SECTION–2 ARTICLE 12-51

Q1. Which among the following writs comes into the category of public litigation petition before High Court or Supreme Court ?
(a) a challenge to elections of the office-bearers of a political party
(b) against political interference
(c) against the decision of Lower Court
(d) against a general topic
Ans: (d)
Q2. India is considered as a ‘Republic’ mainly because :
(a) the head of the State is elected.
(b) it gained independence on 15th August 1947
(c) it has its own written constitution
(d) it is having a Parlia-mentary form of Government.
Ans: (a)
Q3. What was the exact constitutional position of the Indian Republic when the Constitution was brought into force with effect from 26th January, 1950?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto
Ans: (c)
Q5. Separation of the judiciary from the executive has been provided in one of the following parts of the Indian Constitution :
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Seventh Schedule
Ans: (c)
Q6. Which of the following categories of citizens of the prescribed age may be registered as a voter?
(a) Bankrupt
(b) Convicted for certain crimes or corruption
(c) Non-resident citizens
(d) Mentally unsound
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which of these is NOT included as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Right to Freedom of Speech
(b) Right to Equality before the Law
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to equal wages for equal work
Ans: (d)
Q8. Bills of which of the following categories can be initiated only in Lok Sabha ?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Private Members Bill
(c) Money Bill
(d) Constitution Amend-ment Bill
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which of the following can a court issue for enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
(a) A decree
(b) An Ordinance
(c) A writ
(d) A notification
Ans: (c)
Q10. Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, up to what age of the children, they are expected to be provided free and compulsory education?
(a) 14 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (a)
Q11. The term ‘secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution by
(a) 41st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 43rd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q12. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Liberty
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Property
Ans: (d)
Q13. Which of the following writs/ orders of the High Court/ Supreme Court is sought to get an order of an authority quashed ?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans: (b)
Q14. Civil equality implies
(a) equality before law
(b) equality of opportunity
(c) equal distribution of wealth
(d) equal right to participate in the affairs of the state
Ans: (b)
Q15. Of the following words in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, which was not inserted through the Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976?
(a) Socialist
(b) Secular
(c) Dignity
(d) Integrity
Ans: (c)
Q16. Indian Parliament can rename or redefine the boundary of a State by
(a) a simple majority
(b) absolute majority
(c) 2/3rd majority of the members voting
(d) 2/3rd majority of the members voting and an absolute majority of its total membership
Ans: (a)
Q17. Which is the source of political power in India ?
(a) The Constitution
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Parliament and the State Legislatives
(d) We, the People
Ans: (d)
Q18. Which one of the following is a political right ?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to contest elections
(c) Right to equality before law
(d) Right to life
Ans: (b)
Q19. Fundamental Rights in India are guaranteed by it through
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) Right Against Exploitation
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Educational and Cultural Rights
Ans: (c)
Q20. Which of the following “writs” of the High Court or the Supreme Court is sought to produce in the court a person, suspected to be missing/in custody ?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (c)
Q21. To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration ?
(a) Ordinary Bills
(b) Money Bills
(c) Bills passed by both Houses of the Parliament
(d) Bill seeking amendment to the Constitution
Ans: (b)
Q22. Where in the Indian Constitution has “economic justice” been provided as one of the objectives?
(a) mental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles
Ans: (b)
Q23. Which one of the following is not enumerated as a right in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Political and social right
(b) Educational right
(c) Economic right
(d) Right to religion
Ans: (c)
Q24. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?
(a) Justice
(b) Fraternity
(c) Adult franchise
(d) Equality of position
Ans: (c)
Q25. The Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of
(a) Religion
(b) Caste
(c) Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population
(d) Colour
Ans: (c)
Q26. A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to
(a) an official to perform public duty
(b) the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet
(c) the company to raise wages
(d) the Government to pay the salaries to employees
Ans: (a)
Q27. How many Fundamental Duties are included in Indian Constitution ?
(a) Nine
(b) Ten
(c) Eleven
(d) Twelve
Ans: (c)
Q28. The right to vote in elections to a Parliament is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Constitutional Right
(c) Legal Right
(d) Natural Right
Ans: (b)
Q29. Which of the following is not a ‘Fundamental Right’ ?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (b)
Q30. The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of
(a) United States of America
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Switzerland
(d) Canada
Ans: (a)
Q31. Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in
(a) High Courts alone
(b) Supreme Court alone
(c) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(d) All Courts down to the District Courts
Ans: (c)
Q32. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom ?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas corpus
(c) Quo-Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b)
Q33. The writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights are issued by
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Election Commi-ssion
Ans: (c)
Q34. Evaluate the following statements :
(I) The legal interpretation of equality is chiefly influenced by equality before law and equal protection of law
(II) Equality before law means rule of law
(a) I is correct but II is incorrect
(b) II is correct but I is incorrect
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Ans: (c)
Q35. A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasijudicial/ public authority to perform its mandatory duty is
(a) Quo warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (b)
Q36. By which of the following modes can citizenship be acquired ?
i. By Birth
ii. Hereditary
iii. By Registration
iv. By Request
(a) i and ii
(b) i, ii and iii
(c) ii and iii
(d) iv, ii and iii
Ans: (b)
Q37. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights are unamendable ?
(a) A. K. Gopalan’s case
(b) Keshvananda Bharti’s case
(c) M. C. Mehta’s case
(d) Golak Nath’s case
Ans: (b)
Q38. ‘Directive Principles’ in our Constitution are
(a) enforceable in the courts of law
(b) quasi-enforceable
(c) partly non-enforceable
(d) non-enforceable in the courts of law
Ans: (d)
Q39. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(b) Socialist
(c) Secular
(d) Federal
Ans: (d)
Q40. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of
(a) Indira Gandhi Government
(b) Morarji Desai Government
(c) Narasimha Rao Government
(d) Vajpayee Government
Ans: (b)
Q41. The chapter on Fundamental Duties includes
(a) Duty to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired out freedom movement.
(b) Duty to vote in General Election
(c) Duty to promote the sense of fraternity among the people
(d) Duty to stick to the political party on whose ticket one contested election.
Ans: (a)
Q42. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Part I
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part V
Ans: (c)
Q43. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans: (c)
Q44. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as
(a) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(b) Socialist, Democratic, Secular Republic
(c) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
(d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
Ans: (d)
Q45. Who is the guardian of Fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution ?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Constitution
(d) President
Ans: (a)
Q46. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’ ?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Ans: (c)
Q47. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Eleven
(b) Nine
(c) Twenty
(d) Twelve
Ans: (a)
Q48. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(a) Bankrupt persons
(b) Aliens
(c) Persons suffering from incurable diseases
(d) Political sufferers
Ans: (b)
Q49. ‘Consent of the people’ means consent of
(a) A few people
(b) All people
(c) Majority of the people
(d) Leader of the people
Ans: (c)
Q50. The Directive Principles of State Policy was adopted from the
(a) British Constitution
(b) Swiss Constitution
(c) U.S. Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Ans: (d)
Q51. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Political parties
(d) Judiciary
Ans: (d)
Q52. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ was borrowed by the framers of the Indian Constitution from the Constitution of
(a) South Africa
(b) the Republic of Germany
(c) the Republic of Ireland
(d) Canada
Ans: (c)
Q53. Which one of the following fundamental rights is available to Indian citizens only ?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without authority of law
(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(d) Freedom of religion
Ans: (c)
Q54. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties ?
(a) Article 39 C
(b) Article 51 A
(c) Article 29 B
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q55. The Preamble to our Constitution makes no mention of
(a) Justice
(b) Fraternity
(c) Equality of status
(d) Adult franchise
Ans: (d)
Q56. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Part-III
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-I
(d) Part-II
Ans: (b)
Q57. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Ans: (c)
Q58. A Secular State is one which :
(a) has no religion of its own
(b) is irreligious
(c) is anti-religion
(d) takes into consideration the religious sentiments of the people
Ans: (a)
Q59. Freedom of the press is implied in the right to
(a) equal protection of the laws
(b) freedom of speech
(c) freedom of association
(d) work and material security
Ans: (b)
Q60. Fundamental Rights granted to the Indian citizens
(a) cannot be suspended
(b) can be suspended
(c) can never be suspended under any circumstance
(d) None of the above is correct
Ans: (b)
Q61. A writ issued by the High Court or the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens is known as
(a) Mandamus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans: (d)
Q62. The main purpose of including the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to
(a) establish a welfare State
(b) establish a secular State
(c) check the arbitrary action of the Government
(d) provide best opportunities of development by the Government
Ans: (a)
Q63. Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to religion
(b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to education
Ans: (b)
Q64. No person shall be a citizen of India if he has
(a) lived in a foreign country for more than five years
(b) been convicted by a foreign court of law
(c) voluntarily acquired citizen ship of another country
(d) accepted employment in another country
Ans: (c)
Q65. Which one of the following is a Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to govern
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to information
(d) Right to equality
Ans: (d)
Q66. Right to free education within certain limits is
(a) guaranteed as a Fundamental Right
(b) enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
(d) ignored by the Constitution
Ans: (a)
Q67. No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
Ans: (b)
Q68. The writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is issued in the event of
(a) Los of property
(b) Refund of excess taxes
(c) Wrongful police detention
(d) Violation of the freedom of speech
Ans: (c)
Q69. Political equality is found in
(a) the absence of privileges
(b) universal adult suffrage
(c) equal distribution of wealth
(d) the rationality of the individual
Ans: (b)
Q70.
List of Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution as Part
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Two
(d) Three
Ans: (a)
Q71. Under which one of the following writs an official can be prevented from taking an action which he is officially not entitled?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
Ans: (a)
Q72. In the Constitution of India, the Fundamental Rights
(a) formed a part of the original Constitution
(b) were added by the Fourth Amendment
(c) were added by the Parliament in 152
(d) were added under the Fortysecond Amendment
Ans: (a)
Q73. Which one of the following Writs is issued to courts, corporations, government servants or persons directing them to perform their public duty?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Mandamus
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (c)
Q74. In India, the right to property is now recognised as
(a) a fundamental right
(b) a legal right
(c) a natural right
(d) a political right
Ans: (b)
Q75. Right to vote is a
(a) Political right
(b) Civil right
(c) Economic right
(d) Legal right
Ans: (a)
Q76. Which Fundamental Right accoording to Dr. Ambedkar is like the heart of the Constitution?
(a) Right of Constitutional remedies
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to freedom
Ans: (a)
Q77. What is the status of the Right to Property now ?
(a) Legal Right
(b) Human Right
(c) Fundamental Right
(d) Natural Right
Ans: (a)
Q78. Which one of the following writs literally means ‘what is your authority’ ?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Prohibition
Ans: (c)
Q79. What is the chief source of political power in India ?
(a) The people
(b) The Constitution
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Parliament and the State Legislatures
Ans: (a)
Q80. A court enforces enjoyment of a Fundamental Right by issuing
(a) a decree
(b) an ordinance
(c) a writ
(d) a notification
Ans: (c)
Q81. Political right does not include which of the following ?
(a) Right to vote
(b) Right to life
(c) Right to contest in election
(d) Right to lodge complaint with executive bodies of the Government
Ans: (b)
Q82. What is the minimum age prescribed in India for its citizens to cast their vote ?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 20 years
Ans: (a)
Q83. Which of the following rights is not granted by the Constitution of India at present as a fundamental right ?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to property
(d) Right against exploitation
Ans: (c)
Q84. When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens incorporated in the constitution?
(a) 1952
(b) 1976
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Ans: (b)
Q85- Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Parliament & Assemblies
Ans: (c)
Q86. The Constitution of India assures economic justice to citizens through
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental duties
(c) Preamble
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Ans: (c)
Q87. ‘The Right to Public Office’ is a
(a) Civil right
(b) Economic right
(c) Moral right
(d) Political right
Ans: (a)
Q88. “Not to destroy the Government property” is a
(a) Positive duty
(b) Legal duty
(c) Civil duty
(d) Negative duty
Ans: (c)
Q89. Who proposed the Preamble before the drafting committee of the Constitution ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (a)
Q90. ‘Dual citizenship’ is a feature of
(a) Unitary government
(b) Federal government
(c) Parliamentary government
(d) Presidential government
Ans: (b)
Q91. The essential feature of democracy is giving prominence to the
(a) Executive
(b) Judiciary
(c) Citizen
(d)Civil Society
Ans: (c)
Q92. Which of the following writs can lie only against a person holding a public office ?
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Certiorari
Ans: (b)
Q93. India is a secular state because in our country :
(a) state has no religion
(b) religion has been abolished
(c) state patronises a particular religion
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q94. Which case is related to Fundamental Rights?
(a) Golakhnath vs. State of Punjab (1967)
(b) West Bengal vs. Union of India (1963)
(c) Sharma vs. Krishna (1959)
(d) State of Bombay vs. Balsara
Ans: (a)
Q95. Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were taken from the Constitution of
(a) Britain
(b) Ireland
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Ans: (b)
Q96. As per Indian Constitution, the Right to Property is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Legal Right
(d) Moral Right
Ans: (c)
Q97. The success of democracy depends upon the
(a) Right to criticise
(b) Right to association
(c) Right to personal liberty
(d) Right to property
Ans: (c)
Q98. Which one of the following ceased to be a fundamental right under the Constitution?
(a) Right to Education
(b) Right to work
(c) Right to property
(d) Right to Equality before Law
Ans: (c)
Q99. Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were taken from the Constitution of
(a) Britain
(b) Ireland
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Ans: (b)
Q100. As per Indian Constitution, the Right to property is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Legal Right
(d) Moral Right
Ans: (c)
Q101. The success of democracy depends upon the
(a) Right to criticise
(b) Right to association
(c) Right to personal liberty
(d) Right to property
Ans: (c)
Q102. Citizens of India can vote at the age of
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 22 years
(d) 25 years
Ans: (a)
Q103. According to Preamble, the ultimate power lies in the hands of :
(a) Parliament
(b) Constitution
(c) President
(d) People
Ans: (d)
Q104. Dual citizenship is an important feature in which form of government ?
(a) Parliamentary
(b) Federal
(c) Unitary
(d) Authoritarian
Ans: (b)
Q105. Writs are issued by
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Courts
(c) The President
(d) Supreme Court and High Courts
Ans: (d)
Q106. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Swaran Singh Committee
(c) Shah Commission
(d) Administrative Reforms Commission
Ans: (b)
Q107. In Indian Constitution, fundamental rights were taken from the Constitution of
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q108. Which of the following is a political right ?
(a) Right to Work
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Freedom of Expression
(d) Right to Vote
Ans: (d)
Q109. Who can impose reasonable restrictions over fundamental rights ?
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Parliament
(c) People
(d) Cabinet
Ans: (b)
Q110. Provisions of citizenship in Indian Constitution, became applicable in
(a) 1950
(b) 1949
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
Ans: (a)
Q111. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the fundamental duties are enshrined ?
(a) IV A
(b) IV B
(c) V
(d) IV
Ans: (a)
Q112. Which of the following is not a fundamental right as per the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Right to Education
(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to Speech
(d) Right to Life
Ans: (*)
Q113. What is meant by social justice?
(a) All should have same economic rights.
(b) All should have same political rights.
(c) All kinds of discrimination based on caste, creed, colour and sex should be eliminated.
(d) All should be granted right to freedom of religion.
Ans: (c)
Q114. _____ are essential for liberty.
(a) Restrictions
(b) Rights
(c) Privileges
(d) Laws
Ans: (b)
Q115.Which one of the following is issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a person?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (a)
Q116. To which category right to vote belongs ?
(a) Human Rights
(b) Civil Rights
(c) Natural Rights
(d) Political Rights
Ans: (d)
Q117. Which of the following would be called a “Secular” state?
(a) The state which follows a particular religion
(b) The state which is anti-religion
(c) The state which does not discriminate between religions
(d) The state which accepts all religions as religions of state
Ans: (c)
Q118. Fill up : ‘Right _______ duties.’
(a) obstructs
(b) instructs
(c) implies
(d) opposes
Ans: (c)
Q119. How many Fundamental Rights were granted initially?
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans: (b)
Q120. How liberty can be limited ?
(a) By Rule
(b) By Law
(c) By Authority
(d) By Equality
Ans: (b)
Q121. Most important safeguard of liberty is
(a) bold and impartial judiciary
(b) well-knit party system
(c) decentralisation of power
(d) declaration of rights
Ans: (a)
Q122. Which one of the following kinds of equality is not compatible with the liberal notion of equality ?
(a) Legal Equality
(b) Political Equality
(c) Social Equality
(d) Economic Equality
Ans: (d)
Q123. Political liberty implies
(a) people’s control over the government
(b) free political activities of the people
(c) co-operation between politics and democracy
(d) voters can make and unmake their government
Ans: (b)
Q124. Which one of the following is an item included in the list of Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen in the Constitution ?
(a) To practice secularism.
(b) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform.
(c) To pay all taxes to government regularly and correctly.
(d) Not to assault any public servant in the
Ans: (b)
Q125. When were the Fundamental Duties incorporated in the Constitution ?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(d) 1979
Ans: (b)
Q126. How many fundamental duties are there in our Indian Constitution ?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 8
Ans: (a)
Q127. The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy in Indian Constitution is adopted from that of
(a) Ireland and Spain
(b) US and UK
(c) USSR and China
(d) Japan and Korea
Ans: (b)
Q128. Which one of the following chapters in the Indian Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights to the people?
(a) Part II
(b) Part I
(c) Part IV
(d) Part III
Ans: (d)
Q129. The directive principles incorporated in the Indian Constitution have been inspired by the constitution of
(a) Australia
(b) Ireland
(c) USA
(d) Canada
Ans: (b)
Q130. In which of the following Articles, citizenship rights of people who migreated from Pakistan to India is mentioned ?
(a) Article-4
(b) Article-8
(c) Article-6
(d) Article-10
Ans: (c)
Q131. The Directive Principles of State Policy has been adopted from which Constitution?
(a) U.S. Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) French Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q132. The source of authority of the Indian Constitution is:
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Government
(c) The People of India
(d) The President
Ans: (c)
Q133. Which of the following attribute in the Preamble states that ‘No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior’?
(a) Justice
(b) Liberty
(c) Equality
(d) Fraternity
Ans: (d)
Q134. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under ______
(a) Legal rights
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Human rights
(d) Natural rights
Ans: (b)
Q135. Which of the following is not guaranteed by Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right of religious freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to free education for all
Ans: (d)
Q136. The Preventive Detention Act curtailed
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Property
(d) Education Right
Ans: (a)
Q137. Ideas of welfare state are contained in
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Part VII
Ans: (b)
Q138. Indian Citizenship is granted by
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) The Ministry of External Affairs
Ans: (c)
Q139. The term ‘Fraternity’ in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution means a sense of
(a) friendliness
(b) statehood
(c) love and affection
(d) brotherhood
Ans: (d)
Q140. Which of the following authorities is/are competent to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Supreme Court and High Courts
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)

SECTION–10 MISC

Q1. Governance through trade union organisations is known as :
(a) Guild Socialism
(b) Fabian Socialism
(c) Syndicalism
(d) Liberalism
Ans: (c)
Q2. In the 13th Lok Sabha elections in which of the following states did the ruling alliance winn all the seats?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Orissa
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)
Q3. Fabianism is closely related to:
(a) Fascism
(b) Scientific socialism
(c) Democratic socialism
(d) Liberalism
Ans: (c)
Q4. The minimum number of workers who can form a Trade Union and get it registered under Trade Union Act ?
(a) 7
(b) 25
(c) 100
(d) 50
Ans: (a)
Q5. The concept of political sovereignty was advocated by
(a) Plato
(b) John Locke
(c) Rousseau
(d) Austin
Ans: (c)
Q6. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was
(a) Nargis Dutt
(b) Shabana Azmi
(c) Madhubala
(d) Meena Kumari
Ans: (a)
Q7. Plural Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of
(a) State
(b) Religion
(c) Individuals
(d) Associations
Ans: (d)
Q8. From which historical work were the words “Satyameva Jayate” appearing under the national emblem taken ?
(a) Bhagawad Gita
(b) Rig Veda
(c) Ramayana
(d) Mundaka Upanishad
Ans: (d)
Q9. Which of the following is the biggest head of non-plan expenditure of Government of India ?
(a) Interest payments
(b) Subsidies
(c) Defence
(d) Salaries and Wages
Ans: (a)
Q10. Resources transferred from the Government of India to States are termed ‘statutory’ if they are made
(a) in the form of loans
(b) on the recommend-ations of the Planning Commission
(c) on the recommend-ations of the Finance Commission
(d) in the form of grants
Ans: (c)
Q11. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem ?
(a) 47 seconds
(b) 50 seconds
(c) 52 seconds
(d) 60 seconds
Ans: (c)
Q12. What is the motto inscribed under our national emblem ?
(a) Satyam, Shivam
(b) Satyam, Sarvatra, Sundaram
(c) Satyameva Jayate
(d) Jai Hind
Ans: (c)
Q13. How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India ?
(a) 16
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 32
Ans: (c)
Q14. What is the colour of the “Dharma Chakra” in the middle of our national flag ?
(a) Sea blue
(b) Black
(c) Navy blue
(d) Green
Ans: (c)
Q15. Which one of the following is described as the Fourth Estate?
(a) Judiciary
(b) Media
(c) Legislature
(d) Executive
Ans: (b)
Q16. Which Government agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Geological Survey of India
(c) Minerals Development Corporation
(d) School of Mines
Ans: (b)
Q17. Who was the First Speaker of Independent India’s Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukam Singh
(b) Bali Ram Bhagat
(c) Rabi Ray
(d) G.V. Mavalankar
Ans: (d)
Q18. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India ?
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) G. B. Pant
(d) Devi Lal
Ans: (b)
Q19. In the 13th Lok Sabha elections in which of the following states did the ruling alliance winn all the seats?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Orissa
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)
Q20. The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is
(a) the 12th Lok Sabha
(b) the 13th Lok Sabha
(c) the 14th Lok Sabha
(d) the 11th Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q21. Name the President of India who was elected unopposed
(a) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(b) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(d) Dr. Zakir Husain
Ans: (b)
Q22. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Zakir Hussain
(d) V.V. Giri
Ans: (b)
Q23. The Prime Minister who was voted out of power by the Parliament was
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) V.P. Singh
(d) Chandrashekhar
Ans: (c)
Q24. A national political party is one which received 4% of the total votes polled in
(a) Two or more States
(b) The capital city
(c) Four or more States
(d) In all the States
Ans: (c)
Q25. Which is the national flower of India?
(a) Rose
(b) Lotus
(c) Lily
(d) Sunflower
Ans: (b)
Q26. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem ?
(a) Satyam Shivam
(b) Satyam Shivam Sundaram
(c) Satyameva Jayate
(d) Jai Hind
Ans: (c)
Q27. Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years time ?
(a) B.J.P.
(b) Janata Party
(c) Janata Dal
(d) Samajwadi Janata Party
Ans: (b)
Q28. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in
(a) 1962
(b) 1971
(c) 1977
(d) 1980
Ans: (b)
Q29. The English Crown is an example of
(a) Real executive
(b) Quasi-real executive
(c) Nominal executive
(d) Nominated executive
Ans: (c)
Q30. To be a regional party the minimum percentage of votes, that a party needs to secure in any election is
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 5%
Ans: (b)
Q31. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government ?
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) Cuba
(d) Belgium
Ans: (b)
Q32. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by
(a) Edward Stone
(b) Le Corbusier
(c) Edwin Lutyens
(d) Tarun Dutt
Ans: (c)
Q33. Despotism is possible in a
(a) One party state
(b) Two party state
(c) Multi Party state
(d) Two and multi party state
Ans: (a)
Q34. In which State of India, was a non-Congress government formed for the the first time ?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Pondicherry
(d)Kerala
Ans: (d)
Q35. Who had proposed partyless democracy in India ?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) S.A. Dange
Ans: (a)
Q36. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good State and a bad citizen makes a bad State” ?
(a) Plato
(b) Rousseau
(c) Aristotle
(d) Laski
Ans: (c)
Q37. Who said that “Oh! Disrespectable democracy ! I love you!” ?
(a) G.B. Shaw
(b) Carpenter
(c) Lord Bryce
(d) Appa Dorai
Ans: (a)
Q38. Compared with Society, the scope of State activity is
(a) Wider
(b) Narrow
(c) Just equal
(d) No comparison between the two
Ans: (a)
Q39. What is the colour of the “Dharma Chakra” in the middle of our national flag?
(a) Sea blue
(b) Black
(c) Navy blue
(d) Green
Ans: (c)
Q40. Which of the following symbols is a symbol reserved by the Election Commission for more than one political party in the election to the Loks Sabha/ Vidhan Sabha?
(a) Hand
(b) Louts
(c) Wheel
(d) Elephant
Ans: (d)
Q41. Fourth Estate is referred to
(a) Public Opinion
(b) Chamber of Commerce
(c) The Newspaper
(d) Political Parties
Ans: (c)
Q42. In which State does the Governor nominate women to the Assembly ?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Sikkim
(c) Manipur
(d) Nagaland
Ans: (a)
Q43. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha was
(a) Rabi Ray
(b) M. Ananthasayanam Ayangar
(c) Hukam Singh
(d) G.V. Mavalankar
Ans: (a)
Q44. When was RTI Act enacted in India ?
(a) 15th June, 2005
(b) 15th August, 2005
(c) 15th March, 2005
(d) 15th July, 2005
Ans: (d)
Q45. The term “Fourth Estate” is used for
(a) The Press and Newspaper
(b) Parliament
(c) Judiciary
(d) The Executive
Ans: (a)
Q46. This political party was first derecognized and later on again recognized as a National Party by the Election Commssion of India
(a) Communist Party of India
(b) Communist Party of India — Marxist
(c) Samajwadi Party
(d) Republican Party of India
Ans: (b)
Q47. Communism has given importance to
(a) Political equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Social equality
(d) Natural equality
Ans: (b)
Q48. Who was the first woman Ambassador from India ?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Aruna Asaf Ali
(c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) C.B. Muthamma
Ans: (c)
Q49. “From each according to his capacity, to each according to his needs” is the principle of
(a) Democracy
(b) Fascism
(c) Communism
(d) Dictatorship
Ans: (c)
Q50. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of a State?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(c) Sucheta Kripalani
(d) Jayalalithaa
Ans: (c)
Q51. Socialist thinkers advocate the extension of the right to equality in
(a) Political sphere
(b) Economic sphere
(c) Social sphere
(d) Legal sphere
Ans: (b)
Q52. Popular sovereignty was advocated by
(a) Rousseau
(b) John Locke
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) T.H. Green
Ans: (c)
Q53. The Creamy Layer, concept refers to
(a) the grouping based on social status
(b) the grouping based on castes
(c) the grouping based on economic status
(d) the grouping based on milk consumption
Ans: (c)
Q54. Who was the President of India during Janata Party regime?
(a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(b) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) Giani Zail Singh
(d) R. Venkataraman
Ans: (b)
Q55. Which Lok Sabha constituency had the highest number of voters during the 13th Lok Sabha Elections?
(a) Uttarahalli
(b) Outer Delhi
(c) North Bombay
(d) Amethi
Ans: (b)
Q56. Who from the following was a member of the Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister ?
(a) Choudhary Charan Singh
(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Ans: (b)
Q57. Out of the following, which political party has not been recognised as a National Political Party?
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Bharatiya Janata Party
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party
(d) Trinamul Congress
Ans: (d)
Q58. “The Federal System with Strong Centre” has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from
(a) United States of America
(b) Canada
(c) United Kingdom
(d) France
Ans: (b)
Q59. English is the official language of which one of the following Indian States ?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Tripura
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
Ans: (a)
Q60. What is the minimum percentage of votes a political party must get to acquire the status of a registered party?
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
Ans: (*)
Q61. The National Integration Council
(NIC) is chaired by the :
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Home Minister
(d) President of India
Ans: (a)
Q62. Which is a Permanent Institution?
(a) Family
(b) Political Party
(c) Red Cross
(d)UNO
Ans: (a)
Q63. Which one of the following is a hindrance to liberty and independence?
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Privatisation
(d) Nationalisation
Ans: (a)
Q64. Which of the following is not correct ?
(a) A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must have completed the age of 30 years
(b) A person seeking election to the Lok Sabha must have completed the age of 25 years
(c) A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years
(d) A person eligible to vote for election to a village panchayat must have completed the age of 18 years
Ans: (c)
Q65. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the Prime Ministers in India ?
I. Indira Gandhi
II. Jawahar Lal Nehru
III. Morarji Desai
IV. Charan Singh
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, I, IV
(c) II, I, III, IV
(d) III, II, IV, I
Ans: (c)
Q66. The first lady of the Indian screen to have been nominated to the Rajya Sabha is
(a) Nargis
(b) Madhubala
(c) Hema Malini
(d) Shobhana Bhartia
Ans: (a)
Q67. Right to Education became a fundamental right on
(a) March 15, 2010
(b) April 1, 2010
(c) July 17, 2010
(d) October 10, 2010
Ans: (b)
Q68. Right to Education became a fundamental right on
(a) March 15, 2010
(b) April 1, 2010
(c) July 17, 2010
(d) October 10, 2010
Ans: (b)
Q69. The idea of Lokpal is taken from
(a) Britain
(b) America
(c) Scandinavian Countries
(d) France
Ans: (c)
Q70. Which country is following One Party System?
(a) Mongolia
(b) Spain
(c) Chile
(d) China
Ans: (d)
Q71. The Anti-Defection Law was passed by the Indian Parliament in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1988
(c) 1984
(d) 1985
Ans: (d)
Q72. Who amongst the following has become the Chief Minister of a State in India third time consecutively ?
(a) Tarun Gogoi
(b) Nitish Kumar
(c) J. Jayalalithaa
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q73. Who founded the Republican Party of India ?
(a) Namboo Dripad
(b) Mulji Vaishya
(c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
(d) Sripad Dange
Ans: (c)
Q74. One of the following is the smallest
(area-wise) Lok Sahha constituency in India :
(a) Chandni Chowk
(b) Delhi Sadar
(c) Kolkata North-West
(d) Mumbai South
Ans: (a)
Q75. Which of the following is protected under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
(a) Porcupine
(b)Gerbil
(c) Bandicoot rat
(d) Squirrel
Ans: (a)
Q76. Which among the following is not true about Pressure Groups?
(a) Pressure Groups aim at capturing government.
(b) Pressure Groups aim at influencing the policies of the government.
(c) Pressure Groups articulates the interest of its group
(d) Pressure Group is characterised by homogeneity of interests.
Ans: (a)
Q77. Who was the first to use the term ‘State’?
(a) Hobbes
(b) Plato
(c) Aristotle
(d) Machiavelli
Ans: (d)
Q78. Which one of the following is opposite to democratic state ?
(a) Despotism
(b) Republic
(c) Socialism
(d) Monarchy
Ans: (a)
Q79. Which presently serving State Chief Minister has been in office continuously for the longest period ?
(a) Sheila Dikshit
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
(d) Manik Sarkar
Ans: (d)
Q80. Name the Prime Minister who brought about a thaw in India- China relations by signing the “Line of Actual Control”.
(a) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(b) P.V. Narashima Rao
(c) Chandrasekhar
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans: (b)
Q81. Who had played key role in the formation of Lokpal bill in India ?
(a) Vipin Hazarika
(b) Anna Hajare
(c) Baba Amte
(d) Medha Patekar
Ans: (b)
Q82. Which of th following States has recorded rudest Voting percent in Vidhan Sab& Election 2013 ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Chattisgarh
Ans: (c)
Q83. Which of the following High Courts had legalized gay sex in India during 2009?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Goa
(c) Delhi
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: (c)
Q84. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha had passed the Lokpal Bill with more strong amendments in
(a) 2012
(b) 2013
(c) 2009
(d) 2011
Ans: (b)
Q85. How many assembly segments are there as per Vidhan Sabha Elections 2013 in Delhi ?
(a) 70
(b) 72
(c) 66 (b) 68 (SSC Multi-Tasking (Non-Tech.) Staff Exam. 23.02.2014, IInd Sitting)
Ans: (a)
Q86. The Mandal Commission Report refers to
(a) the Other Backward Classes
(b) the Scheduled Tribes
(c) the Minorities
(d) the Scheduled Castes
Ans: (a)
Q87. ‘Democratic Centralism’ is an important feature of a :
(a) Communist state
(b) Democratic state
(c) Totalitarian state
(d) Socialist state
Ans: (a)
Q88. ‘Shadow Cabinet’ is the feature of Administrative system of :
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Japan
Ans: (a)
Q89. Consumer Protection Act 1986, was amended in :
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1991
Ans: (*)
Q90. Section of IPC, which deals with LGBT (Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual and Transgender) community is :
(a) 377
(b) 376
(c) 370
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q91. Usually a big difference is seen in theory and practice in
(a) Presidential form of Government
(b) Fascist type of Government
(c) Parliamentary form of Government
(d) Socialist type of Governmentc
Ans: (d)
Q92. What is the ancient school of law ?
(a) The Philosophical school
(b) The Historical School
(c) The Analytical School
(d) The Sociological School
Ans: (a)
Q93. Which among the following is not a preventive detention act?
(a) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act (TADA)
(b) Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA)
(c) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act (COFEPOSA)
(d) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
Ans: (d)
Q94. Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in
(a) 1972
(b) 1986
(c) 1964
(d) 1956
Ans: (a)
Q95. Which of the following is not dealt under Section 3(c) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
(a) The Biodiversity Authority
(b) The Coastal Zone Management Authority
(c) Authority set-up to monitor the State of Notified Ecologically Sensitive Areas
(d) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers Right Authority
Ans: (d)
Q96. The playing time (in seconds) of the full version of Indian National Anthem is
(a) 60
(b) 52
(c) 55
(d) 57
Ans: (b)
Q97. In India, woman had never been a Chief Minister in the State of
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (d)
Q98. Public opinion is
(a) The opinion of the majority
(b) The opinion of the people on political matters
(c) Opinion of the citizens of the country
(d) The opinion based on reasoning which is for the welfare of the whole society
Ans: (a)
Q99. On which data did the Rajya Sabha pass “ The Marriage Laws” (Amendment) Bill 2012 ?
(a) 18th August, 2013
(b) 5th August, 2013
(c) 26th August, 2013
(d) 23rd August, 2013
Ans: (c)
Q100. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem ?
(a) 25th January 1950
(b) 26th January 1950
(c) 24th January 1950
(d) 29th January 1950
Ans: (c)
Q101. Which committee was established on Criminal – Politician and Bureaucratic nexus ?
(a) Vohra Committee
(b) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(c) Tarkunde Committee
(d) Santhanam Committee
Ans: (a)
Q102. In which year was the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) enacted ?
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2003
Ans: (c)
Q103. Which one of the following Committes Report recommended the establishment of the Institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta ?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Committee
(b) Gorwala Report
(c) Ashok Mehta Commitee
(d) The Appleby Reports
Ans: (a)
Q104. The Women’s Reservation Bill seeks how much reservation for women in the State assemblies and Lok Sabha ?
(a) 30%
(b) 25%
(c) 33%
(d) 36%
Ans: (c)
Q105. What is the fascist view of state ?
(a) State enhances the ideal of individualism
(b) Nation state is unquestionably sovereign
(c) State is the instrument of exploitation in the hands of few.
(d) State is under the control of a king
Ans: (b)
Q106. The Environment (Protection) Bill was passed by the Parliament of India in –
(a) 1984
(b) 1972
(c) 1986
(d) 1981
Ans: (c)
Q107. Which factor is necessary for the development of democratic institutions?
(a) Strong military forces
(b) Respect for individual rights
(c) A one–party system
(d) An agricultural economy
Ans: (b)
Q108. The National Green Tribunal deals with cases relating to :
(a) Issues relating to protection and conservation of historical monuments.
(b) Civil cases
(c) Criminal offences
(d) Environmental protection and conservation of forests.
Ans: (d)
Q109. The first General Election in India and first Amendment to the Constitution was held in:
(a) 1949
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
Ans: (c)
Q110. Which of the following considers the state as primarily a social organism?
(a) Historical Approach
(b) Sociological Approach
(c) Economic Approach
(d) Psychological Approach
Ans: (b)
Q111. Which of these statements is correct with regard to appointment of the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) He/She has to be a retired Chief Justice of India
(b) He/She has to be a retired Supreme Court Judge
(c) He/She has to be a serving/ retired Chief Justice of a High Court
(d) He/She should have demonstrated experience as a Human Rights activist
Ans: (a)
Q112. In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by
Rs. 100 it is known as
(a) Disapproval of policy cut
(b) Economy cut
(c) Vote on Account
(d) Token cut
Ans: (d)

SECTION-9 ARTICLES, AMENDMENTS

Q1. A law can be enacted, or executive order issued, even contrary to Article 19, during proclamation of emergency
(a) caused by war or external aggresssion
(b) caused by internal armed rebellion
(c) caused by constitutional breakdown
(d) caused by financial crisis
Ans: (a)
Q2. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was for the first time amended by the
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q3. The following article of the Indian Constitution abolished the practice of untouchability.
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 19
Ans: (c)
Q4. From the following languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution pick out the one which is the official language of a State :
(a) Kashmiri
(b) Urdu
(c) Sindhi
(d) Nepali
Ans: (a)
Q5. Article 243 of the Constitution of India inserted by a Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following ?
(a) Extending the benefits of Reservation on the basis of Mandal Commission Recommendations
(b) Land Reforms
(c) To include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali in the list of official languages
(d) Panchayati Raj System
Ans: (d)
Q6. What is the maximum period upto which a proclamation issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution and approved/extended by the Parliament may, normally, remain in force ?
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) Unit is repealed by the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q7. Where is the objective of “social justice” articulated in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Preamble
Ans: (d)
Q8. Under which Article of the Constitution can an Emergency be declared in India on account of war or external aggression ?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 353
(d) Article 354
Ans: (b)
Q9. Constitution of India considers free and compulsory eduction to children up to–
(a) 10 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 21 years
Ans: (b)
Q10. Which Article of the Indian constitution provides for the employer to give maternity benefits to its employees ?
(a) Article-41
(b) Article-42
(c) Article-43
(d) Article-44
Ans: (b)
Q11. Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for State emergency and suspends constitutional arrangement in a State ?
(a) Article-352
(b) Article-356
(c) Article-389
(d) Article-392
Ans: (b)
Q12. Article-32 of the Indian constitution relates to :
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to religion
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to equality
Ans: (c)
Q13. During emergency, imposed under Art. 352, which of the following Constitutional provisions stands suspe-nded ?
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Amendment Procedures
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Judicial Review
Ans: (c)
Q14. What Constitutional provision enables the Central Government to provide reservations in jobs and educational institutions for the weaker sections of the society ?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 46
(d) Article 19
Ans: (b)
Q15. What provision in the Constitution enabled the Central Government to impose the service tax and to expand its span ?
(a)
List I, Schedule VII
(b)
List III, Schedule VII
(c) Residuary Powers under Article 248
(d) Emergency Powers
Ans: (c)
Q16. Which of the following sets of Articles deals with ‘Emergency Provisions’ ?
(a) Articles 32 and 226
(b) Articles 350 and 351
(c) Articles 352, 356 and 360
(d) Articles 335, 336 and 337
Ans: (c)
Q17. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees Indian citizens :
(a) Equal protection of laws
(b) Equality before law
(c) Equal distribution of economic resources
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws
Ans: (d)
Q18. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides :
(a) 6 freedoms
(b) 7 freedoms
(c) 8 freedoms
(d) 9 freedoms
Ans: (a)
Q19. Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution ?
(a) Place of birth
(b) Race
(c) Language
(d) Caste
Ans: (c)
Q20. Where is the objective of “Social justice” articulated in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Art. 14
(b) Art. 16
(c) Art. 15
(d) Preamble
Ans: (c)
Q21. Which Article of the Indian Constitution includes the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens?
(a) Article 50A
(b) Article 50B
(c) Article 51A
(d) Article 51B
Ans: (c)
Q22. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form ?
(a) Article 16
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 18
(d) Article 15
Ans: (b)
Q23. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj ?
(a) Article. 36
(b) Article. 39
(c) Article 40
(d) Article. 48
Ans: (c)
Q24. Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as
(a) Federal State
(b) Quasi-Federal State
(c) Unitary State
(d) Union of States
Ans: (d)
Q25. How many schedules does the Constitution of India contain ?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: (d)
Q26. Under which article of Constitution does Jammu and Kashmir enjoys special constitutional position ?
(a) Article – 356
(b) Article – 124
(c) Article – 170
(d) Article – 370
Ans: (d)
Q27. The articles 17 and 18 of constitution provide
(a) social equality
(b) economic equality
(c) political equality
(d) religious equality
Ans: (a)
Q28. How many languages are contained in the VIIIth schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) 18
(b) 22
(c) 16
(d) 12
Ans: (b)
Q29. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution provides for
(a) equality before law
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(c) abolition of titles
(d) abolition of untouch-ability
Ans: (d)
Q30. A proclamation of emergency, under Article 352, on account of war or aggression requires approval of the Parliament within
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) four months
(d) six months
Ans: (a)
Q31. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution upholds
(a) land reforms legislation in India
(b) diplomatic privileges and immunities
(c) special status of Jammu and Kashmir State
(d) duties and rights of Lokpal
Ans: (c)
Q32. Which Constitutional Amendment gave precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 56th
Ans: (a)
Q33. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are
(a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review.
(b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government.
(c) Judicial review and the federal system.
(d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government.
Ans: (d)
Q34. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian Constitution ?
(a) the 38th Amendment Act, 1975
(b) the 40th Amendment Act, 1976
(c) the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(d) the 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Ans: (c)
Q35. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution ?
(a) 40th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 45th Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q36. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes “Untouchability” ?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17
Ans: (d)
Q37. A Financial Emergency can be declared by applying
(a) Article 360
(b) Article 361
(c) Article 370
(d) Article 371
Ans: (a)
Q38. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words – ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(a) 28th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 52nd
Ans: (c)
Q39. In the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which languages were added subsequently ?
(a) English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
(b) Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
(c) Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
(d) Marathi, Oriya, Konkani, Nepali
Ans: (c)
Q40. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s Rule introduced in a State due to the failure of the constitutional machi-nery ?
(a) 352
(b) 356
(c) 360
(d) 350
Ans: (b)
Q41. The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to
(a) strengthen Panchayti Raj
(b) strengthen rural institutions
(c) strengthen urban institution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q42. Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of
(a) the Council of Ministers
(b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) the President of India
(d) the Cabinet Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q43. A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a
(a) Civil proceeding
(b) Criminal proceeding
(c) Judicial proceeding
(d) Statutory proceeding
Ans: (b)
Q44. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?
(a) 8th
(b) 9th
(c) 10th
(d) 11th
Ans: (c)
Q45. According to Article 75 (c) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q46. India has been described under Article-1 of the Constitution as a
(a) Federation
(b) Federation, with a strong unitary bias
(c) Confederation
(d) Union of States
Ans: (d)
Q47. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution are
(a) Secular, Democratic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic
(c) Socialist, Secular
(d) Secular, Republic
Ans: (c)
Q48. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 deals with
(a) Union Territories
(b) Defection and disqualification
(c) Extending reservation
(d) Abolition of privy purses
Ans: (b)
Q49. In the Constitution of India, the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ has been provided in Article
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 35
Ans: (c)
Q50. Which amendments to the Constitution provide for the reservation of one-third seats in the Municipal Boards and Village Panchayats for women?
(a) 73rd and 74th Amendments
(b) 82nd and 83rd Amendments
(c) 72nd and 73rd Amendments
(d) 74th and 75th Amendments and Oridinary Law
Ans: (a)
Q51. By which constitutional amendment political defections were banned?
(a) The Fiftieth amendment of 1984
(b) The Fifty-third amendment of 1986
(c) The Fifty-fourth amendment of 1986
(d) The Fifty-second amendment of 1985
Ans: (d)
Q52. The system of privy purses in respect of former rulers of Indian States before Independence was abolished by the Constitution through
(a) 26th Amendment Act, 1971
(b) 27th Amendment Act, 1971
(c) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
(d) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Ans: (a)
Q53. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 62nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 43rd Amendment
Ans: (c)
Q54. In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India ?
(a) 99
(b) 39
(c) 59
(d) 69
Ans: (*)
Q55. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 61st
(d) 73rd
Ans: (c)
Q56. Article -1 of the Indian Constitution declares “India that is Bharat” is a:
(a) Union of States
(b) Federal State with Unitary features
(c) Unitary State with federal features
(d) Federal State
Ans: (a)
Q57. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external aggression or armed revolt through
(a) Article-352
(b) Article-356
(c) Article-360
(d) Article-368
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which has become a legal right under 44th Amendment?
(a) Right to Education
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Judicial Remedies
(d) Right to Work
Ans: (b)
Q59. By which Constitution Amendment Act, Right to Property ceased to remain a fundamental right?
(a) 44th
(b) 42nd
(c) 43rd
(d) 45th
Ans: (a)
Q60. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in the Supreme Court ?
(a) 323 A
(b) 329
(c) 343 C
(d) 343 K
Ans: (a)
Q61. Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the “Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution”?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 32
Ans: (d)
Q62. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?
(a) Article 33
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 25
Ans: (a)
Q63. Which one of the following languages is not specified in the Eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Urdu
(b) English
(c) Sindhi
(d) Sanskrit
Ans: (b)
Q64. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for equal opportunities for all citizen in Public employment ?
(a) Article–22
(b) Article–16
(c) Article–20
(d) Article–25
Ans: (b)
Q65. Under which Article of the Constitution can an individual move to the Supreme Court directly in case of any violation of Fundamental Rights ?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 31
Ans: (a)
Q66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State Governments to organise Village Panchayats ?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 37
(c) Article 40
(d) Article 51
Ans: (c)
Q67. Which Article empowers the President to impose Financial Emergency ?
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 364
(c) Article 352
(d) Article 360
Ans: (d)
Q68. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to regulate right of citizenship ?
(a) Article 8
(b) Article 9
(c) Article 10
(d) Article 11
Ans: (d)
Q69. Which of the following article of IPC is related to unnatural sex ?
(a) 370
(b) 374
(c) 376
(d) 377
Ans: (d)
Q70. Which Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ?
(a) 71st
(b) 72nd
(c) 73rd
(d) 74th
Ans: (c)
Q71. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India to be a
(a) Union of States
(b) Federal State
(c) Quasi-Federal State
(d) Unitary State
Ans: (a)
Q72. How many times was the Preamble of the Constitution amended ?
(a) Three times
(b) Two times
(c) Once
(d) Not amended
Ans: (c)
Q73. Which one of the Constitutional amendment has established Panchayati Raj Institution ?
(a) 72nd Amendment Act
(b) 71st Amendment Act
(c) 73rd Amendment Act
(d) 78th Amendment Act
Ans: (c)
Q74. The Election Commission is established under the Article
(a) Article-355
(b) Artacie-256
(c) Article-324
(d) Article-320
Ans: (c)
Q75. Which Article of the Constitution enjoins the State to eastablish Village Panchayat?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 57
Ans: (b)
Q76. Reservation for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the service has been provided in the Indian Constitution under
(a) Article 375
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 335
(d) Article 365
Ans: (c)
Q77. Which Article of the Indian Constitution defines the duties of the Chief Minister ?
(a) Article 166
(b) Article 163
(c) Article 167
(d) Article 164
Ans: (c)
Q78. Which amendment of the constitution lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years ?
(a) 64th Amendment
(b) 60th Amendment
(c) 61st Amendment
(d) 63rd Amendment
Ans: (c)
Q79. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals withe Election Commission ?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 324
Ans: (d)
Q80. The 73rd Constitutional amendment act is related to :
(a) Foreign Exchange
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Panchayat Raj
(d) RBI
Ans: (c)
Q81. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Emergency Provisions
(b) Right to Primary Education
(c) Right to Information
(d) Amending Procedure
Ans: (d)
Q82. Which period below depicts internal emergency in India under article 352?
(a) 26th June, 1974 to 23rd March, 1976
(b) 25th June, 1975 to 21st March, 1977
(c) 20th June, 1975 to 20th March, 1977
(d) 21st June, 1976 to 21st March, 1974
Ans: (c)
Q83. Which Article of the Constitution deals with removal/ dismissal of a Civil Servant?
(a) Article 25
(b) Article 256
(c) Article 311
(d) Article 377
Ans: (c)
Q84. Which state was formed after the amendment of articles 239A and 240?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Uttrakhand
(c) Sikkim
(d) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (a)
Q85. Which among the following Articles came into force on 26th November 1949, the day the Indian Constitution was adopted ?
(a) Article 388
(b) Article 390
(c) Article 387
(d) Article 386
Ans: (a)
Q86. An amendment of the constitution may be initiated ____
(a) by introduction by the President of India.
(b) by introduction of a Bill in Rajya Sabha.
(c) by the Governors of States.
(d) by the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament.
Ans: (d)
Q87. Which Article of the Constitution deals with fundamental duties ?
(a) Aritcle 30 A
(b) Aritcle 50
(c) Aritcle 51 A
(d) Aritcle 25
Ans: (c)
Q88. Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) Allocation of Seats in the Council of States
(b) Distribution of power between the Union and the States
(c) Power and Authority of the Municipalities
(d) Powers of the Governor of the State
Ans: (b)
Q89. Which article of the Constitution deals with money bills :
(a) Article 130
(b) Article 110
(c) Article 120
(d) Article 100
Ans: (b)
Q90. Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (d)
Q91. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides free legal aid and equal justice?
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 39-A
(d) 33-B
Ans: (c)
Q92. The constitutional amendment through which the four regional languages namely Bodo, Dogri, Maithali and Santhali were included in the constitution is:
(a) 72nd
(b) 92nd
(c) 93rd
(d) 94th
Ans: (d)
Q93. Name the body which was established to provide safety and security of SCs’ and STs’ social, economic, cultural and educational concerns after an amendment in the Indian constitution?
(a) Law Commission of India
(b) National Commission for SC and ST
(c) Special officer for Linguistic Minorities
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans: (b)
Q94. In which year did the first amendment of Indian Constitution take place?
(a) 1951
(b) 1950
(c) 1948
(d) 1949
Ans: (a)
Q95. Under which of the following amendment, education was made a fundamental right?
(a) 83rd amendment in 2003
(b) 83rd amendment in 2002
(c) 86rd amendment in 2002
(d) 87rd amendment in 2003
Ans: (c)
Q96. Article 60 of the Indian Constitution refers to:
(a) Election of the President of India
(b) Oath of the President
(c) Impeachment of the President
(d) Vice President of India
Ans: (b)
Q97. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(d) 12
Ans: (d)
Q98. Which amendment to the Indian Constitution added the words Secular and Socialist in the Preamble?
(a) Fortieth
(b) Forty-first
(c) Forty-second
(d) Forty-third
Ans: (c)
Q99. Article 324–329 of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
(a) Tribunals
(b) Elections
(c) Cast System
(d) Panchayti system
Ans: (b)
Q100. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?
(a) 42nd
(b) 46th
(c) 61st
(d) 88th
Ans: (a)
Q101. Right to Privacy comes under
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 20
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 18
Ans: (c)
Q102. Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act, deals with the Elementary Education as a Fundamental Right?
(a) 84th Amendment Act
(b) 85th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 87th Amendment Act
Ans: (c)
Q103. In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976, which word was added to the Preamble?
(a) Democratic
(b) Equality
(c) Secular
(d) Socialist
Ans: (*)
Q104. Indian Constitution can be amended according to the procedure laid down in the following Article
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 345
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 333
Ans: (a)
Q105. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality before Law?
(a) Article – 13
(b) Article – 14
(c) Article – 15
(d) Article – 17
Ans: (b)
Q106. How many Constitutional Amendments to the Constitution of India have been made so far?
(a) 122
(b) 121
(c) 120
(d) 119
Ans: (a)
Q107. The word “Secular” was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 41st Constitutional Amendment
(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(c) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
(d) 44th Constitutional Amendment
Ans: (b)
Q108. Which Constitutional Amendment Act deals with the disqualification of MPs and MLAs?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 52nd Amendment Act
(c) 62nd Amendment Act
(d) 32nd Amendment Act
Ans: (b)
Q109. Which of the following schedules contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(a) First schedule
(b) Second schedule
(c) Third schedule
(d) Sixth schedule
Ans: (d)
Q110. How many languages are recognised in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) 22
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 14
Ans: (a)

SECTION–8 PANCHAYATIRAJ

Q1. The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj was chaired by :
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) K. N. Katju
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Ans: (b)
Q2. Which of the following is not an administrative function of a Village Panchayat ?
(a) Providing sanitation and drainage
(b) Providing burial and cremation grounds
(c) Providing college education
(d) Maintenance of roa
Ans: (c)
Q3. The first State in India to implement Panchayati Raj System was
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b)
Q4. Which among the following legislation gives constitutional status to three-tier Panchayati Raj system ?
(a) 72nd constitutional amendment, 1992
(b) 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
(c) 74th constitutional amendment, 1993
(d) 75th constitutional amendment, 1994
Ans: (b)
Q5. Which of the following States was first to adopt the Panchayati Raj?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which of the following Indian States first adopted the 3-tier Panchayati Raj system ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (c)
Q7. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was associated with—
(a) Industrial Policy
(b) Banking Reforms
(c) Panchayati Raj
(d) Centre-State relations
Ans: (c)
Q8. The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of
(a) Gram Sabha, Anchal Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti
(b) Janapad Panchayat, Taluka Panchayat, Anchal Panchayat
(c) Gram Panchayat, Block and Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
(d) Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
Ans: (d)
Q9. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution?
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Gram Cooperative Society
(d) Nyaya Panchayat
Ans: (c)
Q10. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(a) 1950 A.D.
(b) 1945 A.D.
(c) 1947 A.D.
(d) 1962 A.D.
Ans: (*)
Q11. Which is not the concern of the local government ?
(a) Public Health
(b) Sanitation
(c) Law and Order
(d) Public Utility Services
Ans: (c)
Q12. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the –
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) Royal Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q13. Through which Constitutional Amendment was the Nagarpalika Bill passed?
(a) 70th
(b) 72nd
(c) 73rd
(d) 74th
Ans: (d)
Q14. The Panchayat Raj system in India was introduced under the direction of which article of the constitution ?
(a) 32
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 51
Ans: (b)
Q15. The expression ‘Grama Sabha’ correctly refers to
(a) Elder citizens of a village
(b) Whole population of a village
(c) Electorate for the Panchayat
(d) Elected members of the Panchayat
Ans: (c)
Q16. Panchayati Raj system is based on the principle of
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q17. Which is an example of direct democracy in India ?
(a) Zila Panchayat
(b) Nagar Panchayat
(c) Gram Sabha
(d) Kshetra Panchayat
Ans: (c)
Q18. Panchayati Raj System was implemented first in the pair of states
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(b) Assam and Bihar
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab and Chandigarh
Ans: (a)
Q19. What is the system of Local Self Government in the Panchayati Raj set up ?
(a) Four tier system at the village, block, district and State level
(b) Three tier structure at village, block and district level
(c) Two tier system at village and block level
(d) Single tier set up at village level
Ans: (b)
Q20. In the year 1977, an official committee was appointed to examine Panchayat Raj, under the Chairmanship of
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Shri Ram Mehta
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta
(d) Manohar Lal Mehta
Ans: (a)
Q21. Which among the following States, first introduced the Panchayat Raj System ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (a)
Q22. The “Recall Provision” to remove the elected office bearers from the local Self Government institution has been executed in :
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Haryana
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Q23. What is the structure of Panchayati Raj ?
(a) Zilla Panchayat ® Block Panchayat ® Gram Panchayat ® Gram Sabha
(b) Khap Panchayat ® Zilla Panchayat ® Block Panchayat ® Gram Panchayat ® Gram Sabha
(c) Khap Panchayat ® Zilla Panchayat ® Block Panchayat® Gram Panchayat
(d) Nagar Panchayat ® ZillaPanchayat ® Block Panchayat ® Gram Panchayat ® Gram Sabha
Ans: (a)

SECTION–7 JUDICIARY

Q1. Who is authorised to transfer the Judge of one High Court to another High Court ?
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) A Collegium of Judges of the Supreme Court
(d) The Law Minister
Ans: (a)
Q2. The civil affairs like marriage, divorce, inheritance etc. which has been authorised by the Constitution to make legal laws ?
(a) Centre, by the Union
List of the Constitution
(b) States, by the State
List of the Constitution
(c) Centre and States, by the Concurrent
List of the Constitution
(d) Religious authorities which have relation to individual affairs
Ans: (c)
Q3. Why did one of the High Courts in India decree that “bandhs are unconstitutional and punitive”?
(a) It infringes on the fundamental rights of some groups of people
(b) It is not in exercise of a fundamental freedom
(c) It adversely affects production
(d) It is not part of a right to protest
Ans: (b)
Q4. To whome can a case of dispute in the election of the President of India be referred to ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Cabinet
Ans: (c)
Q5. What is the category in which the negtotiating strategy of a strike by the Government employees falls ?
(a) Fundamental Rights of freedom of association and expression
(b) Legal Right
(c) Trade Union right as common law
(d) There is no right
Ans: (b)
Q6. Which of the following is at the apex of the subordinate criminal courts ?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Court of Sessions Judge
(d) Court of District Judge
Ans: (c)
Q7. Which among the following court has the original jurisdiction to hear petition and give decision challenging election of the Lok Sabha/ Vidhan Sabha ?
(a) District Court of a constituency
(b) High Court of the State
(c) Special Judge authorised by the Chief Justice of India
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
Q8. Who is empowered to transfer a Judge from one High Court to another High Court?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India
(c) Law Minister of India
(d) The Union Cabinet
Ans: (b)
Q9. The main function of the judiciary is :
(a) law formulation
(b) law execution
(c) law adjudication
(d) law application
Ans: (c)
Q10. The salaries and emoluments of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on :
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Contingency Fund of India
(c) The Consolidated Fund of India
(d) The Finance Commission
Ans: (c)
Q11. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court can be removed by
(a) The President
(b) Parliament
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme court
Ans: (a)
Q12. Where the High Courts in India first set up ?
(a) Delhi and Calcutta
(b) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
(c) Bombay, Del0hi, Calcutta
(d) Madras and Bombay
Ans: (b)
Q13. What does the “Judicial Review” function of the Supreme Court mean ?
(a) Review its own judge-ment
(b) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(c) Examine the constitu-tional validity of the laws
(d) Undertake periodic review of the Consti-tution
Ans: (c)
Q14. The Basic Structure of our Constitution was proclaimed by the Supreme Court in
(a) Keshvananda Bharati Case
(b) Golak Nath Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) Gopalan Case
Ans: (a)
Q15. An appeal to the High Court lies in case the Session Court has awarded the punishment of
(a) one year or more
(b) two years or more
(c) three years or more
(d) four years or more
Ans: (d)
Q16. The Supreme Court of India enjoys
(a) original jurisdictions.
(b) advisory jurisdictions.
(c) appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
(d) original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
Ans: (d)
Q17. The Judges of the High Court hold office
(a) during the pleasure of the Chief Justice of India
(b) till they have attained 62 years of age
(c) till they have attained 65 years of age
(d) as long as they desire
Ans: (b)
Q18. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy ?
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) All the above cases
Ans: (c)
Q19. Which of the following is not the essential qualification for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Should be a citizen of India
(b) Should be at least 35 years of age
(c) Should have practised for at least 10 years as an advocate in one or more High Courts
(d) Should be an eminent jurist
Ans: (b)
Q20. Judicial review in the Indian Constitution is based on :
(a) Rule of Law
(b) Due process of Law
(c) Procedure established by Law
(d) Precedents and Conventions
Ans: (c)
Q21. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of :
(a) 60 years
(b) 65 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 58 years
Ans: (b)
Q22. The First Act permitting legal marriage with a person not belonging to one’s endongamous group is
(a) Hindu Marriage Validity Act
(b) Abolition of Untouchability Act
(c) Special Marriage Act
(d) Arya Samaj Marriage Validity Act
Ans: (a)
Q23. The states which have a common High Court are
(a) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat and Orissa
(c) Maharashtra and Goa
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans: (c)
Q24. The Supreme Court is empowered to settle election disputes of President and Vice- President. This is its
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction
Ans: (a)
Q25. Which two states have a common High Court?
(a) Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(b) Haryana and Punjab
(c) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b)
Q26. Judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of
(a) 60 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 65 years
Ans: (d)
Q27. A Judge of the Supreme Court retires at the age of
(a) 65 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 58 years
Ans: (a)
Q28. Of the following, who held the offices of Judge of the Supreme Court and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) K.S. Hegde
(c) Subba Rao
(d) P.N. Bhagwati
Ans: (b)
Q29. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by
(a) The President
(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Governor of the State
(d) Chief Minister of the State
Ans: (a)
Q30. The first woman judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was
(a) Rani Jethmalani
(b) Anna George Malhotra
(c) M. Fathima Beevi
(d) Leila Seth
Ans: (c)
Q31. Who was the first woman Chief Justice of a High Court of a state in India ?
(a) Sunanda Bhandare
(b) Fathima Beevi
(c) Leila Seth
(d) Anna Chandy
Ans: (c)
Q32. To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the President be referred ?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q33. Retirement age of the judges of Supreme Court of India is
(a) 58 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 62 years
(d) 65 years
Ans: (d)
Q34. Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court?
(a) Sunanda Bhandare
(b) Leila Seth
(c) Fatima Beevi
(d) Indira Jaising
Ans: (c)
Q35. Which is the highest law of the land?
(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Indian Constitution
(c) Civil Procedure Code
(d) Criminal Procedure Code
Ans: (b)
Q36. The Supreme Court of India acts as a Federal Court when it deals with
(a) Civil cases
(b) Inter-State disputes
(c) Appeals from lower courts
(d) Election petitions
Ans: (b)
Q37. Which one of the following Chief Justices of India had the opportunity to act as President of India ?
(a) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan
(b) Justice P.B. Gajendra-gadkar
(c) Justice M. Hidayatulla
(d) Justice P. N. Bhagawati
Ans: (c)
Q38. Who was the first woman Chief Justice of a High Court of a state in India ?
(a) Sunanda Bhandare
(b) Fathima Beevi
(c) Leila Seth
(d) Anna Chandy
Ans: (c)
Q39. ‘Equality before law’ in India is derived from
(a) Case Law
(b) Political Conventions
(c) Constitution
(d) Gandhian Philosophy
Ans: (c)
Q40. Who interprets the Constitution?
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Judiciary
(d) President
Ans: (c)
Q41. A law made by the Judiciary is known as
(a) Ordinary law
(b) Case law
(c) Rule of law
(d) Administrative law
Ans: (b)
Q42. What is the retirement age for a Supreme Court Judge?
(a) 62 years
(b) 68 years
(c) 65 years
(d) 70 years
Ans: (c)
Q43. The Judges of High Court are administered oath of office by
(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The President of India
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) Governor of the State
Ans: (a)
Q44. The Pension of a High Court Judge is charged on the
(a) Public Accounts of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Public Accounts of the State
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
Ans: (b)
Q45. The High Court which has the distinction of having the first woman Chief Justice is:
(a) Guwahati High Court
(b) Allahabad High Court
(c) Delhi High Court
(d) Himachal Pradesh High Court
Ans: (d)
Q46. The Supreme Court of India was set up:
(a) By the Constitution
(b) By a law of Parliament
(c) By a Presidential Order
(d) By the Act of 1947
Ans: (a)
Q47. The Judges of Supreme Court hold office till they reach the age of
(a) 58 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 65 years
(d) 60 years
Ans: (c)
Q48. Supreme Court is the guardian for
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Preamble
(d) Centre and State disputes
Ans: (a)
Q49. Judges of the district court are appointed by:
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Law Minister
(d) President
Ans: (a)
Q50. District Judge is under the control of
(a) State Government
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Governor
Ans: (b)
Q51. Division of Powers and Independent Judiciary are the two important features of
(a) Socialist form of Government
(b) Unitary form of Government
(c) Democratic form of Government
(d) Federal form of Government
Ans: (c)
Q52. Which one of the following statements about the Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not correct ?
(a) He appoints the Chief Justice of all High Courts.
(b) The CJI administers the oath of office to the President
(c) When both the offices of the President and Vice-President fall vacant simultaneously, the CJI discharges the duties of the President.
(d) The CJI can hold his office till he attains the age of 65 years.
Ans: (a)
Q53. The Indian Judiciary is headed by :
(a) The president
(b) The prime minister
(c) The supreme court
(d) The parliament
Ans: (c)
Q54. Who appoints the judges of the Indian Supreme Court ?
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q55. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q56. How many judges are there in Supreme Court ?
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 31
Ans: (d)
Q57. The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitts India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1793
(d) Charter Act of 1813
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) ADM Jabalpur case-Rights of citizens undr emergency
(b) Indira Sawhney case-Rights of women at work
(c) Vishakha case-Centre-State relations
(d) Kartar Singh case-Rights of minorities
Ans: (a)
Q59. Chief Justices of the Supreme Court hold office till they attain the age of
(a) 65 Years
(b) 60 Years
(c) 62 Years
(d) 58 Years
Ans: (a)
Q60. What is ordinary Law ?
(a) Laws made by the High Court
(b) Laws made by the Supreme Court
(c) Laws made and enforced by the Government
(d) Laws made by the common people.
Ans: (c)
Q61. Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the states inter se
(b) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
(c) Protection of Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes between Centre and the States
Ans: (c)
Q62. To become a Judge of the High Court one must be a practicing advocate of the High Court for at least :
(a) 20 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 15 years
Ans: (c)
Q63. Who is the first law officer of the country?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Attorney General
(c) Law Minister
(d) Solicitor General
Ans: (b)
Q64. Which one of the following is related to Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(a) Speaker of the Parliament seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
(b) Election Commission seeking opinion from the Supreme Court
(c) States seeking opinion from the Supereme Court
(d) President of India seeks opinion on law or facts
Ans: (d)
Q65. Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court of India
(c) President
(d) Attorney General of India
Ans: (b)
Q66. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction
(b) Original jurisdiction
(c) Appellate jurisdiction
(d) Jurisprudence
Ans: (b)
Q67. What is the meaning of “Public Interest Litigation”?
(a) Anything of public interest
(b) A case brought by victim to court, involving public interest
(c) A case brought by anyone to court involving public interest
(d) A directive issued by Supreme Court involving public interest
Ans: (c)
Q68. Subordinate courts are supervised by _______
(a) Supreme Court
(b) District Court
(c) High Court
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q69. What does Section 124A of Indian Penal Code deal with?
(a) Atrocity against women
(b) Sedition
(c) Crime for demanding dowry
(d) Atrocity against SC/ST
Ans: (b)
Q70. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by __________ .
(a) the Election Commission
(b) the Supreme Court
(c) the Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)

SECTION–6 FEDERAL STRUCTURE

Q1. What is the implication of the Central Government granting “Special Status” to a State ?
(a) Substantially large percentage of the central assistance will be as grantsin- aid
(b) The extent of loan as a percentage of total assistance will be low
(c) Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Central Government
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans: (d)
Q2. Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab Reorganisation Act which created the states Punjab and Haryana ?
(a) Dhar Commission
(b) Dass Commission
(c) Shah Commission
(d) Mahajan Commission
Ans: (c)
Q3. Which of the following states is not included in Capital Region Planning Council ?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Q4. In which state of India is there a uniform civil code ?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Kerala
(c) Haryana
(d) Goa
Ans: (d)
Q5. Which State in India, has given the highest number of Deputy Prime Ministers ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (d)
Q6. Division of powers is the principle of
(a) Unitary form of Government
(b) Federal form of Government
(c) Socialist form of Government
(d) Republican form of Government
Ans: (b)
Q7. Article 370 of the Constitution is applicable to the State of :
(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Manipur
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: (d)
Q8. Which Article of the Constitution of India accords special status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) 324
(b) 311
(c) 370
(d) 356
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which are the two States (other than UP) having the highest representation in Lok Sabha ?
(a) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Bihar and Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan
Ans: (b)
Q10. In which year were the Indian states reorganised on the linguistic basis ?
(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1956
(d) 1966
Ans: (c)
Q11. Article 370 of the Constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland
(c) special provisions in respect of Nagaland
(d) provisions in respect of the financial emergency
Ans: (a)
Q12. When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in accordance with the recommendations of States Reorgani-sation Commission ?
(a) 1953
(b) 1956
(c) 1960
(d) 1966
Ans: (b)
Q13. The Sarkaria Commission was appointed to review the question of
(a) centre/state relations
(b) Legislative problems
(c) Union territories problems
(d) Tribal areas
Ans: (a)
Q14. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with
(a) Administrative Reforms
(b) Electoral Reforms
(c) Financial Reforms
(d) Centre-State relations
Ans: (d)
Q15. Sarkaria Commission was constituted to give its report on
(a) New pay scales for the government servants
(b) Centre-State relations
(c) Ram Janmabhomi –Babri Masjid dispute
(d) Kaveri dispute
Ans: (b)
Q16. Who of the following has not been an interlocutor on Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) M.M. Ansari
(b) Radha Kumar
(c) Shujaat Bukhari
(d) Dilip Padgaonkar
Ans: (c)
Q17. In a federal Government the states enjoy
(a) original powers
(b) powers delegated by the Centre
(c) powers given by the Constitution
(d) powers given by the people
Ans: (c)
Q18. The day-to-day administration of a Union Territory in India is carried out by the—
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Home Minister
(d) Lt. Governor
Ans: (d)
Q19. Sikkim was granted statehood in the year
(a) 1973
(b) 1974
(c) 1975
(d) 1976
Ans: (c)
Q20. Which Article of the Constitution provides special status to Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) 360
(b) 368
(c) 370
(d) 375
Ans: (c)
Q21. Which State enjoys the distinction of being the first linguistic state of India ?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans: (b)
Q22. The number of Union Territories in India is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 6
Ans: (b)
Q23. Which of the following is not a Union Territory ?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Nagaland
(d) Daman and Diu
Ans: (b)
Q24. Special status to Jammu and Kashmir is given by the Indian Constitution under the article
(a) 364
(b) 368
(c) 370
(d) 377
Ans: (c)
Q25. The unification of Karnataka was achieved in the year
(a) 1956
(b) 1957
(c) 1958
(d) 1960
Ans: (a)
Q26. A federal government is in the shape of
(a) Command by the Centre
(b) Appeal from the States
(c) Agreement between the Centre and the States
(d) Single Party Rule
Ans: (c)
Q27. The main feature of the Federal State is
(a) Decentralisation
(b) Centralisation
(c) Theory of separation of powers
(d) Sovereignty
Ans: (a)
Q28. Which Committee/Commission examined the Centre and State relationship ?
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(b) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(c) Sarkaria Commission
(d) N.N. Vohra Committee
Ans: (c)
Q29. The States reorganization in 1956 created __
(a) 17 States and 6 Union Territories
(b) 17 States and 9 Union Territories
(c) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(d) 15 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans: (c)
Q30. Which of the following is not a Union Territory ?
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Puducherry
(d) Nagaland
Ans: (d)
Q31. How many states are there in the Indian Union?
(a) 27
(b) 28
(c) 30
(d) 29
Ans: (d)
Q32. The Name of the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands was changed, to Lakshadweep by an act of parliament in :
(a) 1973
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1972
Ans: (a)
Q33. Which was the first linguistic state to be created?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (c)
Q34. The Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of ______
(a) Six years
(b) Five years
(c) Four years
(d) Seven years
Ans: (a)
Q35. The’ Narmada Water Dispute Tribunal’ was constituted to resolve the water sharing between
(a) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat and Daman and Diu
Ans: (c)

SECTION–5 IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS

Q1. Postal voting is otherwise called :
(a) plural voting
(b) proxy voting
(c) weighted voting
(d) sceret voting
Ans: (b)
Q2. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out.
Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG
(a) They are advisory bodies.
(b) They are extra constitutional bodies
(c) They are controlled by legislature.
(d) They are constitutional bodies.
Ans: (d)
Q3. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament over a non-money bill :
(a) the bill will lapse
(b) the President may sign it into a law
(c) the President may call a joint sitting of both the Houses to consider it.
(d) the President may ask both the Houses to reconsider it.
Ans: (c)
Q4. What amidst the following is not true of the general electoral roll prepared through the agency of the Election Commission? It is to be used for elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Panchayatiraj and Nagarpalika institutions
(c) Legislative Assemblies of the states
(d) Legislative Councils of the states where these exist
Ans: (d)
Q5. Right to vote is mentioned in the parts of the Constitution relating to
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Union Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Election
Ans: (d)
Q6. Which of the following nonmembers of Parliament has the right to address it ?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Ans: (a)
Q7. For which peroid the Finance Commission is formed ?
(a) 2 years
(b) Every year
(c) 5 years
(d) According to the wishes of President
Ans: (c)
Q8. Who finally approves the draft Five-Year-Plan ?
(a) Planning Commission
(b) President
(c) National Development Council
(d) Parl iament and State Legislatures
Ans: (c)
Q9. The deciding authority of States share in central taxes is the
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (a)
Q10. When was the Public Service Commission, the original version of the U.P.S.C. set up?
(a) 1st October, 1926
(b) 1st April, 1937
(c) 15th August, 1947
(d) 26th January, 1950
Ans: (a)
Q11. Which of the following nonmembers of Parliament has the right to address it ?
(a) Attorney-General of India
(b) Solicitor-General of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Ans: (a)
Q12. Which authority recommends the principles gov erning the grantsin- aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India ?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Union Ministry of Finance
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Inter-State Council
Ans: (c)
Q13. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) Union and State Governments
(d) Neither Union nor State Governments
Ans: (c)
Q14. The Finance Commission is mainly concerned with recommending to the President about
(a) distributing net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States
(b) principles Governing the grants-in-aid to be given to States
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) and (b)
Ans: (c)
Q15. Who constitutes the Finance Commission after every five years ?
(a) The Council of Ministers
(b) The Parliament
(c) The President
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans: (c)
Q16. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the
(a) Parliament after a resolution adopted with 2/ 3rds majority
(b) President on a unani-mous recommendation from the Union Council of Ministers
(c) President on the basis of an inquiry and report by the Supreme Court
(d) President on recommendation from Central Administrative Tribunal
Ans: (c)
Q17. If the Election Commission is satisfied that a candidate has failed to lodge an account of election expenses, within the prescribed time and in the manner, for no good reason or justification, what is the period for which the EC can disqualify him to be a member or from continuing to be a member of the elected office from the date of the order ?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Ans: (b)
Q18. Elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are held on the basis of :
(a) single transferable vote
(b) limited suffrage
(c) proportional represen-tation
(d) adult franchise
Ans: (d)
Q19. Vote-on-account means
(a) Statutory acceptance of planning bill
(b) Statutory acceptance of money bill
(c) Statutory acceptance of report of account checking and documents produced by CAG
(d) Statutory acceptance of expenditure related to demands of grants till the passage of planning bill
Ans: (d)
Q20. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor – General of India ?
(a) 6 years
(b) Up to 65 years of age
(c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(d) Up to 64 years of age
Ans: (c)
Q21. In which country Financial Legislation is introduced in the Upper House of the Legislature?
(a) Australia
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d)Germany
Ans: (d)
Q22. The Bureaucracy performs
(a) only administrative functions
(b) only judicial functions
(c) only legislative functions
(d) administrative as well as quasi-judicial and quasilegislative functions
Ans: (d)
Q23. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (c)
Q24. A member of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chairman of the UPSC
Ans: (a)
Q25. Who is the Chief Law Officer of the Government of India ?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Registrar of the Supreme Court
(c) The Law Minister of India
(d) The Attorney General of India
Ans: (d)
Q26. Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in the country ?
(a) Planning Committee
(b) Union Cabinet
(c) Parliament
(d) National Development Council
Ans: (d)
Q27. Which is NOT a central Service ?
(a) Indian Police Service
(b) Indian Foreign Service
(c) Indian Audit & Accounts Service
(d) Indian Revenue Service
Ans: (a)
Q28. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government ?
(a) Attorney–General
(b) Cabinet Secretary
(c) Home Secretary
(d) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q29. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament ?
(a) Attorney-General of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(d) Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Ans: (a)
Q30. The Planning Commission of India is
(a) a constitutional body
(b) an independent and autonomous body
(c) statutory body
(d) a non–statutory body
Ans: (d)
Q31. Being the non-member, who among the following can participate in the proceedings of either house of the Parliament without having right to vote ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (d)
Q32. When does Lok Sabha or a Vidhan Sabha election candidate forfeit his security deposit ?
(a) When he fails to win the election
(b) When he fails to secure even 1 4 of total votes polled
(c) When he fails to secure even 1 5 of total votes polled
(d) When he fails to secure even 1 6 of total votes polled
Ans: (d)
Q33. The term of office of the member of the UPSC is
(a) 3 years, or till they attain 58 years of age
(b) 5 years, or till they attain 60 years of age
(c) 6 years, or till they attain 65 years of age
(d) 6 years
Ans: (c)
Q34. The authority which is not established by the constitutional provisions is
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) UPSC
(d) Election Commission
Ans: (b)
Q35. Age of a candidate to contest Parliamentary election should not be lesser than
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 26 years
Ans: (c)
Q36. The annual report of the UPSC is submitted to
(a) The President
(b) The Supreme Court
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (a)
Q37. Finance Commission is constituted
(a) every year
(b) once in four years
(c) once in two years
(d) once in five years
Ans: (d)
Q38. For which period the Finance Commission is formed ?
(a) 3 year
(b) 4 year
(c) 5 year
(d) 6 year
Ans: (c)
Q39. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the
(a) Minister for Planning and Development
(b) Home Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (c)
Q40. Which of the follwoing is an extra–constitutional and nonstatutory body?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Union Public Service Commission
(d) Election Commission
Ans: (b)
Q41. The Finance Commission
(a) draws up Five Year Plans
(b) formulates Monetary Policy
(c) recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(d) adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans: (d)
Q42. Which is an extra-Constitutional body ?
(a) Language Commission
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (b)
Q43. Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Union Public Service Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Ans: (d)
Q44. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in
(a) any Sessions Court
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) any court of law within the territory of India
Ans: (d)
Q45. Who appoints the Finance Commission?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q46. The Planning Commission of India was established in the year
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1952
Ans: (c)
Q47. The term of the Finance Commission is
(a) Ten years
(b) Five years
(c) Six years
(d) Three years
Ans: (b)
Q48. The National Development Council includes :
(a) all central Cabinet Ministers
(b) Chief Ministers of all the States
(c) Cabinet Ministers of all the States and the Centre.
(d) Members of the Estimates Committee of the Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q49. The Finance Commission is
(a) a permanent body
(b) an annual body
(c) a triennial body
(d) a quinquennial body
Ans: (d)
Q50. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet
(d) The Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q51. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office
(a) for six years
(b) during the pleasure of the President
(c) for six years or till the age of 65 whichever is earlier
(d) for five years or till the age of 60 whichever is earlier
Ans: (c)
Q52. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(a) President of India
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Minister for Planning
Ans: (c)
Q53. The objectives of Indian Planning are
(a) increasing national income
(b) reducing inequalities in income and wealth
(c) elimination of poverty
(d) all of the above
Ans: (d)
Q54. In an election, electioneering has to be stopped in a constituency
(a) 24 hours before the poll commences
(b) 24 hours before the closing hour of polling
(c) 48 hours before the hour of commencement of polling
(d) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
Ans: (c)
Q55. The Advocate–General in each state is
(a) appointed by the Governor
(b) appointed by the President
(c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q56. A person cannot contest election from
(a) more than one constituency
(b) more than two constituencies
(c) more than three constituencies
(d) more than four constituencies
Ans: (b)
Q57. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures
(a) Majority Rule
(b) Stability in Government
(c) Common Political Thinking
(d) Representation of Minorities
Ans: (a)
Q58. The Election Commission of India is a :
(a) One-member Commission
(b) Three-member Commission
(c) Five-member Commission
(d) Seven-member Commission
Ans: (b)
Q59. Planning Commission of India was established in
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1951
(d) 1949
Ans: (b)
Q60. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be
(a) A person of Finance and Banking field
(b) An Economist of high calibre
(c) An expert from Judiciary — level of High Court Judge
(d) A person having experience in Public Affairs
Ans: (d)
Q61. The First Election Commissioner of India was
(a) S.P. Sen Verma
(b) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(c) K.V.K. Sundram
(d) Sukumar Sen
Ans: (d)
Q62. Under single transferable vote system each voter can
(a) Indicate only two preferences
(b) Indicate only one preference
(c) Indicate one preference less than the seats to be filled up
(d) Indicate as many preferences as there arc candidates to be elected.
Ans: (d)
Q63. The term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is —
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 6 years
Ans: (d)
Q64. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(a) G.V. Mavlankar
(b) T. Swaminathan
(c) K.V.K. Sundaram
(d) Sukumar Sen
Ans: (d)
Q65. When was the First Gerneral Election to the Lok Sabha held ?
(a) 1950 – 51
(b) 1951 – 52
(c) 1952 – 53
(d) 1956 – 57
Ans: (b)
Q66. Parliament exercises control over public expenditure through
(a) Advocate General
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Commerce Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
Q67. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election Commission?
(a) To conduct the election of PM of India.
(b) To conduct the election of President of India.
(c) To give recognition to Political Parties
(d) To assign election symbols to the Political Parties.
Ans: (a)
Q68. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Vice-President
Ans: (b)
Q69. Who acts as the Chairman of the State Planning Board ?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Leader of the Opposition
(d) Speaker
Ans: (b)
Q70. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Vice-President
Ans: (b)
Q71. Finance Commission is appointed by the President of India after every
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q72. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q73. The Members and Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, are appointed by the:
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Prime Minister of India
Ans: (a)
Q74. The Finance Commission in India is appointed by
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q75. An electoral system under which a legislature reflects the strength of the various political parties is called
(a) Proportional representation
(b) Direct election style
(c) Gallup Poll
(d) Gerrymandering
Ans: (a)
Q76. Who of the following enjoy constitutional position ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Election Commission
(D) Planning Commission
(a) A, C
(b) A, B
(c) B, D
(d) B, C
Ans: (a)
Q77. The responsibility of preparation of electoral roll in India rests with the :
(a) Parliament
(b) Local Administration
(c) Election Commission
(d) Returning Officer
Ans: (c)
Q78. Which among the following is a constitutional body as per the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q79. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram
(b) Sukumar Sen
(c) G.V. Mavlankar
(d) T. Swaminathan
Ans: (b)
Q80. The Second Chief Election Commissioner of India was
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) S. P. Sen Verma
(c) K. V. K Sundaram
(d) T. Swaminathan
Ans: (c)
Q81. Which of the following high dignitaries, who are not members of Parliament, has the right to address it?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Solicitor General of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner of India
Ans: (b)
Q82. For which one of the following commissions, there is no provision in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (c)
Q83. Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q84. The Attorney General of India has the right of audience in
(a) the Supreme Court
(b) any High Court
(c) any Sessions Court
(d) any Court of Law within India
Ans: (d)
Q85. Which body is constituted by the President of India to advise on the decision of Central Resources between the centre and the state ?
(a) Tariff Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Taxation Enquiry Commission
Ans: (b)
Q86. Comptroller and Auditor General of India acts as a friend, Philosopher and Guide for.
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Finance Ministry
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (a)
Q87. Bureaucracy literally means a system of government by _____
(a) Elected representative
(b) Nominated representative
(c) Officials
(d) Group of landlords
Ans: (c)
Q88. The power to decide an Election Petition for the State is vested in the
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) High Courts
(d) Election Commission
Ans: (c)
Q89. Union Public Service Commission has to submit the report to the
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q90. Which among the following Act suggested for the post called Comptroller and Auditor General ?
(a) 1909 Act
(b) 1919 Act
(c) 1935 Act
(d) 1947 Act
Ans: (c)
Q91. Which was the first state to go to polls under the Delimitation ?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (d)
Q92. Which committee recommended for three language formula ?
(a) Raj Committee
(b) Kothari Committee
(c) Rajamannar Committee
(d) Dutt Committee
Ans: (b)
Q93. What is the plural voting system?
(a) Candidates themselves caste more than one vote
(b) Only the higher officials caste more than one votes.
(c) Eligible voter exercises one vote and some voters with specific qaulifications cast more than one vote.
(d) All the citizens caste three votes each.
Ans: (c)
Q94. The Indian Constitution provides the country with three categories of civil services, namely :
(a) all India, central and state services
(b) administrative, railway and police services
(c) administrative, police and revenue services
(d) administrative, police and foreign services
Ans: (d)
Q95. Which of the following is one of the characteristics of civil services in India?
(a) Neutrality and Impartiality
(b) Partisan
(c) Temporary Political Executive nexus
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q96. The members of the All India Services serve the
(a) Central Government only
(b) State Government only
(c) Union Territories only
(d) both the Union and State Governments
Ans: (d)
Q97. Who holds the highest law office in India?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Accountant General
(c) Lieutenant General
(d) Solicitor General
Ans: (a)
Q98. Which of the following is not provided in the constitution ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Public Service Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Ans: (d)
Q99. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Member of NITI Aayog
(c) The Chief Ministers of States
(d) The President of India
Ans: (d)
Q100. If a budget is defeated in the legislature of a state then
(a) The Finance Minister alone has to resign
(b) The Finance Minister concerned has to be suspended
(c) The council of Ministers along with the Chief Minister has to resign
(d) Reelection have to be ordered
Ans: (c)
Q101. Who is the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog ?
(a) Dr. Bibek Debroy
(b) Dr. V.K. Saraswat
(c) Dr. Arvind Panagariya
(d) Arun Jaitley
Ans: (c)
Q102. The Comptroller and AuditorGeneral of India submits his report relating to the accounts of the Union to the _______.
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
Q103. Who appoints the Finance Commission in India?
(a) Governor, R.B.I.
(b) CAG of India
(c) President of India
(d) Central Finance Minister
Ans: (c)
Q104. The Comptroller and Auditor General is closely connected with which of the following Committees of Parliament?
(a) The Estimates Committee
(b) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) The Public Accounts Committee
(d) All of these
Ans: (c)
Q105. Which one of the following was established with a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans: (c)
Q106. Who appoints the members of the State Public Service Commission ?
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Vice President
Ans: (b)
Q107. To be a voter in India, what is the minimum qualifying age?
(a) 24 Years
(b) 22 Years
(c) 20 Years
(d) 18 Years
Ans: (d)
Q108. What is the minimum age to qualify for Lok Sabha Elections?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (a)
Q109. NITI Aayog is a
(a) Statutory Body
(b) Think Tank
(c) NGO
(d) Constitutional Body
Ans: (b)

SECTION–4 ARTICLE 153-212

Q1. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly ?
(a) 1 6 of the members
(b) 1 3 of the members
(c) 1 12 of the members
(d) 5 6 of the members
Ans: (b)
Q2. The Legislative Council in a State in India may be created or abolished by the
(a) President on the recommendation of the Governor
(b) Parliament
(c) Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect.
(d) Governor on a recommendation by the State Cabinet
Ans: (c)
Q3. An Ordinary bill passed by the State Assembly can be delayed by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
Ans: (d)
Q4. Which amidst the following States has a Legislative Council ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) West Bengal
(d) Punjab
Ans: (a)
Q5. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor ?
(a) Chief Justice of Indian Supreme Court
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) President
Ans: (b)
Q6. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the
(a) Governor of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
(d) Finance Minister of the State
Ans: (a)
Q7. There is no provision in the Constitution for the impeachment of the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chief Justice of a High Court
(c) Governor
(d) Vice President
Ans: (c)
Q8. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(b) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(d) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans: (a)
Q9. The States in India are demanding greater autonomy from the centre in the _____ field.
(a) Legislative
(b) Administrative
(c) Financial
(d) All the above
Ans: (d)
Q10. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to
(a) the Governor
(b) the Chief Minister
(c) the President of India
(d) the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (d)
Q11. What is the duration of membership of State Legislative Councils?
(a) 3 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 9 years
Ans: (c)
Q12. The Governor of a State has no power to
(a) prorogue the Assembly
(b) dissolve the Assembly
(c) adjourn the Assembly
(d) summon the Assembly
Ans: (c)
Q13. The members of the Legislative Assembly are
(a) indirectly elected
(b) directly elected by the people
(c) partly elected and partly nominated by the Governor
(d) mainly nominated
Ans: (b)
Q14. Money Bills originate in the State Legislative Assembly on the recommendation of
(a) the Governor
(b) the Chief Minister
(c) the Finance Minister
(d) the Speaker
Ans: (a)
Q15. The Chief Minister is appointed by
(a) the Governor
(b) the President
(c) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) the Chief Justice of High Court
Ans: (a)
Q16. The upper house of the State Legislature in India is called :
(a) Legislative Council
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) Executive Council
(d) Governor – in – Council
Ans: (a)
Q17. In case no party enjoys absolute majority in the Legislative Assembly of a state, the Governor will go by :
(a) the advice of former Chief Minister
(b) the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) the advice of the President of India
(d) his own discretion
Ans: (d)
Q18. The Chief Minister is appointed by
(a) President of India
(b) Chief Justice of High Court
(c) Governor
(d) President of the Party
Ans: (c)
Q19. The Governor of an Indian State is appointed by the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) Chief Minister of the State
Ans: (a)
Q20. A State cannot exist without
(a) Democratic government
(b) Parliamentary government
(c) Presidential government
(d) Some kind of government
Ans: (d)
Q21. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State ?
(a) Solicitor General
(b) Secretary General, Law Department
(c) Attorney General
(d) Advocate General
Ans: (d)
Q22. An ordinance issued by the Governor, without the approval of the State Legislature shall be effective for a period of
(a) Six months
(b) Six weeks
(c) One year
(d) One month
Ans: (b)
Q23. The maximum time a person can continue to be the minister of the State Government without being a member the state legislature _____.
(a) One year
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) No time limit
Ans: (c)
Q24. Total assembly segments in Delhi are :
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 40
Ans: (c)
Q25. In relation to the State Government, local government exercises :
(a) Co-ordinate Authority
(b) Delegated Authority
(c) Superior Authority
(d) Independent Authority
Ans: (b)
Q26. An ordinance issued by Governor is subject to approval by
(a) The President
(b) The State Legislature
(c) The State Council of Ministers
(d) The Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q27. In which year were the States recognized on a linguustic basis ?
(a) 1951
(b) 1947
(c) 1950
(d) 1956
Ans: (d)
Q28. The State Election Commission conducts, controls and supervises Municipal elections under
(a) Article 240 (a)
(b) Article 241
(c) Article 243 (K)
(d) Article 245 (D)
Ans: (c)
Q29. Which among the following state has Vidhan Parishad ?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (*)
Q30. On which of the following issues can a Governor make recommendation to the President?
(a) Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers.
(b) Removal of the Judges of the High Court.
(c) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly.
(d) Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Q31. The oath of office is administered to the Governor by the:
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Legistlative Assembly
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice of High Court
Ans: (d)
Q32. An ordinance issued by the Governor has to be passed by the Assembly within
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 10 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 6 weeks
Ans: (d)
Q33. The discretionary powers of a Governor is limited in
(a) Appointment of Chief Minister
(b) Dismissal of the Ministry
(c) Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly
(d) Assent to Bills
Ans: (d)
Q34. Who among the following is the first woman Chief Minister of Punjab ?
(a) Sucheta Kriplani
(b) Mehbooba Mufti
(c) Draupadi Murmu
(d) Rajinder Kaur Bhattal
Ans: (d)
Q35. The minimum age limit for the membership of the Vidhan Parishad is _____ .
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (c)
Q36. Name the first woman Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Sakina Itoo
(b) Mehbooba Mufti
(c) Asiya Naqash
(d) Hina Shafi Bhat
Ans: (b)
Q37. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Mayawati
(c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(d) Sucheta Kriplani
Ans: (d)
Q38. Chief Ministers of States are members of __________________
(a) NITI Commission (Aayog)
(b) Finance Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) Election Commission
Ans: (c)
Q39. Which of the following State has bicameral legislature?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab
(c) Sikkim
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: (d)
Q40. The Union Government on 22 May 2016 appointed whom as the new Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory (UT) of Pondicherry?
(a) Kiran Bedi
(b) Kalyan Singh
(c) Ram Naik
(d) Mukul Sangma
Ans: (a)
Q41. The term of a Governor is :
(a) 4 Years
(b) 5 Years
(c) 6 Years
(d) 3 Years
Ans: (b)

SECTION–3 ARTICLE 52-122

Q1. Stability of the Government is assured in :
(a) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(b) Presidential Form of Government.
(c) Plural Executive System
(d) Direction Democracy
Ans: (b)
Q2. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be filled within :
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 year
Ans: (b)
Q3. In Indian Republic, the real executive authority rests with the :
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Bureaucrats
(d) Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)
Q4. Parliamentary form of Government is also known as :
(a) Responsive Government
(b) Responsible Govern-ment
(c) Federal Government
(d) Presidential Government
Ans: (b)
Q5. The minimum age of the member of Rajya Sabha is :
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (c)
Q6. Who among the following are not appointed by the President of India?
(a) Governors of States
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Court
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court
Ans: (c)
Q7. What is the period within which a proclamation of national emergency made by the President is to be placed before each house of the Parliament for approval?
(a) within one month
(b) within two months
(c) within four months
(d) within six months
Ans: (a)
Q8. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by the Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Upper House within :
(a) 10 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 30 days
Ans: (b)
Q9. What can be the maximum interval between two Sessions of Parliament?
(a) Three months
(b) Four months
(c) Six months
(d) Nine months
Ans: (c)
Q10. The maximum permissible gap between two sessions of the Parliament is
(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 6 months
Ans: (d)
Q11. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
Q12. Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Committee on Govern-ment Assurances
Ans: (b)
Q13. How are legislative excesses of Parliament and Assemblies checked?
(a) Intervention from President/ Governor
(b) No Confidence motions
(c) Judicial review
(d) General elections
Ans: (c)
Q14. No Money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the
(a) Vice-President
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (b)
Q15. Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in the case of —
(a) Money Bills
(b) Non-money bills
(c) Setting up of new All-India Services
(d) Amendment of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
Q16. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) The Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) The President
(c) The Joint-session of Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Q17. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right.
(a) Right to privacy
(b) Equality before law
(c) Abolition of untoucha-bility
(d) Right to form associa-tions or unions
Ans: (a)
Q18. Which of the following Standing Committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Committee on Government Assurances
Ans: (b)
Q19. From which Constitution of the World, the Indian Constitution has adopted the concept of “Directive Principles of State Policy”?
(a) Ireland
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) Australiads, tanks and wells
Ans: (a)
Q20. The “Residuary Powers” (not mentioned in the Union, State or Concurrent lists of the Constitution) are vested in
(a) President of India
(b) Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(c) State Legislature
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q21. What is the composition of the electoral college for the election of Vice-President of India ?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) Members of Rajya Sabha only
Ans: (b)
Q22. The function of Protem Speaker is to
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker
(b) officiate as Speaker when a Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(c) swearing in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected
(d) check if the election certificates of members are in order
Ans: (c)
Q23. Who among the following presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) A member appointed by the President.
(b) A member nominated by the members of the parliament present in the House.
(c) A person from the panel formed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) A senior most member of the House.
Ans: (c)
Q24. Indian Parliament includes :
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Only Lok Sabha
(c) President and Lok Sabha
(d) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q25. What is the minimum age prescribed for becoming a member of Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (c)
Q26. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of :
(a) Division of Powers between Centre and States
(b) Centralisation of Powers
(c) Balance of Powers
(d) Separation of Powers
Ans: (d)
Q27. What is the maximum time interval permitted between two sessions of Parliament ?
(a) 4 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 9 months
Ans: (b)
Q28. The item ‘Education’ belongs to the :
(a) Union
List
(b) State
List
(c) Concurrent
List
(d) Residuary Subjects
Ans: (c)
Q29. What is the maximum number of the elected members of Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
(d) 248
Ans: (b)
Q30. The joint session of the two Houses of Parliament is convened
(a) only in case of national emergency
(b) when a bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House
(c) taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other House
(d) both (b) & (c)
Ans: (d)
Q31. The President’s Rule is imposed on a State in India, when
(a) The State Cabinet of Ministers resigns
(b) The Governor of the State dies
(c) The elections are announced
(d) There is a Constitutional breakdown
Ans: (d)
Q32. In Indian Parliament, a bill may be sent to a select committee
(a) after the first reading
(b) after the second reading
(c) after general discussion during second reading
(d) at any stage at the discretion of the Speaker
Ans: (d)
Q33. Where is the Constitutional power located enabling the Central Government to legislate on cow slaughter ?
(a) Entry 17,
List III in Schedule VII-Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
(b) Residuary Powers under Art. 248
(c) Emergency Powers
(d) Art. 48 in the Directive Principles
Ans: (d)
Q34. The salaries and allowances payable to the Members of the Parliament are decided by the
(a) President
(b) Cabinet
(c) Parliament
(d) Finance Commission
Ans: (c)
Q35. The authority to prorogue the two Houses of the Parliament rests with the
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
Ans: (a)
Q36. Who is the competent to dissolve the Parliament ?
(a) The President
(b) The Cabinet with the concurrence of the Leader of the Opposition
(c) By resolution in both Houses of Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q37. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha is the Chief of its Secretariat and is :
(a) elected by the Lok Sabha
(b) elected by both Houses of Parliament
(c) appointed by the Speaker
(d) appointed by the President
Ans: (c)
Q38. When was zero hour introduced in the parliamentary affairs in India ?
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Ans: (b)
Q39. The maximum number of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has been fixed by the Constitution of India respectively as
(a) 500 and 250
(b) 525 and 270
(c) 537 and 275
(d) 545 and 250
Ans: (d)
Q40. In order to be recognised as an official opposition Group in the Parliament how many seats should it have ?
(a) 1 3 rd of the total strength
(b) 1 4 th of the total strength
(c) 1 6 th of the total strength
(d) 1 10 th of the total strength
Ans: (d)
Q41. What is the maximum time interval permissible between two successive sessions of the Parliament ?
(a) Four months
(b) Six months
(c) Eight months
(d) Nine months
Ans: (b)
Q42. What is the minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sahbha ?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Ans: (c)
Q43. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution ?
(a) Estate Duty
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Taxes on Railway Fares and Freights
(d) Corporation Tax
Ans: (d)
Q44. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q45. Who is eligible to cast the deciding vote over a bill in a Joint Parliamentary session ?
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q46. Representation of any state in Rajya Sabha is according to
(a) area of the state
(b) population of the state
(c) number of represen-tatives in Lok Sabha from the state
(d) fixed number of candidates from each state
Ans: (b)
Q47. The Electoral College that elects the President of India consists of
(a) Elected members of all the State Legislatures
(b) Members of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
(c) Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies
(d) Elected members of the Rajya Sabha and State Legislatures
Ans: (c)
Q48. The Constitution of India lays down that the two Houses of Parliament must be summoned at least
(a) four times a year
(b) thrice a year
(c) twice a year
(d) once a year
Ans: (c)
Q49. The Vice-President of India is also the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Head of the State
(d) Head of the Government
Ans: (b)
Q50. The President of the Union of India has the same constitutional authority as the
(a) British Monarch
(b) President of USA
(c) President of Pakistan
(d) President of France
Ans: (a)
Q51. Which organ is the custodian of the National Purse ?
(a) Executive
(b) Judiciary
(c) Legislature
(d) Civil Servants
Ans: (c)
Q52. Who can be the member of the Rajya Sabha but can speak both in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
(a) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Leader of the House in the Rajya Sabha
(c) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q53. What are the ‘residuary powers’?
(a) Powers which are enumerated in the State
List
(b) Powers which are included in the Union
List
(c) Powers which are enumerated in the Concurrent
List
(d) Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists
Ans: (d)
Q54. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
(a) Five
(b) Twelve
(c) One-fifth of the total members
(d) Ten
Ans: (b)
Q55. Which of the following is not a tool of legislative control over administration in India?
(a) Dissolution of House
(b) Resolutions
(c) Questions
(d) No Confidence Motion
Ans: (a)
Q56. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India by
(a) Electoral College
(b) People of India
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q57. The members of Estimates Commitee are
(a) elected from Lok Sabha only
(b) elected from Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q58. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) members of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q59. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both houses of Parliament
(b) members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislatures
(c) members of both houses of Parliament and of State legislative assemblies
(d) elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of State legislative assemblies
Ans: (d)
Q60. A motion moved by a member in a legislature when it is desired to have a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance is called
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) No-confidence motion
(c) Cut motion
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q61. No Government Expenditure can be incurred in India except with the sanction of
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the President
(d) the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q62. The majority of the provi-sions of the Indian Constitution can be amended
(a) by the State Legislatures acting together
(b) by the Parliament alone
(c) with the joint approval of the Parl iament and State Legislatures
(d) only on ratification by half of the States
Ans: (b)
Q63. In our Constitution, Economic Planning is included in
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Not any specified list
Ans: (c)
Q64. A candidate, to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, should not be less than
(a) 21 years of age
(b) 25 years of age
(c) 30 years of age
(d) 32 years of age
Ans: (c)
Q65. The Union Parliament consists of
(a) The President of India
(b) The Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) The House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q66. The maximum strength of the elected members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is
(a) 530
(b) 545
(c) 540
(d) 550
Ans: (b)
Q67. How many readings does a nonmoney bill have in each House of the Parliament?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
Ans: (b)
Q68. By which Bill does the Government propose collection of revenues for a year?
(a) Economic Bill
(b) Finance Bill
(c) Supplementary Bill
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q69. The Indian Parl iament is competent to enact law on a State subject if
(a) emergency under Article 352 is in operation
(b) all the state Assemblies of the country make such a request
(c) the President sends such a message to Parliament
(d) None of these
Ans: (a)
Q70. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of
(a) four types
(b) two types
(c) five types
(d) three types
Ans: (d)
Q71. The interval between two sessions of either House of Parliament should not exceed
(a) three months
(b) six months
(c) nine months
(d) twelve months
Ans: (b)
Q72. The Vice President of India is elected by
(a) the members of the Parliament
(b) the members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) the elected members of the Parliament
(d) the members of the Parl iament and State Legislatures
Ans: (c)
Q73. A Bill referred to a ‘Joint Sitting’ of the two Houses of the Parliament is required to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of the members present
(b) absolute majority of the total membership
(c) rd majority of the members present
(d) th majority of the members present
Ans: (a)
Q74. Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (a)
Q75. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ?
(a) Finance Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q76. The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after
(a) every five years
(b) every six years
(c) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)
Q77. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom he is to address his resignation letter ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q78. Which of the following are Financial Committee of Parliament in India ?
(I) Public Accounts Committee
(II) Estimates Committee
(III) Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) I & III
(b) I & II
(c) II & III
(d) I, II & III
Ans: (d)
Q79. The ‘Speaker’s vote’ in the Lok Sabha is called
(a) casting vote
(b) sound vote
(c) direct vote
(d) indirect vote
Ans: (a)
Q80. The Council of Ministers does not include
(a) Cabinet Ministers
(b) Ministers of State
(c) Cabinet Secretary
(d) Ministers without Portfolio
Ans: (c)
Q81. Although Union
List, State
List and Concurrent
List cover the entire legislative business, yet there may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who will legislate on that item ?
(a) Parliament only
(b) State Legislature only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: (a)
Q82. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that
(a) it is the Union Legislature in India
(b) it also comprises the President
(c) it is bicameral in nature
(d) the Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved
Ans: (d)
Q83. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once
(b) 2 times
(c) 3 times
(d) Any number of times
Ans: (d)
Q84. Match
List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
Lists:
List – I
a. Member of Parliament
b. President
c. Vice-President
d. Speaker
List – II
1. Elected by an Electoral College
2. Elected by the Parliament
3. Elected by the Lok Sabha
4. Elected by adult voting Code :
a b c d
(a)1 2 3 4
(b)2 3 4 1
(c)3 4 1 2
(d)4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
Q85. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of Air Staff
(d) Chief of Army
Ans: (a)
Q86. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently raised the emoluments of the President, the Vice-President and the Governors. The emolument payable to the President, has been raised to
(a) Rs. 1.00 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
(b) Rs. 1.50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month
(c) Rs. 1.75 lakh from Rs. 75,000 per month
(d) Rs. 2.00 lakh from Rs. 1.00 lakh per month
Ans: (b)
Q87. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(b) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(c) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(d) Five years
Ans: (c)
Q88. Which of the follwong is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament ?
(a) There is no mention of it in the Constitution
(b) A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
(c) Atleast 100 persons must support such a motion before it is inroduced in the House.
(d) It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(a) b and d
(b) a, b, c and d
(c) a, b and c
(d) a and d
Ans: (d)
Q89. Who held the office of the Vice- President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(b) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(d) Mr. V.V. Giri
Ans: (a)
Q90. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by
(a) a person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) the Deputy Chairman of Rajaya Sabha
(d) the Chief Justice of India
Ans: (d)
Q91. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Select Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q92. The Prime Minister of India is
(a) Elected
(b) Appointed
(c) Nominated
(d) Selected
Ans: (b)
Q93. Which is not an All India Service ?
(a) Indian Administration Service
(b) Indian Police Service
(c) Indian Foreign Service
(d) Indian Forest Service
Ans: (c)
Q94. The Speaker of the Lok-Sabha has to address his/her letter of resignation to
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (c)
Q95. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force
(a) For three months
(b) For six months
(c) For nine months
(d) Indefinitely
Ans: (b)
Q96. How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President of India to the Parliament ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 8
Ans: (b)
Q97. Who can initiate impeachment of the President ?
(a) 1/4th members of either House of Parliament
(b) Half of the members of either House of Parliament
(c) Half of the State Legislatures
(d) 1/3rd members of any State Legislature
Ans: (a)
Q98. What can the President do if a State fails to comply with the Directives of the Central Government ?
(a) He can dissolve State Legislature and order fresh elections
(b) He can declare the breakdown of constitu-tional machinery in the State and assume responsibility for the governance of the State
(c) He can send paramilitary forces to the State to secure compliance
(d) Any of the above
Ans: (b)
Q99. The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in an Indian State has to be approved by the Parliament within a period of
(a) 2 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
Ans: (a)
Q100. The number of subjects in the Union
List of the Indian Constitution is
(a) 47
(b) 66
(c) 97
(d) 100
Ans: (c)
Q101. How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire from the house every 2 years ?
(a) 1/6 of the total members
(b) 1/3 of the total members
(c) 1/12 of the total members
(d) 5/6 of the total members
Ans: (b)
Q102. Evaluate the following statements :
(a) The President of India can be impeached by the Indian Parliament.
(b) The President of India can be removed by the Indian Parliament only with the approval of the Chief Justice of India.
(a) a is correct but b is not correct
(b) b is correct but a is not correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect
Ans: (a)
Q103. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha extended upto 6 years ?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Ans: (a)
Q104. Among the tax revenues of the Union Government, the most important source is
(a) Income Tax
(b) Customs Duty
(c) Corporation Tax
(d) Union Excise Duties
Ans: (d)
Q105. What is the maximum strength prescribed for State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) 350
(b) 600
(c) 500
(d) 750
Ans: (c)
Q106. If the Anglo-Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) President in consult-ation with the Parlia-ment
Ans: (b)
Q107. For the election of President of India, a citizen should have completed the age of
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (c)
Q108. A member of Parliament will lose his membership of Parliament if he is continuously absent from Sessions for
(a) 45 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 365 days
Ans: (b)
Q109. In India, the Residuary Powers are vested with
(a) Union Government
(b) State Government
(c) Both the Union Government and the State Government
(d) Local Government
Ans: (a)
Q110. Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the World Parliamentary systems?
(a) Question hour
(b) Zero hour
(c) Resolutions
(d) Presidential Speech
Ans: (b)
Q111. Indian Parliament Means
(a) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha – Prime Minister
(c) President of India – Rajya Sabha – Lok Sabha
(d) President of India – Vice- President of India – Lok Sabha – Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q112. Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Indian Parliament?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q113. Which one of the following methods is used to ascertain the public opinion on important legislation ?
(a) Initiative
(b) Recall
(c) Referendum
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q114. The final authority to interpret our Constitution is the
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Superme Court
Ans: (d)
Q115. The Parliament can legislate on subjects given in the Union
List only in consultation with the State Government for the State of :
(a) Assam
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Kerala
Ans: (c)
Q116. One of the following is a part of executive. Find out-
(a) Member of Legislative Council
(b) Member of Rajya Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) Sub-Inspector of Police
Ans: (d)
Q117. The voting age in India was lowered from 21 year to 18 years through
(a) Presidential ordinance.
(b) Constitutional Amendment.
(c) Executive Order.
(d) Parliamentary Legislation.
Ans: (b)
Q118. Indian Constitution has divided the powers and function of the state into
(a) two lists
(b) three lists
(c) four lists
(d) five lists
Ans: (b)
Q119. The president of India can nominate how many members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha?
(a) Two
(b) Five
(c) Ten
(d) Twelve
Ans: (a)
Q120. A joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament is presided over by the
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Attorney-General of India
Ans: (c)
Q121. On the subjects mentioned in the concurrent list , laws may be enacted by the
(a) States and the Union
(b) Union alone
(c) States alone
(d) States and the Union territories
Ans: (a)
Q122. What is the maximum number of starred questions that can be asked in Lok Sabha on a particular day?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) Without limit
Ans: (b)
Q123. Rajya Sabha being a permanent house
(a) one-third of its members retire every two years
(b) one-half of its members retire every three years
(c) one-fifth of its members retire every year
(d) one-sixth of its members retire every year
Ans: (a)
Q124. The Joint Session of both the Houses of Parliament is summoned by
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)
Q125. How many members of the Anglo-Indian community may be nominated by the President in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Any number
(d) Only one
Ans: (b)
Q126. Who is referred to as the Supreme Commander of Forces in India?
(a) General of the Army
(b) Defence Minister
(c) President
(d) Field Marshal
Ans: (c)
Q127. Which item out of the following is contained in the concurrent list?
(a) Trade Unions
(b) Agriculture
(c) Tolls
(d) Markets and Fairs
Ans: (a)
Q128. The Residuary powers of the Indian Union are
(a) vested with the Centre
(b) vested with the States
(c) there are no residuary powers
(d) they are distributed between the centre and the states.
Ans: (a)
Q129. The maximum number of nominated members to the Rajya Sabha are
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 15
Ans: (b)
Q130. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire
(a) every year
(b) every two years
(c) every three years
(d) every four years
Ans: (b)
Q131. The Vice-President of India can be removed by the
(a) President on the advice of Council of Ministers
(b) Lok Sabha with the consent of the President
(c) Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of the President
Ans: (c)
Q132. A mid-term poll is conducted when
(a) the Lok Sabha is dissolved before completion of its term
(b) an elected member resigns from his seat
(c) there are discrepancies in voting
(d) all MP’s of a political party resign
Ans: (a)
Q133. A proclamation of emergency caused by war or external aggression must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
Ans: (b)
Q134. Which of the following is not a charged expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Expenditure on Five year plans
(b) Expenditure on the Chairman and Members of the UPSC
(c) Expenditure on the Judges of the Supreme Court
(d) Debt charges of the Government of India
Ans: (a)
Q135. The president of India addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session
(a) of each year
(b) After each general election to the House of the People
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Q136. Implementing laws is the function of
(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) Cabinet
Ans: (a)
Q137. Education is included in which of the following lists?
(a) Central list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Local list
Ans: (c)
Q138. Can a person who is not a Member of Parliament be appointed as a minister’?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Yes, provided the Parliament approves of such an appointment.
(d) Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.
Ans: (d)
Q139. Under which of the following situations can Rajya Sabha be dissolved?
(a) When financial emergency is declared in the country.
(b) When emergency is declared due to failure of Constitutional machinery.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Q140. Who can legislate on those residual matters which are not mentioned in Central/ State/Concurrent lists?
(a) State legislatures exclusively
(b) Parliament alone
(c) Parl iament after State legislatures concur
(d) Parliament or State legislatures as adjudicated by the Supreme Court
Ans: (d)
Q141. The salary of the Members of Parliament is decided by
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Central Cabinet
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker
Ans: (a)
Q142. Who held the office of the Vice- President of India for two full terms?
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) B.D. Jatti
(d) M. Hidayatullah
Ans: (a)
Q143. What is the correct order of succession
(earlier to later)among the following Presidents of India?
a. Dr. Zakir Hussain
b. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
c. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
d. V.V. Giri
(a) a-c-d-a
(b) c-b-d-a
(c) d-a-b-c
(d) b-a-d-c
Ans: (d)
Q144. If the Speaker of Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President of India
Ans: (c)
Q145. The Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate on the subjects contained in
(a) the Union
List
(b) the Concurrent
List
(c) the State
List
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a)
Q146. A Bill is certified as Money Bill in Lok Sabha by
(a) the President
(b) the Finance Minister
(c) the Prime Minister
(d) the Speaker
Ans: (d)
Q147. When the Vice-President officiates as President of India, he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) Member of Parliament
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (b)
Q148. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament in India ?
(a) The person elected by both the Houses
(b) The Chairman of the Council
(c) The Speaker, Lok Sabha
(d) The Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q149. The right to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha rests with
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Judiciary
(d) The Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q150. The minimum age for a person to seek election to Lok Sabha is
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (b)
Q151. The power to create or abolish the Upper House of the State Legislature belongs to the
(a) Governor
(b) Parliament
(c) High Court
(d) State Legislature
Ans: (b)
Q152. Which type of emergency has not been declared so far in India?
(a) Internal emergency caused due to internal disturbances
(b) External emergency caused due to external threat
(c) State emergency, caused due to failure of constitutional machinery in the states
(d) Financial emergency
Ans: (d)
Q153. The Speaker of the lok Sabha enjoys
(a) no right to vote in general circumstances
(b) the right to vote only in case of a tie
(c) the right to vote like other members of the House
(d) the right to vote only once during the term of the House
Ans: (b)
Q154. During Financial Emergency all money bills passed by the state legislature are to be reserved for the consideration of the
(a) Governor
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Ans: (d)
Q155. The committee on subordinate legislation deals with
(a) Delegated legislation
(b) Financial legislation
(c) Municipal legislation
(d) State legislation
Ans: (a)
Q156. Rajya Sabha has no role in
(a) the election of the Vice- President
(b) the election of the Speaker
(c) the impeachment of the President
(d) removal of the judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
Q157. When the posts of both the President and the Vice President are vacant who among the following officiates as President?
(a) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(b) The Lt. Governor of Delhi
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q158. The policy that deals with the tax and expenditure policies of the Government is called
(a) Monetary Policy
(b) Fiscal Policy
(c) Credit Policy
(d) Budgetary Policy
Ans: (b)
Q159. Delimitation of the Lok Sabha constituencies was last done in the year
(a) 1970
(b) 1973
(c) 1976
(d) 1977
Ans: (*)
Q160. If the Speaker of Lok Sabha Wishes to tender his resignation he has to address his letter to
(a) The President of India
(b) The Deputy Speaker
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Cabinet
Ans: (b)
Q161. Money Bills can be introduced in the Lok Sabha with prior permission of the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Cabinet
Ans: (a)
Q162. The President of India who held office for two terms was
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) K.R. Narayanan
(c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) Babu Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (d)
Q163. Who nominates persons for various parliamentary delegation to foreign countries?
(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q164. Which one of the following committees does not consists of any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Public Grievance Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (a)
Q165. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament may be convened to consider a bill which was passed by one House and kept pending by the other for
(a) four months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) two years
Ans: (b)
Q166. Who will administer the oath of office to the person who is to take over as President ?
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The outgoing President
(d) The Vice President
Ans: (b)
Q167. The President of the India is :
(a) The head of the ‘State’
(b) The head of the Government
(c) The head of the State as well as Government
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q168. When a constitutional amendment bill goes to the President, he
(a) can withhold his assent
(b) can return it to the Parliament for reconsideration
(c) can delay it for not more than six months
(d) is bound to give his assent
Ans: (d)
Q169. Which one of the following Vice- President resigned from his office to contest for the office of the President ?
(a) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(b) V.V. Giri
(c) R. Venkataraman
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans: (b)
Q170. How many persons can be nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha from among those who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc.?
(a) None
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 12
Ans: (d)
Q171. What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Three years
(b) Four years
(c) Five years
(d) Six years
Ans: (d)
Q172. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council
Ans: (a)
Q173. According to the Indian Constitution, the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q174. The Parliament consists of
(a) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Sabha, Vidhan Parishad and Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q175. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q176. How many ‘types of emergencies are envisaged by the Constitution ?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (c)
Q177. Who calls the Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) The Vice-President
Ans: (a)
Q178. No confidence Motion against the Union Council of Ministers can be initiated
(a) in the Rajya Sabha only
(b) in the Lok Sabha only
(c) both in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(d) in the State Assemblies
Ans: (b)
Q179. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the President of India ?
(a) 58 years
(b) 60 years
(c) 62 years
(d) There is no maximum age limit
Ans: (d)
Q180. What is quorum required for convening the Lok Sabha ?
(a) 1 6
(b) 1 8
(c) 1 10
(d) 1 5
Ans: (c)
Q181. In the Parliamentary form of Government “He is the first among equal”. Who is he ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Leader of Opposition
(d) Speaker of lower house
Ans: (b)
Q182. The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee in the Indian Parliament is :
(a) The Leader of Opposition Party
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q183. What should be the gap between first No-Confidence motion and second No-confidence motion ?
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 9 months
Ans: (c)
Q184. Which one of the following appointments is not within the purview of the President of India ?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Chairman, Finance Commission
(c) Chief of Army Staff
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q185- The expenditure made on which of the following does not require budgetary approval every year in India ?
(a) Defence
(b) Natural calamities
(c) Consolidated fund
(d) Contingency fund
Ans: (b)
Q186. How many persons can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha from among those who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service etc.?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q187. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the Rajya Sabha not represented ?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Expenditure Committee
Ans: (b)
Q188. The Members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of
(a) Two years
(b) Four years
(c) Six years
(d) Five years
Ans: (c)
Q189. Which of the following does not come under ligislative control over administration ?
(a) Zero hour
(b) Adjournment motion
(c) Budget session
(d) Formulation of a Bill
Ans: (c)
Q190. From which fund can the unanticipated expenditure be met without the prior approval of the Parliament ?
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Contingency Fund of India
(c) Vote-on-Account
(d) From the Treasury
Ans: (b)
Q191. One of the important attributes of Parliamentary form of government is
(a) Fixed tenure for the executive
(b) Executive is answerable to the people
(c) Executive is separate from the legislature
(d) Collective responsibility of Council of Ministers to the Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q192. The Parliament and the Constitution are the instruments of
(a) Legal Justice
(b) Political Justice
(c) Economic Justice
(d) Social Justice
Ans: (c)
Q193. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q194. ‘Zero Hour’ in the working of the Indian Parliament means
(a) Hour before the Question Hour
(b) The first Hour of the Session
(c) Interval between Question Hour and next Agenda
(d) When ‘Privilege Motion is accepted
Ans: (c)
Q195. In which year was the “House of the People” named as “Lok Sabha” ?
(a) 1954 (8) 1964
(c) 1974
(d) 1984
Ans: (a)
Q196. Nomination of Rajya Sabha Members by the President was taken from the Constitution of:
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Iraland
(c) South Africa
(d) France
Ans: (b)
Q197. Which of the following items is under the State
List ?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Criminal Law
(c) Education
(d) Defence
Ans: (a)
Q198. If the Prime Minister of India submits his resignation to the President, it will mean the resignation of the :
(a) Prime Minister only
(b) Prime Minister and the Cabinet Ministers
(c) Entire Council of Ministers
(d) Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and the Speaker
Ans: (c)
Q199. Zero hour is at the discretion of
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Opposition leader
(d) President
Ans: (b)
Q200. The President of India can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only on the written recommendation of
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Cabinet consisting of only Cabinet Ministers of the Union
(c) The Council of Ministers of the Union
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q201. Which of the following is not associated with Parliament?
(a) Prorogue
(b)Adjournment
(c) Dissolve
(d) Dismiss
Ans: (d)
Q202. Which type of emergency has been imposed only one time in India so far ?
(a) Internal Emergency
(b) State Emergency
(c) External Emergency
(d) Financial Emergency
Ans: (a)
Q203. Which of the following motion is related with the Union Budget?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Censure
(c) Cut
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q204. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of :
(a) Two years
(b) Four years
(c) Five Years
(d) Six Years
Ans: (d)
Q205. When was National emergency imposed by the President of India on the grounds of internal disorder ?
(a) 1962
(b) 1965
(c) 1971
(d) 1975
Ans: (d)
Q206. Which of the following motion is related with the Union Budget ?
(a) Adjournment
(b) Censure
(c) Cut
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Q207. Which one of the following committees is NOT a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Consultative Committee to the Ministry of Finance
Ans: (d)
Q208. The Ministers in the Union Government hold office during the pleasure of the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q209. If Parliament appoints a Committee for a specific purpose, it is known as
(a) Joint Committee
(b) Permanent Committee
(c) Standing Committee
(d) Ad hoc Committee
Ans: (d)
Q210. Who is the Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha ?
(a) Vice – President of India
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister of India
Ans: (a)
Q211. In which of the following list docs the subject ‘planning’ figure ?
(a) State
List
(b) Concurrent
List
(c) Residuary
List
(d) Union
List
Ans: (b)
Q212. Money can be spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India with the approval of :
(a) The Parliament
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The President
Ans: (a)
Q213. What is the time limit given to Parliament to pass the ordinance promulgated by the President of India ?
(a) 6 days
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 6 months
(d) 6 months and six weeks
Ans: (b)
Q214. The Estimate Committee consists of
(a) 30 members from Lok Sabha
(b) 30 members from Rajya Sabha
(c) 30 members from both Sabha
(d) 22 members from Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q215. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by
(a) all the members of Parliament
(b) the people directly
(c) all the members of Lok Sabha
(d) the members of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q216. Who Chairs the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament ?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)
Q217. A bill is a ‘Money Bill’ or not will be decided by
(a) Finance Minister
(b) President
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q218. The winning candidate in the Election of President of India should secure
(a) Majority number of votes polled
(b) Sixty six percent of votes polled
(c) Fifty percent of votes polled
(d) More than fifty percent and majority of the total votes polled
Ans: (d)
Q219. Who appoints Secretary General of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Deputy Speaker
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Leader of Ruling Party
Ans: (b)
Q220. Which of the following is presided by a non-member ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad
Ans: (b)
Q221. There is a Parliamentary system of Government in India because
(a) The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people
(b) The Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q222. What are the basic, functions of Public Accounts Committee
(PAC) ?
(a) to examine the statement of accounts showing the income and expenditure of state corporations, trading and manufacturing schemes and projects.
(b) to examine the accounts of stores and stocks.
(c) to examine the statement of accounts of autonomous bodies
(d) All the above
Ans: (a)
Q223. Which one of the following is not an All India Service ?
(a) Indian Foreign Service
(b) Indian Forest Service
(c) Indian Administrative Service
(d) Indian Police Service
Ans: (a)
Q224. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution ensures social and economic democracy?
(a) Emergency Provisions
(b) Centre — State relations
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q225. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government
(a) are drawn from both the Houses of Legislature
(b) are only from the popular House
(c) are not members of either House of Legislature
(d) become members of Legislature after their appointment
Ans: (c)
Q226. The Vice-President is:
(a) A member of Lok Sabha
(b) A member of Rajya Sabha
(c) A member of either House
(d) Not a member of the Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q227. Who of the following enjoys the rank of Cabinet Minister in Union Cabinet ?
(a) Judge of Supreme Court
(b) Secretary to Government of India
(c) Political Advisor to PM
(d) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
Ans: (d)
Q228. The vacancy of the office of the President must be filled within :
(a) 6 months
(b) 12 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 3 months
Ans: (a)
Q229. Who decides a ‘bill’ is a money bill ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker of Lok-Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) President
Ans: (b)
Q230. Who presides over the Joint Session of Indian Parliament?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President of India
(c) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
(d) Seniormost Member of Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q231. The concept of Concurrent
List in Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) Japan
(b) Canada
(c) Australia
(d) U.S.A.
Ans: (c)
Q232. Presidential form of government consists of the following:
(a) Fixed term of office
(b) No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
(c) Popular election of the President
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q233. How many members can be nominated to both the Houses of the Parliament by the President ?
(a) 16
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
Ans: (d)
Q234. “Residuary powers” under the Indian Constitution means
(a) the powers relating to International Affairs.
(b) the powers relating to Internal Emergency.
(c) the powers, which can be exercised both by the Union Government and the States.
(d) the powers, which have not been specifically enumerated in the Union
List, State
List and Concurrent
List.
Ans: (d)
Q235. How many members are nominated by the President to Rajya Sabha ?
(a) 2
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20
Ans: (b)
Q236. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q237. In which House, is the Presiding Officer, not a member of that House ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad
Ans: (b)
Q238. The President of India has the discretionary power to
(a) impose President’s Rule in a state
(b) appoint the Prime Minister
(c) appoint the Chief Election Commissioner
(d) declare Financial Emergency
Ans: (b)
Q239. Name the two non-permanent Houses in the Parliamentary setup of India.
(a) The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(c) The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
(d) The Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q240. The Ministry sometimes referred to as “Green Ministry” in India is Ministry of
(a) Agriculture and Rural Development
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Surface and Transport
(d) Urban Development and Landscaping
Ans: (b)
Q241. In Presidential Government, the President is
(a) independent of the Legislature
(b) dependent on the Legislature
(c) dependent on the Judiciary
(d) bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)
Q242. Residuary powers in the Indian Constitution have been assigned to
(a) Union Parliament only
(b) State Legislatures only
(c) Both Union Parliament and State Legislatures
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q243. A money bill can be introduced in
(a) either house of the Parliament
(b) only Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
(c) only House of the People (Lok Sabha)
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q244. What is the minimum age required to become Prime Minister of India ?
(a) 18 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (*)
Q245. Parliamentary or Presidential Government can be distinguished mainly by
(a) its federal nature
(b) the rigidity of the Constitution
(c) the employer-employee relations
(d) the legislative-executive relations
Ans: (d)
Q246. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 220
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 240
Ans: (c)
Q247. If the President of India wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice-President
(d) Speaker
Ans: (c)
Q248. Who acts as the channel of communication between the President and the Council Ministers ?
(a) Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (d)
Q249. Which one of the following is the specific feature of the single member constituency system ?
(a) The system is economical for representatives.
(b) Gerrymandering is not possible in this system.
(c) It secures a stable majority in the legislature.
(d) The candidate has to spend less on electioneering.
Ans: (c)
Q250. The number of subjects incorporated in the Union
List is
(a) 97
(b) 102
(c) 82
(d) 89
Ans: (a)
Q251. How many items are there in the Union
List ?
(a) 52
(b) 66
(c) 97
(d) 99
Ans: (c)
Q252. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of Parliament ?
(a) One month
(b) Three months
(c) Six months
(d) Twelve months
Ans: (c)
Q253. Who has got the power to create All India Services ?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) The Parliament
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q254. In the provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there ?
(a) 296
(b) 313
(c) 318
(d) 316
Ans: (a)
Q255. Who admits a new State to the Union of India ?
(a) President
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Ans: (d)
Q256. The most important feature of Cabinet system of Government is
(a) Individual responsibility
(b) Collective responsibility
(c) Responsibility to none
(d) Non – responsibility
Ans: (b)
Q257. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q258. If the Union Parliament is to assume legislative power over-and subject included in the State
List, the resolution to the effect has to be passed by which of the following ?
(a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and legislatures of the concerned States
(b) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q259. In India, how many times has the President declared Financial Emergency ?
(a) Once
(b) Never
(c) Thrice
(d) Twice
Ans: (b)
Q260. The legislature gains a priority over the executive in
(a) A Presidential Government
(b) A Federal Government
(c) An Authoritarian Government
(d) A Parliamentary Government
Ans: (d)
Q261. The legislature in a democratic country can influence public opinion by
(a) Focusing attention on public issues
(b) Granting rights
(c) Enacting non-controversial laws
(d) Defining the duties of the citizens
Ans: (a)
Q262. If the President wants to resign from his office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Vice President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q263. The name of the upper house of the Indian Parliament is :
(a) Senate
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) House of Lords
(d) Legislative Assembly
Ans: (b)
Q264. Who was the first speaker of the LokSabha :
(a) Dr. S.P. Mukerjee
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) N. Sanjeev Reddy
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Ans: (b)
Q265. In the case of deadlock between the two houses paraliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the :
(a) President
(b) Senior most member of Lok Sabha
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice President
Ans: (c)
Q266. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (a)
Q267. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)
Q268. The first President of independent India was:
(a) Dr S. Radha Krishnan
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (d)
Q269. If the President wants to resign, he shall address his letter of resignation to :
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans: (b)
Q270. Impeachment Proceedings against the President for violation of the Constitution can be intiated in :
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The Rajya Sabha
(d) The Supreme Court
Ans: (a)
Q271. Who was the First Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(b) Hukum Singh
(c) Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar
(d) K.S. Hegde
Ans: (c)
Q272. How many members are there in Public Accounts Committee?
(a) 22 members
(b) 28 members
(c) 30 members
(d) 20 members
Ans: (a)
Q273. Who is the only second Vice– President of India to get a second consecutive term after S.
Radhakrishnan?
(a) K.R. Narayanan
(b) B.S. Shekhawat
(c) M.H. Ansari
(d) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans: (c)
Q274. Who has the right to decide whether a Bill is a money bill or not?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Finance Minister
Ans: (a)
Q275. The term of office of the Vice- President of India is
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 6 years
Ans: (b)
Q276. The term of member of Rajya Sabha is
(a) Five years
(b) Six years
(c) The same as that of Lok Sabha
(d) Two years
Ans: (b)
Q277. The Prime Minister of India is
(a) Elected by the Lok Sabha
(b) Elected by the Parliament
(c) Appointed by the President
(d) Nominated by the party who has majority in Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q278. Who among the following was the first ‘Minister of Finance’ in independent India ?
(a) R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
(b) Liaquat Ali Khan
(c) John Mathai
(d) Satya Narayan Sinha
Ans: (a)
Q279. Which of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament.
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days.
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
Ans: (a)
Q280. Who among the following was the first politician to become a Chief Minister of a State and Prime Minister of India ?
(a) Mr. Morarji Desai
(b) Mr. Narendra Modi
(c) Mr. H D Deve Gowda
(d) Mr. Charan Singh
Ans: (d)
Q281. Who among the following gave the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ and led Congress to win the general elections of 1971 ?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Sitaram Kesri
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans: (a)
Q282. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution includes the procedure for the impeachment of the President ?
(a) Article-59
(b) Article-71
(c) Article-140
(d) Article-61
Ans: (d)
Q283. In the Union Government, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible for the :
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q284. After question hour, a motion moved by a Member of Parliament to draw the attention of Executive for discussing a definite matter of public importance is
(a) Privilege motion
(b) Calling attention Motion
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) No-confidence motion
Ans: (c)
Q285. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q286. From the following, who was the first women speaker of Lok Sabha ?
(a) Sushma Swaraj
(b) Margret Alva
(c) Meira Kumar
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Ans: (c)
Q287. The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) States
Ans: (c)
Q288. Appointments for all India Services are made by
(a) UPSC
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q289. The Speaker of Lok Sabha addresses his letter of resignation to the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c)
Q290. In whose consultation does the President convene and prorogue all sessions of Parliament ?
(a) The Speaker
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Prime Minister and the leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha
(d) The Council of Ministers
Ans: (b)
Q291. Which one of the following Committees is described as the ‘twin sister’ of the Estimates Committee?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Departmental Standing Committee
(d) Privilege Committee
Ans: (a)
Q292. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by
(a) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly
(b) Elected members of Legislative Council
(c) The people
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)
Q293. Who appoints and dismisses the gazetted officials of the Union Government?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Home Minister of India
(d) The Finance Minister of India
Ans: (a)
Q294. In a Parliamentary form of Government
(a) The Legislature is responsible to the Judiciary
(b) The Executive is responsible to the Legislature
(c) The Legislature is responsible to the Executive
(d) The Judiciary is responsible to the Legislature
Ans: (b)
Q295. Which of the following statements is correct about the President of India ?
(a) Addresses first session of Parliament after each General Election
(b) Addresses first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year
(c) Addresses every session of Parliament
(d) Never addresses Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q296. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers
(a) with the consent of the Speaker
(b) only under emergency conditions
(c) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(d) on his own
Ans: (c)
Q297. Which parliamentary committee in India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the opposition?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Privileges Committee
(d) Public Accounts Committee
Ans: (d)
Q298. In which way the President can assign any of the functions of the Union Government to the State Government ?
(a) In his discretion
(b) In consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(c) In consultation with the Government of the State
(d) In consultation with the State Governor
Ans: (c)
Q299. If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Scheduled Tribe, who has the power for such exclusion?
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) Union Council of Ministers
Ans: (b)
Q300. When the offices of the President and Vice President fall vacant simultaneously, who acts as President?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans: (b)
Q301. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed from his office by _______
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament
(d) a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
Q302. Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President
Ans: (c)
Q303. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of members of Parliament?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Prime Minister in Consultation with the Election Commission
(d) The President in Consultation with the Election Commission
Ans: (d)
Q304. What is the minimum age for membership to Rajya Sabha?
(a) 20 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Ans: (c)
Q305. What is the total strength of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 250
(b) 260
(c) 270
(d) 280
Ans: (a)
Q306. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Ans: (b)
Q307. The President can advance money to meet unforeseen expenses from the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Grants of the Central Government
(c) Aid from the Union Government
(d) Contingency Fund
Ans: (d)
Q308. A Unitary form of government is that in which all the powers are concentrated in the hands of
(a) Local government
(b) Central government
(c) Provincial government
(d) Panchayats
Ans: (b)
Q309. Who has the power to prorogue the Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Speaker
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) The President
Ans: (d)
Q310. According to the Indian Constitution, who has the power to declare emergency ?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Parliament
Ans: (b)
Q311. A motion moved by Member of Parliament when he feels a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House by withholding facts of a case is called
(a) No confidence motion
(b) Censure motion
(c) Privilege motion
(d) Cut motion
Ans: (c)
Q312. The President of India is :
(a) the Head of State
(b) the Head of Government
(c) the Head of State and Government
(d) the Head of Parliament
Ans: (a)
Q313. President of India can be removed from his office by
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Parliament
(d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)
Q314. Who presides over the sitting of the House of People ?
(a) The Vice Present
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Speaker
(d) The President
Ans: (c)