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# SBI Clerk 2017-18 Recruitment/Vacancies/Notification/Exam Dates

SBI Clerk 2018 Notification Out | Online Registration Starts from 20th January

SBI Clerk Recruitment is one of the most sought-after recruitments in the banking sector. As one is provided with an excellent job in India’s largest Public Sector Bank with a handsome salary, she would like to have the privilege of working with it for sure. Before going for a competitive examination, one must always have an adequate knowledge of the eligibility criteria, application process, syllabus, examination pattern, the changes introduced in the pattern of examination, so that, she knows how she should plan her preparations in a way to do with the syllabus and the revision before the examination takes place. So, to help you make a headway in your career in the banking sector through SBI Clerk Recruitment, Adda247 is providing you with all the details of SBI Clerk Recruitment Process, 2018.

The SBI Clerk Notification, 2016 was announced in the month of April in the year, 2016, so, one can expect the SBI Clerk Notification, 2018 to be out soon. From 2012 onwards, a trend has been observed in the release of the notification of SBI Clerk with SBI releasing the vacancies for the posts in the alternative years. So, we can expect the notification of SBI Clerk Recruitment to be out in the year 2018.

## SBI Clerk 2018 Vacancies

The number of vacancies announced in the year 2016 was more than 1500. The number of vacancies in SBI Clerk Recruitment, 2018 too will be out as soon as the official notification for the recruitment process is released.

## SBI Clerk Selection Procedure

Usually, SBI conducts the examination in two phases in order to carry out the complete recruitment process. The three steps that SBI follows for the recruitment are as follows:

1. Online Preliminary Examination (Objective Test).

2. Online Mains Examination (Objective Test).

The marks obtained in the Preliminary Examination (Phase-I) are not added for the selection and only the marks obtained in Main Examination (Phase-II) are added for the preparation of the final merit list. Final selection will be made on the basis of candidate’s performance in the main examination.

## SBI Clerk Eligibility Criteria, 2018

The Eligibility Criteria for the SBI Clerk 2016 Recruitment Process was as follows:

Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Those who were in the final Semester/ year of Graduation could also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview/joining, they had to produce proof of having passed the Graduation Examination on or before 30.06.2016. Candidates having integrated dual degree (IDD) certificate had to ensure that the date of passing the IDD was on or before 30.06.2016.
2. Age Limit:
Not below 20 years and not above 28 years.

One can expect the Eligibility Criteria for the Recruitment of SBI Clerk 2018 to be similar to that of 2016’s with a few changes.

## SBI Clerk 2018 Examination Pattern

The SBI Clerk Examination Pattern keeps on changing and the pattern of 2018 examination too will be out as soon as the notification is out. Here is the pattern of the last examination of SBI Clerk Examination.

Phase-IPreliminary Examination

Preliminary Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 100 marks is conducted online. This test is of 1-hour duration consisting of 3 Sections as follows:

S.No.Name of Tests(Objective)No. of QuestionsMaximum MarksDuration
1English Language3030Composite time of 1 Hour
2Numerical Ability3535
3Reasoning Ability3535
Total100100

Candidates have to qualify in each of the three tests by securing passing marks to be decided by the Bank.

Phase – IIMain Examination

The structure of main examination (online objective type) would be as follows:

Sr.No.Name of the TestNo. of QuestionsMaximum MarksDuration
1Reasoning and Computer Aptitude506045 minutes
2English Language404035 minutes
3Quantitative Aptitude505045 minutes
4General Awareness(with special reference to Banking Industry)505035 minutes
Total1902002Hours 40 minutes

Each test will have separate timing as mentioned above. The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi. The candidates are required to qualify in each of the Tests by securing passing marks, to be decided by the Bank. There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests. Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests.

A Penalty for Wrong Answers (Applicable to both – Preliminary and Main examination): There will be a penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one-fourth of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

## SBI Clerk Syllabus, 2018

S. No.SubjectSyllabus
1.English LanguageReading comprehension, Cloze test, Double fillers/ sentence/ multiple sentence fillers , Sentence correction/ improvement, Vocabulary based questions, Odd one out cum para jumbles, Paragraph Based Questions (Paragraph 1, 2, 3…, Paragraph Fillers, Paragraph Conclusion, Paragraph /Sentences Restatement).
2.Reasoning and Computer AptitudePuzzles & Seating Arrangements, Direction Sense, Blood, Relation, Syllogism, Order and Ranking, Coding-Decoding, Machine Input-Output, Inequalities, Alpha-Numeric-Symbol, Series, Data Sufficiency, Logical Reasoning (Passage Inference, Statement and Assumption, Conclusion, Argument), History and Generation of Computers, Introduction to Computer Organisation, Computer Memory, Computer Hardware and I/O Devices, Computer Software, Computer Languages, Operating System, Computer Network, Internet, MS Office Suit and Short cut keys, Basics of DBMS, Number System and Conversions, Computer and Network Security.
3.Quantitative AptitudeData Interpretation (Bar Graph, Line Chart, Tabular, Caselet, Radar/Web, Pie Chart), Inequalities (Quadratic Equations, Quantity 1, Quantity 2), Number Series, Approximation and Simplification, Data Sufficiency, Miscellaneous Arithmetic Problems (HCF and LCM, Profit and Loss, SI & CI, Problem on Ages, Work and Time, Speed Distance and Time, Probability, Mensuration, Permutation and Combination, Average, Ratio and Proportion, Partnership, Problems on Boats and Stream, Problems on Trains, Mixture and Allegation, Pipes and Cisterns).
4.General Awareness (with special reference to Banking Industry)Banking and Insurance Awareness, Financial Awareness, Govt. Schemes and Policies, Current Affairs, Static Awareness.

## SBI Clerk Application Fees

1. 1. Rs. 100 for SC/ ST/ PWD Candidates.
2. 2. Rs. 600 for all others.

## SBI Clerk Admit Card/ Call letter

The Admit Cards for Prelims and Mains Exam will be released 15 days before the date of conduction of examination.

## SBI Clerk Result, 2018

The results of SBI Clerk Prelims and Mains Exam will be released 15-20 days post the conduction of examination.

After the result of IBPS PO Mains has been announced, the qualified candidates were eagerly waiting for the next phase’s call letter. IBPS has activated the download link for IBPS PO Interview Call Letter. You can download your IBPS PO Interview Admit Card Now.
IBPS PO Mains examination was held on 26th November 2017, and it tested every candidate’s ability to perform under pressure to the best. Now its time for candidates to appear for the final stage: IBPS PO Interview 2017

Any eligible candidate, who wants to join any of the Organizations/Institutions as a Clerical staff or in a similar post in that cadre, is required to register for the COMMON CLERK EXAM. The examination will be conducted in online computer based mode.

Pay Scale: Minimum gross emoluments will be between Rs. 18000 – Rs. 25000 depending upon the place of posting in various cities across India.

ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:

Nationality / Citizenship: A candidate must be a Citizen of India.

Age (As on 01.08.2017): Minimum: 18 years Maximum: 35 years

Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) bank has released the result for the Recruitment of PGDBF.  IDBI Bank has entered into a MoU with Manipal Global Education Services Private Limited (MGES), Bengaluru to provide training in Banking and Finance to prospective candidates aspiring to join IDBI Bank as Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’. This exam was held on 3rd Feb 2017. The candidates who have appeared in IDBI PGDBF (PO) Exam can download the result from the link provided below. This is the list of the candidates got shortlisted for the Interview

IDBI Bank had invited applications from young, dynamic graduates for admissions in Manipal School of Banking, Bengaluru for 1 year Post Graduate Diploma in Banking and Finance (PGDBF) comprising of 9 months of classroom studies at MGES Bengaluru and 3 months internship at IDBI Bank’s branches.

Directions (1-5): Rearrange the following Six sentence (A), (B), (C), (D),(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.

A. In the present time, due to lack of such vast spiritual knowledge, controlling psychology is almost absent. Even in Mahabharata war, it was misused due to defective psychology.

B. The same energy was also used as atom bomb in ancient India, which was called as Brahmaastra.

C. Energy, in the form of electricity, was used in ancient India, which was called as vaidyutaagni.

D. Similarly, whether the computer is used for spiritual work or at least for the development of technology in the worldly benefits of humanity or whether the computer is used for doing cyber crimes or used in useless entertainments, it depends upon the attitudes and psychology of human beings in the absence of lack of stress on the spiritual knowledge in the present system of education. Hence, God is used as a vehicle only.

E. In the Mahabharata war, the atom bomb (Brahmaastra) was used and its full description along with all the posterior effects (as observed in Hiroshima) were clearly explained.

F. In that ancient time, when this weapon was given to disciples, several controlling instructions were given side by side.Due to the background of vast spiritual knowledge, this weapon was almost out of use.

Q1. If A is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q2.  If A is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) F
(d) D
(e) C

Q3.  If A is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B

Q4.  If A is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Last sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) B
(d) E
(e) A

Q5.  If A is the FIFTH sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) E
(d) A
(e) B

S1. Ans.(c)
Sol.The correct sequence is CBEFAD. Statement C is the initiating sentence of the paragraph. It starts the paragraph with role and usage of “Energy” in ancient India.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol.The correct sequence is CBEFAD. Statement E logically follows B.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct sequence is CBEFAD.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol.The correct sequence is CBEFAD. Statement D is the concluding sentence of the paragraph as it beautifully makes the transition from the different roles of energy in past to present.

S5. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct sequence is CBEFAD. Statement B logically follows C and explains how this energy was used atom bomb in ancient India.

Directions (6-10): Rearrange the following Six sentence (A), (B), (C), (D),(E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.

A. However, these achievements come with a problem: innovation in technology, enhanced connectivity, and increasing integration in commerce and governance also make India the fifth most vulnerable country in the world in terms of cybersecurity breaches, according to the Internal Security Threat Report of 2017 by Symantec.

B. Till June 2017, 27,482 cybersecurity threats had been reported in the country, according to the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team’s report. As this is a 23% increase from 2014 figures, it coincides with rapid growth and innovation in the ICT sector.

C. The good news, though, is that India recognises this. The second Global Cybersecurity Index, released by the International Telecommunication Union in July, which measured the commitment of nations to cybersecurity, found that India ranked 23 out of 165 nations.

D. Pioneering and technology-inspired programmes such as Aadhaar, MyGov, Government e-Market, DigiLocker, Bharat Net, Startup India, Skill India and Smart Cities are propelling India towards technological competence and transformation.

E. India is one of the key players in the digital and knowledge-based economy, holding more than a 50% share of the world’s outsourcing market.

F. India is already the third largest hub for technology-driven startups in the world and its Information and Communications Technology sector is estimated to reach the $225 billion landmark by 2020. Q6. If E is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Last sentence after rearrangement? (a) F (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) A Q7. If E is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement? (a) B (b) A (c) F (d) D (e) C Q8. If E is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement? (a) F (b) A (c) D (d) C (e) B Q9. If E is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement? (a) C (b) D (c) B (d) F (e) A Q10. If E is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph, which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement? (a) D (b) C (c) F (d) A (e) B S6. Ans.(c) Sol. The correct sequence is EDFABC. Statement C logically concludes the paragraph. S7. Ans.(C) Sol. The correct sequence is EDFABC. S8. Ans.(b) Sol. The correct sequence is EDFABC. Statement A is the Fourth sentence of the paragraph. and introduces transition in the discussion. It shows problems that India faces with its technological transformations. S9. Ans.(c) Sol. The correct sequence is EDFABC. Statement B explains A and supports it with facts and figures. S10. Ans.(a) Sol. The correct sequence is EDFABC. D logically follows E and explains steps taken by India technological competence and transformation. Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following Five sentence (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph. A. The PES and RTE do have problems, and they need to be fixed; we need to find a way to make the system deliver in terms of better learning outcomes. B. The Right to Education Act (RTE) was designed to improve this system. C. However, all the attacks which arise from private schools, their supporters and the privatisation lobby are unjustified; and the solutions that are being aggressively pushed will lead us further into the morass. D. Therefore, it is natural that the RTE will also come under fire from the same quarters that have been attacking the PES. E. The public education system (PES) has for long been under fire. It is being painted as non-functioning, wasteful and un-improvable. Q11. Which of the following should be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E Q12. Which of the following should be the Fifth sentence after rearrangement? (a) B (b) E (c) A (d) D (e) C Q13. Which of the following should be the First sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) E (c) D (d) C (e) B Q14. Which of the following should be the Second sentence after rearrangement? (a) C (b) D (c) B (d) E (e) A Q15. Which of the following should be the Third sentence after rearrangement? (a) D (b) C (c) E (d) A (e) B S11. Ans.(a) Sol. The correct sequence is EBDAC. S12. Ans.(e) Sol. The correct sequence is EBDAC. S13. Ans.(b) Sol. The correct sequence is EBDAC. S14. Ans.(c) Sol. The correct sequence is EBDAC. S15. Ans.(a) Sol. The correct sequence is EBDAC. Q1. The IV Global Conference on the Sustained Eradication of Child Labour was organized by _______________. Answer: Argentina Q2. President Ram Nath Kovind has recently launched JOHAR scheme entailing the expenditure of Rs 1,500 crore to help tribal and Dalit families double their incomes in four years. What does ‘H’ stands for in JOHAR? Answer: Harnessing Q3. Name the person who has recently inaugurated a three-day AP AgTech Summit-2017 in the coastal city Visakhapatnam. Answer: Vice president M Venkaiah Naidu Q4. In which city the Two-day “12th North-East Business Summit” was inaugurated? Answer: New Delhi Q5. What is the capital of Indonesia? Answer: Jakarta Q6. In the recently concluded 48th Edition of International Film Festival of India who was honoured with the prestigious ‘Indian film personality of the year’ Award? Answer: Amitabh Bachchan Q7. Five Russian competitors from the 2014 Sochi Winter Olympics, including two gold medallists, have been banned for life over anti-doping rule violations by International Olympic Committee (IOC).Where is the 2020 Summer Olympics going to be held? Answer: Tokyo Q8. Jet Airways and _______________ announced a partnership to route more traffic through Europe and on to North America. Answer: Air France-KLM Q9. The Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley formally launched a new payments bank. Which is the fourth payment bank to be launched? Answer: Paytm Payments Banks Q10. The largest dollar denominated bitcoin exchange ____________________ gave the latest price of Bitcoin as$10,052 in Asia bringing its rise for the year to date to more than 900 per cent.

Q11. The government represented by Senior level government officials, at the rank of Additional Secretary and Joint Secretary, nominated as ‘Prabhari’ officers has embarked upon a major policy initiative for the rapid transformation of how many backward districts across the country by 2022.

Q12. In which city, The iconic third Trump Tower comprising 140 ultra-luxury apartments has been launched whereby its Indian developers are expecting to garner around Rs 700 crore in sales from the project?

Q13. Indian online payments firm BillDesk-owned Hatio Innovations has launched cryptocurrency exchange in India offering trading of Bitcoin and Bitcoin Cash.What is the name of the exchange?

Q14. What is the tagline of Bank of Baroda?

Q15. Union Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has been elected as President of the IDSA, set up in 1965 by the Ministry of Defence. What does ‘A’ stand for in IDSA?

# Happy New Year!!!

Dear students, a new, fresh and beautiful year is upon all of us once again.

It’s yet another year to start afresh with everything that couldn’t come up roses in the year gone by.  We just need to be positive and work harder this year towards the goals you set for ourselves.
Do not sit brooding about what could have been achieved in the previous year, try focusing on what can be achieved this year.
Our goals might seem huge and difficult to be achieved but we do not have to let this thought get us distracted from the path we are on. We might face hurdles while taking steps in the right and positive directions, but have to fight the uphill battle so as to get it made. And every time we reach a milestone, we have to acknowledge our accomplishments in a positive way. Celebrating our achievement will keep us focused on the larger goal.
Happy New Year!!!

# IBPS SO 2017 Prelims Exam Analysis: 30th Dec (Shift-1)

The first shift for IBPS SO Prelims 2017 is over, now it’s time for exam analysis of IBPS SO Prelims for IT Officer, Marketing, HR and Agriculture Officer (1st Shift). This is for the first time when IBPS has conducted a Preliminary Test for IBPS SO Recruitment. And this Preliminary Exam had a new pattern when compared to conventional Banking Recruitment’s Prelims Test; IBPS SO Prelims was of 2 hours with 150 questions for 125 marks. This new pattern gave heebie jeebies to many Specialist Officer aspirants.

As IBPS SO Prelims is over, this review can help SO Aspirants (of Law and Rajbhasha Adhikari) to get an idea of what the can expect in tomorrow’s IBPS SO Preliminary Exam. Overall the level of this exam was Moderate. Keep on reading to know all the details about types of questions asked in Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning and English Language of IBPS SO Prelims

The preliminary exam for IBPS SO was conducted online and had 150 questions for 120 minutes. Candidates have to manage those 120 minutes themselves while dealing with three sections- Reasoning (50 Ques), Quantitative Aptitude (50 Ques), and English (50 Ques).

SubjectGood Attempt (IT Officer)
English Language26-28
Reasoning Ability38
Quantitative Aptitude32-35
Total 96-103 for IT Officer
91-100 for (HR/Agriculture/Marketing)

English Language (Moderate)

The level of English Language was Moderate. Much to the surprise and relief to students this section was not too over the board, with the recently set “conventional pattern” questions ruling the majority; aspirants who have done adequate practice can score in the English Language section of this exam. There were 2 sets of Reading Comprehension (which did not include question based on vocabulary) and the topics of RCs were – 1) Based on Bitcoin-Cryptocurrency, 2) Related to Driver less Cars.
This exam also added another new type of Word Usage questions and this time it was clubbed with the cloze test’s concept. Where a number was assigned to (at the beginning of) various lines in a passage and 3-4 words were marked as bold. Candidates had to identify the one which doesn’t fit in the context or is probably misspelled. The passage of this question set was based on technology.

TopicsNo. of QuestionsLevel
Fillers (Single blank)5Easy-Moderate
Phrase Replacement5Moderate
Cloze Test (New Pattern)10Moderate
Error Detection5Moderate
Sentence Rearrangement5Moderate
Total50Moderate

Quantitative Aptitude ( Easy-Moderate)

The level of quantitative aptitude section was Easy-Moderate. If you are yet to appear for IBPS SO Prelims exam (tomorrow), The first and most basic tip to help you clear quantitative aptitude section’s cut off is that you should work on your calculation speed. There were 3 sets of DI and a Caselet:

• Tabular
•  Pie Chart
• Line Graph
• Caselet
TopicsNo. of QuestionLevel
Number Series (Missing)5Moderate
Approximation5Easy
Data Interpretation20Moderate
Inequality5Easy
Miscellaneous- Arithmetic Word Problems (Average, Mixture and Allegation, CP and SP, Profit and Loss, Partnership etc.)15Easy-Moderate
Total50Easy-Moderate

Reasoning Ability (Easy-Moderate)

There were 5 puzzles and Seating Arrangement which are given below:-

• Circular (2 Variables)
• Stack Arrangement (1 Variable)
• Floor Based (2 Variables)
• Month Based (2 Variables)
• Linear
 Topics No. of Questions Level Syllogism 5 Easy-Moderate Puzzles and Seating Arrangement 25 Moderate Direction Sense 2 Easy Coding Decoding 2 Easy-Moderate Inequality 5 Easy Alphabet 1 Easy Data Sufficiency 5 Easy-Moderate Logical Reasoning 5 Moderate Total 50 Easy-Moderate

All the best for next shift !!

# DDA ASO Result 2017 | Check Your Result Here

Delhi Development Authority has released the result of various categories of posts

The Delhi Development Authority had conducted exanimation for recruitment to various categories of posts from 18.09.2017 to 27.09.2017 in computer-based mode at various centres. 59,404 candidates appeared in the said examination.

The Stage II examination for the post of Assistant Section Officer, Junior Translator(OL), Patwari and Skill test for the post Stenographer Grade D is expected to be held very shortly. The Admission Certificate of the shortlisted candidates will be uploaded on the websites of the Delhi Development Authority approximately 15 days before the conduct of the Stage-II examination.

## Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti Recruitment 2017:

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) is an Autonomous Organisation under Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education and Literacy, Govt. of India invites online applications from Indianapolis citizens for recruitment to various non-teaching posts viz Lower Division Clerk(LDC), Lab Attendant, Hindi Translator, etc.

In reference to Samiti’s recruitment advertisement for the various non teaching posts published in the Employment News dated 11-17 November, 2017, the schedule for online examination (Computer Based Test) is given below for information to the candidates concerned:

Date – 12.01.2018 (Friday)

Session 1 (9.00 A.M. to 11.30 A.M.) —  Laboratory Attendant

Session 2 (2.00 P.M. to 4.30 P.M.) — Female Staff Nurse and Audit Assistant

Date – 13.01.2018 (Saturday)

Session 1 (9.00 A.M. to 11.30 A.M.) —  Lower Division Clerk / Store Keeper and Hindi Translator

Session 2 (2.00 P.M. to 4.30 P.M.) — Lower Division Clerk / Store Keeper

Date – 14.01.2018 (Sunday)

Session 1 (9.00 A.M. to 11.30 A.M.) —  Stenographer

Session 2 (2.00 P.M. to 4.30 P.M.) — Catering Assistant

Total Number Of Vacancy: 683

PostNo. Of Vacancy
UROBCSCSTTotal
Audit Assistant0102000003
Hindi Translator0401000005
Stenographer0104010006
Lower Division Clerk0701010110
LDC / Storekeeper241706168440
Lab Attendant3918081277
Catering Assistant2618120561
Female Staff Nurse3724120881

Description of Age Limit and pay scale are given below for the following posts:-

PostAge LimitPay Scale
Minimum AgeMaximum Age
Audit Assistant18309300-34800 (GP 4200) Level 6
Hindi Translator18309300-34800 (GP 4200) Level 6
Stenographer18275200-20200 (GP 2400) Level 4
Lower Division Clerk18275200-20200 (GP 1900)
LDC / Storekeeper18275200-20200 (GP 1900)
Lab Attendant18305200-20200 (GP 1800) Level 1
Catering Assistant355200-20200 (GP 2400) Level 4
Female Staff Nurse359300-34800 (GP 4200) Level 7

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti 2017 Exam Pattern:

Audit Assistant Exam Pattern:

Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Hindi and English (15 marks each)30150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning/ Arithmetic30
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge20
Total100
Hindi Translator Exam Pattern:
Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Translation English to Hindi30150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning/ Arithmetic30
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge20
Total100
Stenographer Exam Pattern:
Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Hindi and English (15 marks each)30150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning/ Arithmetic30
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge20
Total100
Staff Nurse Exam Pattern:
Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Hindi and English (10 marks each)20150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning20
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge40
Total100

Catering Exam Pattern:

Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Hindi and English (10 marks each)20150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning20
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge40
Total100
Lower Division Clerk/ Storekeeper Exam Pattern:
Component Of TestMarksDuration
1.Hindi and English (10 marks each)20150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.Mental Ability/ Reasoning20
3.General Awareness & Current Affairs20
4.Subject Knowledge20
5.Arithmetical Ability20
Total100

Lab Assistant Exam Pattern:

Component Of Test
Marks
Duration
1.
Hindi and English (10 marks each)
20
150 minutes
(Two and
Half hours)
2.
Mental Ability/ Reasoning/ Arithmetic
30
3.
General Awareness & Current Affairs
20
4.
Subject Knowledge
30
Total
100
• There will be no negative marking.
• Test Paper will be bilingual: Hindi & English.

Application Fee:

• Staff Nurse, Audit Assistant, Hindi Translator: Rs.1000/-
• Catering Assistant, Stenographer: Rs. 750/-
• Lower Division Clerk/ Storekeeper: Rs. 750/-
• Lab Attendant: Rs. 750/-