Archive for the ‘Quiz’ Category

Q1. ___________ is a computerized machine that provides the customers of banks the facility of accessing their account for dispensing cash and to carry out other financial & non-financial transactions without the need to actually visit their bank branch.

(a) Financial Fund
(b) Core Sector
(c) Online Banking
(d) ATM
(e) Net Banking

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. Automated Teller Machine (ATM) is a computerized machine that provides the customers of banks the facility of accessing their account for dispensing cash and to carry out other financial & non-financial transactions without the need to actually visit their bank branch.

Q2. PIN is the numeric password which is separately mailed/handed over to the customer by the bank while issuing the card. PIN stands for-
(a) Personal Identification Number
(b) Product Identification Number
(c) Payment Identification Number
(d) Permanent Identification Number
(e) Percent Identification Number

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. Personal Identification Number (PIN) is the numeric password which is separately mailed/handed over to the customer by the bank while issuing the card. Most banks require the customers to change the PIN on the first use. Customer should not disclose PIN to anybody, including to bank officials. Customers should change the PIN at regular intervals.

Q3. What is the meaning of “T” in ATM?
(a) Time
(b) Trade
(c) Teller
(d) Timing
(e) Treat

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. ATM stands for- Automated Teller Machine.

Q4. What are White Label ATMs (WLAs)?
(a) Owned and operated by non-banks
(b) ATM operators are authorized under Payment & Settlement Systems Act, 2007
(c) WLAs may offer many other services/facilities to bank customers
(d) All of the above
(e) Owned and operated by PSBs

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. All of the given options are properties of White Label ATMs (WLAs) except Owned and operated by PSBs.

Q5. LTV ratio is a financial term used by lenders to express the ratio of a loan to the value of an asset purchased. LTV stands for-
(a) Loan-To-Vehicles
(b) Loan-To-Value
(c) Loan-To-Van
(d) Lease-To-Value
(e) List-To-Value

S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. The loan-to-value (LTV) ratio is a financial term used by lenders to express the ratio of a loan to the value of an asset purchased.

Q6. How many remittances can be received by a single individual beneficiary under the MTSS during a calendar year?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60
(e) 70

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. thirty remittances can be received by a single individual beneficiary under the MTSS during a calendar year.

Q7. MTSS stands for-
(a) Money Transfer Service Send
(b) Money Transfer Service Scheme
(c) Money Transfer Service Solutions
(d) Money Transfer System Scheme
(e) Money Transaction Service Scheme

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. MTSS stands for Money Transfer Service Scheme.

Q8. What is the full form of AEPS?
(a) AADHAR Enabled Payment Service
(b) AADHAR Enabled Payment Scheme
(c) AADHAR Enabled Payment System
(d) AADHAR Enabled Payment Solution
(e) AADHAR Enabled Product System

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. AEPS stands for AADHAR Enabled Payment System.

Q9. Nepal Remittance Scheme is a cross-border one-way remittance facility scheme for remittance from India to Nepal, enabled under the NEFT Scheme. A remitter can transfer funds up to Indian Rupees ______ (maximum permissible amount) from any of the NEFT-enabled branches in India.
(a) Rs 2,00,000
(b) Rs 1,00,000
(c) Rs 1,50,000
(d) Rs 50,000
(e) Rs 2,50,000

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility is a cross-border remittance scheme to transfer funds from India to Nepal, enabled under the NEFT Scheme. The scheme was launched to provide a safe and cost-efficient avenue to migrant Nepalese workers in India to remit money back to their families in Nepal. A remitter can transfer funds up to Indian Rupees 50,000 (maximum permissible amount) from any of the NEFT-enabled branches in India. The beneficiary would receive funds in Nepalese Rupees.

Q10. An originator in India is allowed to remit a maximum of ______ remittances in a year under the Nepal Remittance Scheme.
(a) 42
(b) 10
(c) 24
(d) 18
(e) 12

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. An originator in India is allowed to remit a maximum of 12 remittances in a year under the Nepal Remittance Scheme.

Q11. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is to launch a financial literacy drive in 80 blocks in nine states on the pilot basis to educate people on e-transactions, formal sector borrowings and insurance purchases. What is the aim of this drive? 
(a) To inculcate the habit of making a household budget and recording financial transactions
(b) Encourage transactions in savings accounts
(c) Active saving by depositing in banks through fixed deposits and recurring deposits
(d) All of the above is the aim of this drive
(e) Refers to the efficient and effective management of money (funds) in such a manner as to accomplish the objectives

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is to launch a financial literacy drive in 80 blocks in nine states on the pilot basis to educate people on e-transactions, formal sector borrowings and insurance purchases. The pilot project, according to RBI will be commissioned in the 9 states of Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh by the 6 NGOs in collaboration with the sponsor Banks. The aim of this drive is to inculcate the habit of making a household budget and recording financial transactions, encourage transactions in savings accounts, and active saving by depositing in banks through fixed deposits and recurring deposits.

Q12. Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) Account is an individual of the Age of ________ or more may open the account.
(a) 60 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 70 years
(d) 50 years
(e) 65 years

S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Senior Citizen Savings Scheme (SCSS) Account- An individual of the Age of 60 years or more may open the account.

Q13. In the Fifth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement 2017-18, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has decided to keep the policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) unchanged at-? 
(a) 5.50 percent
(b) 5.75 percent
(c) 6.25 percent
(d) 6.50 percent
(e) 6.00 percen
S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. On the basis of an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation at its meeting, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to keep the policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) unchanged at 6.0 per cent in the Fifth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement 2017-18.

Q14. RBI has notified that P2P lending platforms need to be regulated and treated on par with Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). P2P stands for-
(a) Product-to-Product
(b) Peer-to-Peer
(c) Person-to-Person
(d) Primary-to-Primary
(e) Priority-to-Priority

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. After a year or more of due-diligence, the RBI has notified that peer-to-peer (P2P) lending platforms need to be regulated and treated on par with non-banking financial companies (NBFCs). The final regulatory framework for P2P lenders is still awaited. Few important P2P lending platforms in India are LenDen Club, Faircent, Qbera, Lendbox, Rupaiya Exchange and Monexo.

Q15. Which among the following organisation has allowed Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) to raise capital by issuing debt securities?
(a) SIDBI
(b) IRDAI
(c) SEBI
(d) NABARD

(e) RBI

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) allowed Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) to raise capital by issuing debt securities. The move will help attract investors to the capital-starved property sector. In addition to allowing bond issuances, SEBI also introduced the concept of strategic investor for REITs, similar to InvITs.
Directions (1-5): Study the information and answer the following questions:
In a certain code language 
” you had leave India ” is coded as ” L2%   Z19%   V15%   M18% “
” one hand press your ” is coded as ” M12%   Z19*   I11%   L2*”
” should come for event ” is coded as ” S8*  L24*   L21%  E22% “
Q1.What is the code for ‘enhance’ in the given code language?
(a) N22%
(b) M2%
(c) M22*
(d) M22%
(e)None of these
Q2.What is the code for ‘former’ in the given code language?
(a) L21*
(b) M21*
(c) L2*
(d) L21%
(e)None of these
Q3.What is the code for ‘country’ in the given code language?
(a) M24%
(b) K24%
(c) L24%
(d) J24%
(e)None of these
Q4.What is the code for ‘introduce’ in the given code language?
(a) M18*
(b) N18%
(c) M1%
(d) M18%
(e)None of these
Q5.What is the code for ‘arrived’ in the given code language?
(a) J26%
(b) I2%
(c) I26%
(d) K26%
(e)None of these
Solutions (1-5):
These are the latest pattern of coding-decoding questions. In these questions we are applying following concept:-
S1. Ans.(d)
Sol.  
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. 
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol.  
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol.  
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. 
Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 
Eight people J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are member of family. Among them four are males and four are females. There are three husbands, three wives, two daughters, and two sons in the family. Each member of the family likes different sweet i.e. Barfi, Peda, Halva, Ladoo, Jalebi, Imarti, Tilpatti and Petha. They all are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
No male like Halva. Q likes Jalebi and married to the one who like Imarti. J is father of L and O, who is a male and likes Imarti. J and K cannot sit adjacent to each other. All females sit together. M likes Petha and is sitting second to the left of her father. M is daughter of L, who is second to the right of her son. The one who like Tilpatti is married to the one who like Ladoo and neither J nor K likes Ladoo. N likes Halva and is sitting between the one who like Peda and the one who like Tilpatti. P is father of K and is sitting between two male members.
Q6. How is O related to K?
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Maternal Uncle
(d) Grandfather
(e) None of these
Q7. J likes which of the following sweet?
(a) Petha
(b) Imarti
(c) Peda
(d) Barfi
(e) None of these
Q8. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 
(a) P – Ladoo
(b) K – Peda
(c) N – Halva
(d) J – Tilpatti
(e) None of these
Q9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? 
(a) Halva
(b) Tilpatti
(c) Jalebi
(d) Peda
(e) Petha
Q10. Who like Ladoo? 
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) P
(e) None of these
Directions (6-10):
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol.                        
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol.                        
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol.                        
S9. Ans.(d)
Sol.                        
S10. Ans.(d)
Sol.                        
Directions (11-15): In each of the questions below are given four statements (a), (b), (c) and (d) followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I follows.
(b) if only conclusion II follows.
(c) if either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) if both conclusion I and II follow.
Q11. Statements:
a. All flowers are buses.
b. Some buses are cats.
c. All cats are tigers.
Conclusions:
I. Some tigers are buses.
II. Some tigers are flowers.
III. Some cats are flowers.
IV. Some buses are tigers.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only III and IV follow
(d) Only I and IV follow
(e) Only II and III follow
Q12. Statements:
a. All fans are rooms.
b. No room is green.
c. Some windows are green.
Conclusions:
I. Some windows are fans.
II. Some windows are rooms.
III. Some fans are green.
IV. No green is fan.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Only IV follows
(d) Only II and IV follow
(e) All follow
Q13. Statements:
a. Some tablets are rains.
b. All dogs are rains.
c. All rains are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are tablets.
II. All dogs are chairs.
III. Some tablets are dogs.
IV. Some tablets are chairs.
(a) All follow
(b) Only I, II and III follow
(c) Only II, III and IV follow
(d) Only III and IV follow
(e) None of these
Q14. Statements:
a. No man is sky.
b. No sky is road.
c. Some men are roads.
Conclusions:
I. No road is man.
II. No road is sky.
III. Some skies are men.
IV. All roads are men.
(a) None follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only II and III follow
(e) None of these
Q15. Statements:
a. Some candles are houses.
b. Some houses are trains.
c. Some trains are roads.
Conclusions:
I. Some roads are candles.
II. Some trains are candles.
III. Some roads are houses.
IV. Some candles are roads.
(a) None follows
(b) All follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only II and III follow
(e) Only III and IV follow
Solution(11-15):
S11. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S12. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S13. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S14. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S15. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given question. 
In a certain code, 
“her idea has merit” is written as “fo la bu na”,
“merit list has been displayed” is written as “jo ke la si na”,
“her name displayed there” is written as “ya si bu zo” and
“name in merit list” is written as “na ya go ke”.
Q1. What does “ke” stand for ? 
(a) been
(b) has
(c) merit
(d) name
(e) list
Q2. What is the code for “idea” ? 
(a) fo
(b) la
(c) bu
(d) na `
(e) Either bu or na
Q3. Which of the following represents ‘name has been displayed’ ? 
(a) ya la ke si
(b) jo si ya la
(c) si jo ke na
(d) bu ya ke la
(e) ya si jo zo
Q4. What does “zo” stand for ? 
(a) there
(b) displayed
(c) name
(d) her
(e) cannot be determined
Q5. Which of the following may represent ‘her name is there’ ? 
(a) zo ya go wo
(b) bu ya zo go
(c) zo ya bu ke
(d) ya zo wo bu
(e) wo go zo ya
Solution(1-5):
S1. Ans.(e )
Sol.
S2. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S3. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S4. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine teachers A , B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are living in a same building of nine floor counting from one to nine. Ground floor is numbered 1 and so on . They all teach different subjects i.e Reasoning, Maths, Computer, English, Current Affairs, Hindi, Banking, Geography, and History but not necessarily in the same order. There are three floors between A and I, who teaches Current Affairs . A lives one of the above floor on which I lives. H teaches Computer and he lives immediately above the floor on which A lives. There is only one floor between H and G, who teaches English . F teaches Maths and he lives below the floor on which G lives. F does not live on even number floor. There is only two floors between F and E, who teaches Reasoning . B teaches Geography and lives below the floor on which F lives. B lives on even number floor. There are as many as floor between B and one, who teaches Hindi and as between A and C . A does not teach Banking . I does not live on second floor. A lives on even numbered floor.
Q6.How many teachers are living below the floor on which the teacher who teaches Banking?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) No one.
(d) One
(e) Five
Q7. D lives on which of the following floor?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth
Q8. H is related to English and C is related to Maths, in the same way F is related to?
(a) Banking
(b) Geography
(c) Current Affairs
(d) Hindi
(e) None of these
Q9. Who among following lives on seventh floor?
(a) G
(b) H
(c) E
(d) A
(e) C
Q10. How many floors are there between the E and the floor on which F lives?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
(e) None of these
Solution (6-10):
S6. Ans. (c)
Sol. 
S7. Ans. (a)
Sol. 
S8. Ans. (a)
Sol. 
S9. Ans. (a)
Sol.
S10. Ans. (a)
Sol. 
Directions (11-15): In these questions, symbols @, #, %, $ and * are used with different meanings as follows: 
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
Q11.Statements: J # H, H * T, T $ R, R % F
Conclusions:
I. J # R
II. R # F
III. J # T
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only I and II are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these
Q12.Statements: E $ P, P % H, H @ I, I # K
Conclusions:
I. P * I
II. I % E
III. H % K
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) Only I and II are true
(e) None is true
Q13.Statements: L @ K, K # R, R $ H, H % N
Conclusions:
I. L # R
II. N # R
III. L * N
(a) Only I and II are true
(b) Only either I or II is true
(c) Only II and III are true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of these
Q14.Statements: T $ V, V % K, K * L, L % H
Conclusions:
I. V % H
II. T $ L
III. T $ H
(a) Only I and II are true
(b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only I and III are true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these
Q15.Statements: V @ W, W # D, D $ M, M % F
Conclusions:
I. V # D
II. F # D
III. V * F
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only either I or II is true
(d) Both I and II are true
(e) None of these
Solution(11-15):
S11. Ans.( c)
Sol.Conclusions
I. J # R ( Not True )
II. R # F ( Not True )
III. J # T (  True )
S12. Ans.(e )
Sol.Conclusions
I.  P * I ( Not True )
II. I % E  ( Not True )
III. H % K  ( Not True )
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol.Conclusions
I.  L # R (  True )
II. N # R  (  True )
III. L * N  ( Not True )
S14. Ans.(d)
Sol.Conclusions:
I. V % H  (  True )
II. T $ L  (  True )
III. T $ H (  True )
S15. Ans.(d)
Sol.Conclusions:
I.  V # D (  True )
II. F # D (  True )
III. V * F ( Not True )

Directions (1-15): In the following question, sentences are given with blanks to be filed in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.

Q1. Many women in developing countries experience a cycle of poor health that __________ before they are born.
(a) originates
(b) derives
(c) begins
(d) establishes
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. Here, begins is the right usage.
Originate: to happen or appear for the first time in a particular place or situation.

Q2. Radium __________ rays that blind the eyes.
(a) gives away
(b) gives over
(c) gives up
(d) gives off
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. give off: to produce something such as a smell, heat, light etc.
give away: to tell information or facts that you should keep secret
give over: to tell somebody to stop doing something
give up: to stop trying to do something.
Hence, ‘gives off’ is the right option.

Q3. The three brothers formed a little __________ within the family.
(a) party
(b) camp
(c) coterie
(d) band
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Coterie: a small group of people who have the same interests and do things together but do not like to include others. Hence, coterie is the right usage.

Q4. She heard the __________ of the hinges.
(a) ratting
(b) rustling
(c) crashing
(d) creaking
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. creaking: a sound that is sometimes made by a door when it opens or shuts.
crashing: a loud noise made by something falling or breaking
rattling: a series of short loud sounds eg. rattling cups and saucers in kitchen.
rustling: soft rustling of leaves.
Hence, creaking is the right usage.

Q5. That car is throwing __________ a lot of smoke.
(a) out
(b) up
(c) away
(d) in
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Throw out: to produce smoke, heat, light etc.
Hence, ‘Throw out’ is the right usage.

Q6. We must __________ help to the people hit by the cyclone.
(a) contribute
(b) summon
(c) impart
(d) render
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. render: to give help to somebody.
Hence, render is the right usage.

Q7. When a person among the audience asked whether it would be October 20, the actor __________ he would decide the year.
(a) commended
(b) quipped
(c) discorded
(d) complimented
S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Quip: to make a clever or witty remark or comment; a sharp, sarcastic remark.

Q8. The centre has its policies for the agriculture sector, under which we provide interest __________ and other support. 
(a) subvention
(b) repudiation
(c) disinclination
(d) alliance
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. Subvention: a grant of money, as by a government or some other authority; in aid or support of some institution or undertaking.

Q9. The company decided to __________ the old policies, in order to increase its revenue.
(a) rope in
(b) tweak
(c) damage
(d) dictate
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. Tweak: A fine adjustment to a mechanism or system.
Rope in: To persuade, entice or enlist someone to do or participate in something.

Q10. New Year’s resolutions typically include the __________ of alcohol.
(a) repudiation
(b) dissuade
(c) exigency
(d) urgency
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Repudiate: Refuse to accept.
Exigency: An urgent need or demand/something that is necessary in a particular situation.

Q11. That author writes with __________ about his experiences.
(a) stupefaction
(b) penury
(c) candour
(d) consortium
S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. Candour: The quality of being open and honest.
Penury: The state of being very poor.
Stupefaction: The state of being stupefied or stunned.

Q12. The police were called to the party when John’s drunken __________ became violent.
(a) caper
(b) appellation
(c) sapience
(d) wisdom
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Caper: An illicit/ridiculous activity or escapade.
Appellation: A name or title.

Q13. In earlier times, Kings used to __________ their Kingdom in disguise.
(a) neglect
(b) stroll
(c) ensue
(d) sculpt
S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. Stroll: walk in a leisurely way.

Q14. The batsman __________ his career in a splendid way.
(a) terse
(b) set off
(c) supersede
(d) set down
S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Set off: Begin a journey.

Q15. That place is an __________ of multicultural Britain.
(a) efface
(b) exemplar
(c) extempore
(d) implicit
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Exemplar: A thing serving as a typical or implicit example; appropriate model.

Q1. Which Act was framed specially to deal with Non-Performing Assets (NPA)?
(a) Banking Regulation Act 1949
(b) Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) 1999
(c) Industrial Disputes Act 1947
(d) SARFAESI Act, 2002
(e) None of the given options is true

Q2. In Notice Money Market, the tenor of the transactions is from ________
(a) 2-7 days
(b) 2-14 days
(c) 2-21 days
(d) 2-28 days
(e) 2-90 days

Q3. An Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) in India is associated with-
(a) UCPDC
(b) DICGC
(c) NPA
(d) Home Loan
(e) None of the given options is true

Q4. Which of the following is mainly used by the banks in order to meet their temporary requirement of Cash on a daily basis?
(a) Commercial Paper
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO)
(d) Call Money
(e) None of the given options is true

Q5. ___________ is a voluntary market body for the bond, money and derivatives markets.
(a) RBI
(b) SEBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) FIMMDA
(e) UIDAI

Q6. Cheque which is truncated during the course of clearing cycle is called __________
(a) Stale Cheque
(b) Mutilated Cheque
(c) Self Cheque
(d) Truncated Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true

Q7. Person named in the instrument to whom or to whose order the money is to be paid is known as-?
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payer
(d) Payee
(e) Receivable

Q8. National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of the central bank (RBI) was established in 1988 under the-
(a) National Housing Bank Act, 1987
(b) National Housing Bank Act, 1988
(c) National Housing Bank Act, 1986
(d) National Housing Bank Act, 1985
(e) None of the given options is true

Q9. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced under __________ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
(a) Section 25A
(b) Section 35A
(c) Section 45A
(d) Section 15A
(e) Section 55A

Q10. National Housing Bank (NHB), is an apex financial institution for housing, having headquarters in-?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad
(e) Kolkata

Q11. ___________ is an electronic fund transfer system that operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis which settles transactions in batches.
(a) NEFT
(b) RTGS
(c) NPCI
(d) BBPS
(e) IMPS

Q12. The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta (now Kolkata) but was permanently moved to Mumbai in-
(a) 1949
(b) 1937
(c) 1943
(d) 1945
(e) 1934

Q13. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under which act?
(a) Companies Act, 1956
(b) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(d) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(e) None of the given options is true

Q14. A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). It is called?
(a) Repo Rate
(b) Reverse Repo Rate
(c) Bank Rate
(d) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
(e) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

Q15. National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up on ______________ under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.
(a) 01st July 1956
(b) 02nd October 1976
(c) 01st January 1934
(d) 21st May 1956
(e) 09th July 1988

Q1. Debt-laden Air India has received a loan worth of Rs ________________ from Bank of India to meet urgent working capital .
Answer: 1500 Cr
Q2. In a shocking revelation, football major_______________ failed to qualify for the FIFA World Cup 2018 for the first time since 1958.
Answer: Italy
Q3. The IBSF World Billiard Championship which saw ace Indian cueist Pankaj Advani clinch his 17th World Title, took place in which city?
Answer: Doha
Q4. The 14 day annual event, 37th India International Trade Fair (IITF) has begun at Pragati Maidan in New Delhi inaugurated by President Ram Nath Kovind.What is the Theme this year?
Answer: Startup India Standup India
Q5. Who chaired the 31st ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) Summit was held in Manila with the theme “Partnering for Change, Engaging the World”? 
Answer: Rodrigo Duterte
Q6. Name the Pakistani bowler who has recently announced his retirement from all forms of cricket.
Answer: Saeed Ajmal
Q7. Which country has approved the practice of yoga as a sports activity?
Answer: Saudi Arabia
Q8. India, the United States, Japan and Australia held their first official-level talks in ______________.
Answer: Manila
Q9. As per a report, in the next decade, India will overtake Japan to become the third-largest economy. The report has been published by _____________.
Answer: Bank of America-Merrill Lynch
Q10. What is the capital of Germany?
Answer: Berlin
Q11. Name the Eminent chartered accountant who has been appointed as the chairman of the leading Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
Answer: Sethurathnam Ravi
Q12. Ministry for Power and New & Renewable Energy has recently launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana – ‘Saubhagya’ Web Portal. Name the present Minister of State (IC) for Power and New & Renewable Energy.
Answer: R.K. Singh
Q13. From which city the Andhra Pradesh Mineral Development Corporation (APMDC) has bagged an International award?
Answer: Abu Dhabi
Q14. National Press Day is celebrated on ______________ to commemorate the establishment of the Press Council of India.
Answer: 16 November
Q15. What is the capital of Tennessee?
Answer: Nashville

Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
I, J, K, L, M, N and O are seven shopkeepers of different shops, viz Grocery, Cosmetics, Clothes, Footwear, Gift items, Watches and Mobile phones. They go to supermarkets, viz. Big Bazaar, Max, Reliance Trends and Easy Day only on Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. At least one shopkeeper goes to one supermarket, but no super market is visited by more than two shopkeepers.
•N, who is a shopkeeper of Clothes, goes alone to Reliance Trends.
•The one who is a shopkeeper of Footwear does not go to Big Bazaar. Also, he never goes either with M or with O.
•L goes to Easy Day with the person who is the shopkeeper of Mobile phones.
•K goes to Max. O is not a shopkeeper of Mobile phones.
•The one who is the shopkeeper of Footwear goes to the market with the person who is the shopkeeper of Grocery.
•The one who is the shopkeeper of Gift items goes to Easy Day.
•I is a shopkeeper of neither Cosmetics nor Mobile phones.
•The one who is the shopkeeper of Watches goes to Big Bazaar neither with M nor with L.
•The person who is the shopkeeper of Cosmetics goes to the supermarket with I.
Q1.I goes which of the following supermarkets?
(a) Easy Day
(b) Max
(c) Big Bazaar
(d) Reliance Trends
(e) None of these
Q2.Which of the following statements is/are not true?
I. L is a shopkeeper of Mobile phones and goes to Easy Day.
II. K is a shopkeeper of Footwear and goes to Big Bazaar
(a) Both I and II
(b) Neither I nor II
(c) Either I or II
 (d) Only I
(e) Only II
Q3.Who among the following is shopkeeper of Gift items? 
(a) J
(b) L
 (c) N
(d)I
(e) None of these
Q4.Which of the following statements is definitely incorrect?
(a) K is a shopkeeper of Footwear.
(b) M is a shopkeeper of Mobile phones.
(c) O is shopkeeper of Grocery.
(d) All are incorrect
(e) None of these
Q5.Big Bazaar is visited by which of the following persons? 
(a) O and M
(b) Only L
(c) I and J
(d) Only N
(e) None of these
Direction (1-5):
S1.Ans.(c)
S2.Ans.(a)
S3.Ans.(b)
S4.Ans.(c)
S5.Ans.(e)
Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. 
In a meeting eight persons P, Q, M, S, T, X, Z and W of different cities are sitting around a circular table facing the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them belongs to different cities i.e. Agra, Lucknow, Jaipur, Delhi, Kolkata, Goa, Chennai and Pune, but not necessarily in the same order.
X sits second to the right of the person from Delhi. Two people sit between the person from Chennai and Q. M and T are immediate neighbours of each other. The person from Chennai is an immediate neighbour of the person from Delhi. The person from Jaipur sits second to the right of S, who belongs to Lucknow. Z and the person from Agra are immediate neighbours of each other. Q is not the person from Agra. Only one person sits between M and S. W sits third to left of the person from Pune. The person from Goa sits second to left of the person of Kolkata. Neither M nor T is an immediate neighbour of either Q or person from Delhi.
Q6.Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
(a) T is an immediate neighbour of the person from Agra.
(b) T is the person from Lucknow.
(c) The person from Agra is an immediate neighbour of X.
(d) The person from Pune sits between X and the person from Goa.
(e) M sits second to the right of S.
Q7.W belongs to which of the following cities?
(a) Agra
(b) Jaipur
(c) Delhi
(d) Kolkata
(e) Pune
Q8.What is the position of the person from Kolkata with respect to the person from Chennai?
(a) Immediately to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Second to the right
Q9.Who sits exactly between the person from Lucknow and M?
(a) W
(b) The person from Jaipur
(c) The person from Goa
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) X
Q10.What is the position of the person from Jaipur when counted anti-clockwise direction from M? 
(a) Immediately to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) None of these
Directions (6-10):
             

                  

S6.Ans.(d)
S7.Ans.(c)
S8.Ans.(b)
S9.Ans.(c)
S10.Ans.(e)
Directions (11-13): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions. 
(i) ‘M $ N’ means’ M is mother of N’.
(ii) ‘M # N’ means’ M is father of N’.
(iii) ‘M @ N’ means’ M is husband of N’.
(iv) ‘M % N’ means ‘M is daughter of N’.
Q11.If [email protected]$M#T, then how is N related to T?
(a) Maternal grandfather
(b) Paternal grandfather
(c) Maternal grandmother
(d) Paternal grandmother
(e) None of these
Q12.Which of the following expressions shows ‘S is the sister of H?
(e) None of these
Q13.If F @ D % K # I, then how is F related to I?
(a) Brother-in-law
(b) Sister
(c) Sister-in-law
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Directions (11-13):
S11.Ans.(b)
Sol.
 
                  
S12.Ans.(c)
Sol.
               
S13.Ans.(a) 
Sol.
Q14.In a class of 36 students P’s rank from the top is 12. Z ranks three places above P. What is Z rank from bottom?
(a) 27
 (b) 28
(c) 26
(d) 29
(e) None of these
S14.Ans.(b)
Sol.
Q15. Ravi started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8 km, he turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest distance now from his house?
(a) 10 km.
(b) 16 km.
(c) 14 km
(d) 2 km.
(e) None of these.
S15.Ans.(a)
Sol.
Q1. ___________ is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. 
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) Finance Ministry
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Monetary policy refers to the policy of the central bank with regard to the use of monetary instruments under its control to achieve the goals specified in the Act. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. This responsibility is explicitly mandated under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Q2. In which year the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework?
(a) May 2013
(b) May 2014
(c) May 2015
(d) May 2016
(e) May 2012
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. The primary objective of monetary policy is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. Price stability is a necessary precondition to sustainable growth. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
Q3. Which scheme/act has enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks?
(a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Securitization Act 2002
(d) FEMA
(e) Banking Ombudsman Scheme
S3. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
Q4. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced by RBI with effect from-
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 1990
(d) 2002
(e) 2006
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme enables an expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 by RBI with effect from 1995.
Q5. IBA adopts a consultative approach to give its views on any issue pertaining to banking sector. What is the meaning of “I” in IBA?
(a) International
(b) Institute
(c) Investment
(d) Indian
(e) Increase
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) set up in 1946 with 22 members to discuss issues of common interests. Over the years, IBA emerged as the Voice of Indian Banking Industry.
Q6. Which Bank has launches 10-second paperless instant loan Scheme?
(a) HDFC
(b) SBI
(c) PNB
(d) IDBI
(e) ICICI
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. HDFC Bank, India’s second-largest private sector lender has launched a 10-second paperless instant loan Scheme for its existing customers. The 10-second loan Scheme was launched as part of HDFC Bank’s digital banking platform GoDigital. With this, HDFC bank became first banking institution to completely automate the entire process of loan approval and disbursement.
Q7. Which among the following organisation to provide Rs 30,000 crore credit to farmers for irrigation?
(a) NABARD
(b) RBI
(c) SBI
(d) PNB
(e) SIDBI
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. State-run National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has set a target of providing 30,000 crore rupees as credit to farmers for irrigational purpose. It was announced by Bank’s Chairman and Managing Director Dr. Harsh Kumar Bhanwala in Mumbai on the occasion of 34th Foundation Day of NABARD.
Q8. Which of the following bodies regulates the Regional Rural Banks?
(a) Union Government
(b) SBI
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
(e) SIDBI
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. RRBs are regulated by NABARD. Other banks are regulated by RBI directly.
Q9. Which among the following banks has launched the First Multi-Currency Contactless Card service in India?
(a) HDFC Bank
(b) Axis Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) ICICI Bank
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. India’s third largest private sector lender, Axis Bank has launched the first Contactless Debit, Credit and Multi-Currency Forex Card in association with VISA payWave in the country. Axis Bank will offer a contactless debit/credit cards to its 1.7 million premium customers which also enables withdrawal of 15 currencies via Multi-Currency Forex facility. To facilitate contactless cards operations bank will upgrade 50,000, of its point of sale (PoS) machines across the country.
Q10. Name the organisation, which has allows Banks to tie up with insurers?
(a) IRDAI
(b) RBI
(c) SBI
(d) World Bank
(e) SEBI
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has allowed banks to tie up with insurers. This decision was taken as part of the IRDAI’s new Bancassurance model guidelines which will be notified soon. Prior to this decision, banks were not allowed to have insurance agency tie-ups with more than one insurer. As per new decision banks can tie up with nine insurers from three segments viz. life, non–life and standalone health. It will not be binding on banks and they are free to take their call. Earlier, IRDAI had constituted a 7 member committee to study the reviewing of the existing architecture of the Banacassurance model.
Q11. An FVCI can invest in an Indian company engaged in
(a) Biotechnology
(b) Dairy industry
(c) Production of bio-fuels
(d) IT related to hardware and software development
(e) All of the above
S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. An FVCI can invest in an Indian company engaged in:-
1. Biotechnology
2. IT related to hardware and software development
3. Nanotechnology
4. Seed research and development
5. Research and development of new chemical entities in pharmaceutical sector
6. Dairy industry
7. Poultry industry
8. Production of bio-fuels
9. Hotel-cum-convention centres with seating capacity of more than three thousand.
10. Infrastructure sector.

Q12. If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within __________ days from the date of receipt of the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/FCNR(B)/Escrow account, the amount shall be refunded. 
(a) 210 days
(b) 150 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 120 days
(e) 90 days
S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. If the shares or convertible debentures are not issued within 180 days from the date of receipt of the inward remittance or date of debit to NRE/ FCNR (B)/ Escrow account, the amount shall be refunded. Further, Reserve Bank may on an application made to it and for sufficient reasons permit an Indian Company to refund/ allot shares for the amount of consideration received towards issue of security if such amount is outstanding beyond the period of 180 days from the date of receipt.
Q13. FCCB is a type of corporate bond issued by an Indian company in an overseas market in a currency different from that of the issuer. FCCB stands for-
(a) Foreign Currency Convertible Board
(b) Foreign Currency Convertible Banking
(c) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
(d) Foreign Currency Convertible Base
(e) Foreign Currency Convertible Basel
S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. A foreign currency convertible bond (FCCB) is a type of corporate bond issued by an Indian company in an overseas market in a currency different from that of the issuer. Investors have the option of redeeming their investment on maturity or converting the bonds into equity any time during the currency of the bond.
Q14. What is the meaning of “C” in ECB?
(a) Concourse
(b) Cashless
(c) Common
(d) Conclusion
(e) Commercial
S14. Ans.(e)
Sol. ECB stands for External Commercial Borrowings.
Q15. ECB can be raised under Track-II for general corporate purpose (including working capital). The minimum average maturity period will be-
(a) 05 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
(e) 25 years
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. ECB can be raised under Track II for general corporate purpose (including working capital). The minimum average maturity period will be 10 years.
Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully to answer the questions.
A  8  B  6  #  7  H  U  %  3  $  F  V  R  2  I  @  ↑  4  1  W  E  9  ©  L  5
Q1. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel but not immediately preceded by a number?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
 Q2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) B7#
(b) I4↑
(c) F2R
(d) 95L
(e) W©E
Q3. Which of the following is seventh to the right of fifteenth from the right end?
(a) 4
(b) T
(c) 1
(d) W
(e) None of these
Q4. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant and also immediately preceded by a number?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three
Q5. If all symbols are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be eighth from the left end?
(a) F
(b) $
(c) U
(d) 3
(e) None of these
Solutions (1-5):
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. 2I
S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. W©E
S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. 7th to right of 15th from right= 8th from right= 4
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. 3$F, 9©L
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. 3
Q6. Which of the following expressions will be true if the given expression ‘A > B ≥ C < D < E’ is definitely true?
(a) A ≥ C
(b) E > C
(c) D ≥ B
(d) A > D
(e) None of these
Q7. If the expressions ‘E < J ≤ H > Z’, ‘H ≤ Y’ and ‘E > F’ are true, which of the following conclusions will be definitely false?
(a) F < Y
(b) Y > E
(c) F < H
(d) J ≤ Y
(e) All are true
Q8. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘K ≤ H’ and ‘M > J’ definitely true?
H ≥ I = J ? K ≤ L < M
(a) >
(b) ≥
(c) ≤
(d) Either < or ≤
(e) =
Q9. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P > S’ be definitely false?
(a) P > Q ≥ R = S
(b) S ≤ R ≤ Q < P
(c) R = P > Q ≥ S
(d) S > Q ≥ R < P
(e) S < Q ≤ R < P
Q10. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that ‘N < K’ definitely holds true?
K—L—M—N
(a) ≥, =, >
(b) ≤, <, =
(c) ≥, =, <
(d) >, ≥, <
(e) None of these
Solutions (6-10):
S6. Ans.(b)
Sol. E > C
S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. All are true
S8. Ans.(e)
Sol. =
S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. S > Q ≥ R < P
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. ≥, =, >
Directions (11-15): Study the following information and answer the questions.
Seven friends, namely L, M, N, O, X, Q and R, like different animated movies, namely Toy Story, Moana, Frozen, Up, Lion King, Shrek and Bambi, but not necessarily in the same order. Each friend also has a presentation on topics of different subjects, namely Hindi, Math, Science, Computer, Chemistry, Physics and Sanskrit but not necessarily in the same order.
Q has a presentation on Hindi and likes neither Frozen nor Up. The one who likes Toy Story has a presentation on Math. L likes Moana and has a presentation neither on Computer nor on Chemistry. The one who likes Bambi has a presentation on Sanskrit. M has a presentation on Physics and does not like Up. The one who likes Up does not have a presentation on Chemistry. O likes Lion King. R does not have a presentation on Math and does not like Up. X does not like Up.
Q11. On which of the following subjects does X have a presentation?
(a) Chemistry
(b) Science
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Other than those given as options
(e) Computer
Q12. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) R – Bambi
(b) Q – Shrek
(c) N – Up
(d) X – Moana
(e) M – Frozen
Q13. Which of the following combinations is definitely correct?
(a) L – Science
(b) R – Math
(c) N – Chemistry
(d) All the given combinations are definitely correct
(e) X – Computer
Q14. Which of the following combinations of movie and subject is definitely correct with respect to N?
(a) Up – Chemistry
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) Shrek – Computer
(d) Toy Story – Math
(e) Up – Computer
Q15. Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Sanskrit – Bambi
(b) Science – Frozen
(c) Hindi – Shrek
(d) Chemistry – Lion King

(e) Computer – Up

Solutions (11-15):

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. Math
S12. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S14. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol.

Q1. In 6 litre mixture of spirit and water there is 15% water. In this mixture 4 litre of another mixture containing 10% water is mixed. After this 1.5 litre of spirit and 0.5 litre of water is mixed in  this mixture. Find the percentage of water in the final mixture.
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%
(e) 12%
 Q2. A milkman sells the milk at cost price but mixes water in the milk. In this way he earns 50/3% profit. In what ratio does he mix milk and water?
(a) 5 : 1
(b) 7 : 1
(c) 6 : 1
(d) 3 : 10
(e) 7 : 2
Q3. A can do 50% more work than B can do in the same time. B alone can do a piece of work in 20 hr. A, with the help of B, can finish the same work in how many hours?
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 40/3
(d) 11/2
(e) 10
Q4. A tank holds 100 gallons of water. Its inlet is 7 inches in diameter and fills the tank at 5 galloons/min. The outlet of the tank is twice the diameter of the inlet. How many minutes will it take to empty the tank if the inlet is shut off, when the tank is full and the outlet is opened? (Hint: Rate of filling or emptying is directly proportional to the diameter).
(a) 7.14 min
(b) 10.0 min
(c) 10.7 min
(d) 5.0 min
(e) 11.5 min
Q5. A and B started a business in partnership by investing Rs 10,000 and Rs 4000 respectively. Condition of partnership is that B got Rs 100 per month for management of the business. Remaining profit has to be distributed in the ratio of their investments. Find the share of their profit, if the annual profit is Rs 4000.
(a) Rs 3000 each
(b) Rs 2500 each
(c) Rs 1500 each
(d) Rs 2000 each
(e) Rs 1800 each
Solutions (1-5):

Directions (6-10): Simplify the following questions.

Q8. 48 + 8 × 0.75 – 5 = ?

(a) 22
(b) 36
(c) 49
(d) 56
(e) 46
Q9. 18.657 – 7.549 – 4.111 – 1.630 = ?
(a) 4.673
(b) 6.893
(c) 6.562
(d) 5.367
(e) 6.367
Q10. 2950 ÷ 12.5 + 160 = ?
(a) 392
(b) 390
(c) 396
(d) 394
(e) 400
Solutions (6-10):

Directions (11-15): In the following number series one term does not follow the usual pattern. Find that term.

Q11. 7, 10, 17, 27, 44, 71, 116, 186
(a) 27
(b) 44
(c) 71
(d) 116
(e) 186
Q12. 12, 24, 72, 288, 1440, 8645, 60480
(a) 12
(b) 288
(c) 1440
(d) 8645
(e) 60480
Q13. 2, 8, 18, 32, 50, 72, 99
(a) 2
(b) 18
(c) 50
(d) 72
(e) 99
Q14. 5, 6, 14, 43, 184, 925
(a) 43
(b) 6
(c) 184
(d) 14
(e) 925
Q15. 10, 25, 55, 135, 235, 475, 955
(a) 55
(b) 135
(c) 235
(d) 475

(e) 955

Solutions (11-15):